ECS Flashcards
(239 cards)
1
Q
What are the 3 types of ARMS?
A
1) Nominal 2) Fast 3) Very Fast
2
Q
How many alert states are there? What are they?
A
AS 1 - ABT / AS 2 - TBM / AS 3 - Passive Search / AS 4 - Radiate disable / AS 5 - CDR Discretion (5-1, 5-3, 5-6) / AS 6 - MCX / AS 7 - destroyed / NMC / AS 0 - moving
3
Q
What S/ I must be activated while inputting Data into TAB 72?
A
Masked Terrain Maps
4
Q
What TAB do you use to set the RLRIU (routing logic radio interface unit) for the FU?
A
Tab 68
5
Q
What is RHI?
A
Range Height Indicator
6
Q
How many traces are there on the RHI?
A
21
7
Q
What is the maximum left to right width for RHI?
A
42 KM
8
Q
What is PPI?
A
Plan Position Indicator
9
Q
How many beams are in PPI?
A
15
10
Q
How are the beams arranged in PPI?
A
3 sets of 5
11
Q
What is the maximum range of the EPP power cables ?
A
75 feet
12
Q
What is the maximum usable length of the EPP power cables?
A
60 feet
13
Q
During Initialization, the NFS alignment accuracy UTM coordinate can be no more than ____ from the actual radar location
A
40 KM / 50 M by Raytheon
14
Q
How many pages does the ECS volumes tab have?
A
55
15
Q
What tab is used for TBM discrimination Parameters?
A
Tab 15 ( TBM Discrimination Parameters)
16
Q
What tab specifically displays threats to your theater of operations?
A
Tab 44 ( TBM Threat Set Control )
17
Q
What tab would you use to configure the system to automatically engage TBM bravos?
A
Tab 78 ( launch decision Parameters )
18
Q
How many hours of Mode 1 & 3 codes can be input into tab 73 ( KAA - 63 table ) ?
A
48 hours
19
Q
What is the highest number of canisters that can be stacked in the MSA ?
A
4
20
Q
What should be mapped first, the STL or the PTL?
A
STL ( secondary target line)
21
Q
Where is FP search mode located in your tabs?
A
Tab 1 p. 2
22
Q
Which tab allows you to create a virtual target?
A
Tab 4 ( ASOJ [ Anti Stand Off Jammer ] Virtual Target Control )
23
Q
Brevity code TIMBER means what?
A
TADIL - J
24
Q
What is in ECS tab 13?
A
Data Base of Initialization Selection
25
Local LS’s must be emplaced at a minimum of how far away from each other?
90 M
26
Which S/ I displays the situation centered relative to the cursor selected position?
Offset
27
What is ECS tab 68?
Data Communications Control
28
Which tab can display the 5 most recent faults?
Tab 32 ( continuous diagnostics control and review )
29
What tab and page is ADW (Air Defense Warning) programmed in?
Tab 1 page 1
30
Within how many degrees of the PTL must each local LS be emplaced ?
(+/-) 80 degrees
31
What does the second page of tab 2 allow?
It allows the operator to set the DLT and LS prime path modes
32
What is in ECS tab 99?
FP Data Transfer Control
33
Where is launch Discrimination turned on?
Tab 14 p. 3 (Target Display Control)
34
Where is a jammer strobe display range entered ?
Tab 14 p. 2 ( Target Display Control)
35
What member of the RSOP team is responsible for setting up the OE - 254 ?
RSOP OIC Driver
36
What are the range limits of RL-1?
1.3 - 10 KM
37
On what tab and page is ABT Engagement Range Bias found?
Tab 1 p. 1
38
When doing ISLB you should only consider Terrain between ______
3-10 KM
39
What are the ID Weight Sets?
1. Peacetime 2. Transition 3. War Time
40
What are the range limits of RL-3?
6 - 30 KM
41
The RSOP evaluation has how many phases?
4
42
Which S/I is used to destroy a missile in flight?
HOLD FIRE
43
Who directs the operator to gather RTG BITE information?
BMO
44
Which tab allows the operator to gather RTG BITE faults detected during tactical operations?
Tab 30 ( TWT Select + Transmitter BITE Data)
45
Brevity code SQUAWK means?
Target is emitting
46
Brevity code SPADES means?
No response
47
What are the authorizations found in tab 1 page 1 in the ECS?
ECM - POP UP - Minimum Safe Velocity- Slow Target Engagement - Mode 4 Friend - SIF Friend - Assumed Friend - ARM Class
48
If you have to enter the coordinates for CRG what tab would you use?
Tab 72 (General Purpose Maps Entry)
49
For table 8 certification the patriot system must rejoin the air battle with in _____ minutes with minimum engagement capability.
45 min
50
What are the 2 types of jammers that can be identified on A-Scope?
Quite & Repeater
51
What are the two lines on the ACO that do not have a number value assigned to them?
Line O : Coordinating Altitude and Line P: IFFON / IFFOFF / IFPID / FSCL / PIDON
52
What is the speed of gale + above force winds?
35 NM per hour (41 statue miles)
53
What is ECS tab 7?
LS Control + Wind Speed
54
What is ECS tab 95?
Radar Mapping Train Control
55
What is ECS tab 91?
FP Data Acquisition Mode Select/ Control
56
What is ECS tab 31?
Radar Function Summaries, in percent
57
Which ACM is labeled H/550-89H /T/F?
SUA
58
What is ECS tab 30?
TWT Select & Transmitter Bite Data
59
In what tab do you compute missing data?
Tab 93 ( Sector Mapping Review Control )
60
If I wanted to identify my Tactical DataBase version, what tab would I use?
Tab 13 Data Base of Initialization Selection
61
What is ECS tab 56?
Tailored TBM Search Data
62
Tab 31 is updated how often?
Once every second
63
What are the 5 search modes ?
1. ) ABT
2. ) ABT / TBM
3. ) ABT / CM
4. ) ABT/ CM/ TBM-SELF
5. ) TBM
64
Tab 95, current RS data field must be within how many degrees of the commander azimuth to allow Mapping?
+ - 2 degrees
65
During Data acquisition, MS 3 can begin inputting additional data in only after what tab has been entered?
Tab 81 ( Radar Location / Alignment Data Entry )
66
Where do you find fault data on an ELES Launcher?
Tab 16 ( Launcher Fault Data )
67
What does the acronym BRAA stand for?
Bearing, Range, Altitude, Aspect
68
The _________ Display is a horizontal plot of the ISLB and the OSLB
HORP
69
What type of display is used for fairly level terrain?
Display C
70
During Initialization, what tab appears first?
Tab 13 ( Data Base of Initialization Selection )
71
What is the file EDWA generates on a track as it enters the PCF ?(pre classification filter)
CTDR - Composite Track Data Record
72
Self Defense criteria can be found on what page of Tab 1?
Page 4
73
What tab would you use to define the minimum speed used for slow target engagement?
Tab 78 ( launch Decision Parameters)
74
________ & ________ are the primary air battle functions.
Weapons Control & Friendly Protect
75
H201H Is an example of what ACM?
JEZ (joint engagement zone)
76
The maximum allowable slope of the emplacement site for the EPP must not exceed ____ degrees.
10
77
What S/I shows current condition of the system as assessed by the Status Monitor Mode Control Program ?
Operator Asses
78
What is the maximum length of the RWCIU cable?
120 feet
79
What is the max usable length of the RWCIU cable?
100 feet
80
Radar transmitter & bite data can be found in tab _____.
Tab 30 (TWT Select + Transmitter Bite Data )
81
What is line 2B on the STO?
EA Engagement Authority
82
What S/I caused surveillance of a Target in coverage area to stop & if it continues in sector, is regenerated & new track recorded ?
Drop Track
83
When utilizing RL- 3 capabilities, operators should prefer the LS be at ______ elevation than the RS
Lower
84
Page 1 of TAB 5 is _____ status / Control
Asset
85
What are the 3 types of reconnaissance?
Air
Ground
Map
86
How many Control centers may operate in the tactical net, which may span a radius of several hundred miles?
62
87
How would you connect TADIL A Data / voice to the ICC ?
Via a 26 pair cable
88
According to the Patriot Brigade Gunnery Program an individual should train on RFA drills how often?
Twice weekly
89
What is ECS tab 74 ?
Compass Rose Tables
90
The term ADW Red means what?
Attack is imminent or in progress
91
If you wanted to view unscheduled track actions, you would pull up what tab?
Tab 31 (Radar Functions Summary)
92
The Alternate Search Sector tab page A is used for ?
ABT
93
What is ECS tab 14 ?
Target Display Control
94
What is ECS tab 81?
Radar Location / Alignment Data Entry
95
On what tab and page are Altitude bands found ?
Tab 14 p. 2 ( Target Display Control )
96
What is ECS tab 32?
Continuous Diagnostic Control and Review
97
What tab is used to put the radar into battle short?
Tab 8 ( FP Control )
98
What are the 6 different threats mentioned in line 2B Of the STO?
```
FW
TBM
ARM
CM
UAV
RW
```
99
What is used to prevent inadvertent ground impact ?
Urban upturn, or URLAT
100
On what tab and page would you find URLAT?
Tab 1 p. 3
101
What is ECS tab 5?
Asset Status / Control
102
Line 2A on the STO is what?
ID Authority
103
What is ECS Tab 34?
ATM 3 Cold Fire Prevention
104
What is ECS tab 0?
Tabular Display Index
105
What is ECS tab 71?
Volumes
106
If an ACO is numbered 13G, what does it signify?
7th ACO on the 13th day of that month
107
If you are in Tab 1 and you see a DEFCON warning of A what does this mean?
ADE , Air Defense Emergency
108
In what tab can you input a ballistic missile operations area (BMOA) ?
Tab 72 ( General Purpose Maps Entry )
109
________ represent the greatest threat to the AMD, aviation, and intelligence radar community
ARMs
110
What is ECS Tab 96?
ISLB
111
When no previous data base is available, which type of emplacement will be selected in tab 91 ( FP Data Acquisition Mode Select / Control ) ?
Standard Emplacement
112
Line 4 of the STO is what?
ADW
113
Tab 5 in the ECS turns off everything in tab ________
70 - Defended Assets
114
What is minimum engagement ?
The ability to fire 2 missiles from 2 different launchers
No must fix faults
All tabs are correct
115
The operator can select English or metric units in page 1 of tab ________
14 - Target Display Control
116
Does the alternate RSOP team need to meet the same requirements as the primary?
Yes
117
What is CAL?
Critical Asset List - lists all the assets that the supported commander has determined required AMD protection
118
What will cause the RSOP team to be decertified?
Loss of the OIC, NCOIC, or the loss of 4 more team members between certification
119
Page 2 of Tab 5 is ________ Status / Control
Volume
120
What function prohibits intercepts under the minimum intercept altitude?
URLAT
121
What does the acronym TBEQ stand for?
To Be Engaged Que
122
Describe the size and the slope of the fire control area?
30 meters x 35 meters and less than a 10 degree slope
123
Equipment crews that score a 95% or better in all related sub areas on the first attempt are designated as what?
Distinguished Equipment Crews
124
What is the missile heat time for a PAC - 2 interceptor?
25 minutes
125
What is the missile heat time of a PAC - 3 interceptor?
10 minutes
126
What is ECS tab 63?
Launcher Group Assignments
127
What is ECS tab 44?
TBM Threat Set Control
128
Weapons Free is defined as what?
Any target not positively identified as a friendly may be engaged
129
What is the maximum number of radar azimuth positions that can be skipped in tab 97 ( Mapping Display/ Control Select Entry ) ?
7
130
What is ECS tab 90?
Data Collection Control
131
It is recommended that RSOP have ________ members.
15
132
What is the maximum number of OCUs that the IDOCS can use?
8
133
What is ECS tab 73?
KAA - 63 Table AM & PM
134
RL -3 Launcher’s should be located within ________ of the PTL.
+ - 60 degrees
135
If terrain or artificial features between the RS and LS exceed ________ (local LS) or ________ (remote LS) above the LOS, radar acquisition may not occur
2 degrees , 0.5 degrees
136
How many tracks can as single ECS see on its scope at one time?
99
137
Only ________ assets are used in the evaluation process.
Active
138
The ECCM Enable S/I will command the radar to use ________ __________ if authorized in tab 54.
Frequency Diversity
139
Which report is used to report jamming of radio frequencies ?
MIJI
140
On what page of the FP Status Tab would you look to find information about Launcher location ?
Page 2
141
In what tab and page are ARM classification parameters modified?
Tab 76 page A (Counter ARM Threat Parameters)
142
Which S/I is used to prevent over engagement of a track?
Cease Fire
143
What 2 tabs can be used to activated or deactivate assets?
Tab 5 & 70
Tab 5 - Asset Status Control
Tab 70 - Defended Assets
144
Brevity code bandit means what?
Enemy: not cleared to engage
145
In tab 96 what are the left and right azimuth limits ?
5250 - 1150 mil
146
During radar Mapping, which display should be used when the terrain contour is irregular?
Display A
147
What does TIBS stand for?
Tactical Information Broadcast System
148
Does the local FP address have to be the same as the RLRIU?
Yes
149
What 2 indicators on after tab 85 has been entered?
LS OPER & DDL
150
When reorienting the RS the operator must first ________, if the is not done the system will have to be _________ for proper system operation.
Update the internal database, reinitialized
151
Tab 5 is updated for each entry into tab ________ and ________.
70 and 71
152
TBM Threat Set Control (Tab 44) works in conjunction with what other tab ?
Tab 56 ( Tailored TBM Search Data )
153
What are the 6 IFF responses ?
```
Valid
Invalid
No Response
Not interrogated
Valid Ambivalent
Invalid Ambivalent
```
154
What is ECS Tab 92?
Masked Areas Drawing Control
155
What is ECS tab 15?
TBM Discrimination Parameters
156
What is the top down interactive process that covers the full spectrum of ADA operations?
Defense Design
157
What is S/ I displays the flight path data and also starts collection and display of flight path history for a hooked track ?
Trails
158
What is ECS tab 6?
IFF / SIF Control
159
What houses the TADIL - A radio equipment?
TCS
160
What is ECS tab 8?
FP Control
161
Upon notification, the RSOP OIC has ______ minutes to brief the RSOP team.
5 minutes
162
How many Radar frequencies are there?
160
163
How many “W” codes are there?
5
164
How are the radar frequencies numbered ?
0-31
165
Brevity code GADGET means?
Radar or emitter equipment
166
What are the 4 phases of RSOP?
Preparation, Movement, Survey, Emplacement
167
Which RSOP member validates the PTL ?
OIC
168
What form is used to record manual emplacement data for the radar?
DA Form 7916 -R
169
The mission of the _________ team is to select the best terrain and equipment sites that enable the patriot battery to perform its mission.
RSOP
170
Which tab allows you to set the missile cut off thresholds?
Tab 78 ( Launch Decision Parameters )
171
EDWA functions to evaluate both _______ & ________ ID Data?
Active & Passive
172
Refraction Parameters are set in which tab and page?
Tab 1 page 3
173
When will the system automatically engage an ARM ?
When the ARMs GIP is within 2 KM of the patriot RS
174
How many targets can have trails on each MS ?
4
175
What tab is used to view the IFF response from and interrogated track?
Track Amp Data
176
What is the range estimate S/I used for?
Used to enter an estimated ranged for a non ranged resolved jammer
177
Who does the ID authority originate with?
AADC
178
What is ECS tab 79?
Identification Parameters
179
What S/I works in conjunction with tab 71 ?
ID Areas & Weapon Control Areas
180
What is ECS tab 16?
LS Fault Data
181
In what tab would you select your data acquisition mode?
Tab 91
182
There is only one input that allows the operator input to Launcher scoring, what is it?
Depletion rule set in tab 78 ( Launch Decision Parameters )
183
What is ECS tab 9?
Reorientation
184
What is ECS tab 4 ?
ASOJ Virtual Target Control
185
Once you power up the RS, how long does it take for the temperature control components to become stable?
20 minutes
186
Brevity code ALLIGATOR means ?
TADIL - A
187
What is ECS tab 78?
Launch Decision Parameters
188
In what tab do you recycle the radar ?
Tab 30 page 2 (TWT Select + Transmitter Bite Data)
189
What is ECS tab 1 ?
FIDOC + Operational Parameters Change
190
What is ECS tab 85?
Launcher Location/ Alignment
191
Who disseminates the STO, ACO, CAL/ DAL?
ADAFCO
192
When entering assets for defense, if you enter an AT asset, what is the size of the TBM defense that is automatically enabled ?
2 KM
193
What is ECS tab 94?
Horizon Plot Control
194
How many corrals can be programmed in each sector of display E?
6
195
Tab 85 will not be displayed until you have completed what tab ?
Tab 68 (Data Communications Control)
196
What is ECS tab 54?
Radar Frequency Control
197
What is ECS tab 55?
Alternate Search Sector Control
198
An order that directs AMD units to posture their systems IAW the current enemy and friendly situations is called the ________ .
STO - Surface To Air Missile Tactical Order
199
What tab would you use input a minimum risk route into the system ?
Tab 71 (Volumes)
200
What is ECS tab 76?
Counter ARM Threat Parameters
201
While preparing the ECS for power- up & operation, CM2 verifies that the lighting control panel Normal - off maintenance switch is set to ________ .
Normal
202
In what tab can you find out how many minutes you have remaining on your recording device ?
Tab 90 (Data Collection Control)
203
What are the 5 IFF Conditions ?
```
Emergency
IP
Garble
Multi Reply
Spoof
```
204
What are the 3 TBM Assets?
Point
Radial
Polygon
205
What are the 2 ABT Assets ?
Point
| Radial
206
Final IFF authorization found where?
Tab 6
207
What tab would you go to save your tabular entires during Initialization?
Tab 98 (Data Base Control)
208
On what tab would you look toy find the 5 most recent radar faults ?
Tab 32 (continuous diagnostics control and review)
209
The 9 most threatening targets will be found on the left side of what tab?
Engage Data
210
What are the 4 attributes found in tab 71?
ORIG - origin
SPC - safe passage corridor
RVA - restricted volume attribute
PVA - prohibited volume attributed
211
What are the 3 major preclassification tests that are run by the PCF ?
Minimum distance test
Slow speed test
False target test
212
What is ECS tab 97?
Mapping Display / Control Select Entry
213
What is ECS tab 93 ?
Sector Mapping Review Control
214
What is line H on the ACO ?
F50H - F99H BDZ - Base Defense Zone
215
What type of ACM is 123H ?
HIDAZ
216
What is line C of the ACO ?
LOMEZ
217
The WFZ is on which line of the ACO?
Line F
218
Brevity code BOGEY means?
Unknown
219
How many IFF conditions are there?
5
220
Display A allows the operator to enter how many azimuth positions?
69
221
What is the time between the 1st and 2nd shot of a modified ripple ?
4.8 seconds delay / unless the LNIP is less than 9KM, then it’s 3.2 second delay
222
What is the distance that a track has to move from its original detected position for it to pass minimum safe distance test ?
3% or 1 KM
223
What are the 2 states of classification ?
Confirmed and presumed
224
Which tracks bypass the PCF ?
Continuous jammers
Down- told tracks from the ICC
Targets classified as a TBMS
225
When must the ACO be activated or deactivated ?
+ - 30 seconds from the time specified on the ACO
226
When is the SAMSTAT report ?
0001Z
After an RFA Drill
Alert State Assumptions
And any change in equipment status
227
How many methods of Fire are there?
5 (4)
228
How many methods of Fire are available to the operator?
3
229
This tab allows you to tailor the EDWA process on classifying a track as an ARM, what is it?
Tab 76
230
How are changes to tab 55 activated?
Alternate Search Sector 1
Alternate Search Sector 2
Drop long range
Drop short range (as appropriate)
231
In what line of the STO would you look to find you’re directed alert state ?
Line 6
232
The purpose of the _________ is to point out terrain features that could mask out air craft ?
MTM
233
How far is the short shot on the AMG ?
10KM
234
Winds are considered to be gale force at ________ NM per hour.
35
235
In what tab are mode 1 & 3 codes programmed ?
Tab 73
236
In which tab are pop up Parameters programmed ?
Tab 79
237
What must the computer control program select switch must be set to load operational software?
Tactical
238
A patriot pure fire unit is required to deploy with at least how many launchers to complete a table 8 certification?
5
239
The ACO will tell you which volume to activate in tab _______.
5
