EMB-145 Systems Study Flashcards Preview

EMB-145 > EMB-145 Systems Study > Flashcards

Flashcards in EMB-145 Systems Study Deck (200):
1

2201: The maximum flap extension speed for the EMB 145 flaps 45 deg is:

145 KTS

2

2202: The CVG actuators are operated by:

Fuel Pressure.

3

2203: What items are installed on the accessory gearbox:

Oil Pump, Hydraulic Pump, FPMU, 2 DC Gens, Air Starter and the PMA.

4

2204: If the FADEC in control of the engine fails:

The other FADEC will immediately assume control.

5

2205: The electric hydraulic pumps are activated in the AUTO position if:

The associated engine N2 falls below 56.4%

6

2206: The RUDDER OVERBOOST message on the EICAS means:

The aircraft is above 135KIAS with both hydraulic systems supplying the …

7

2207: Hydraulic system 1 incorporates a priority valve to:

Ensure sufficient hydraulic pressure of the flight controls during electric hydraulic pump operation.

8

2208: To extend the speed brakes, you must set the speed break lever to OPEN:

Thrust lever angle must be low and flaps at 0 or 9 degrees.

9

2009: What is the maximum altitude to start the APU:

FL 300

10

2210: The APU fuel shutoff valve automatically closes:

10 seconds after an APU fire is detected on the ground or when the extinguishing switch is pressed.

11

2211: The "MAIN DOOR OPEN" EICAS warning message is displayed:

When the aircraft is on the ground with the #1 engine running and main door is open or not locked

12

2212: The #1 hydraulic accumulator supplies enough backup pressure to open the door:

4 times.

13

2213: Choose the correct statement concerning the DAU's:

DAU #2 monitors the rear aircraft systems as well as the right engine.

14

2214: If both PFDs display an amber SG2 symbol:

SG2 is supplying the information for both PFDs.

15

2215: Choose the correct statement about EICAS takeoff inhibit:

Begins at V1 minus 15 kts and ends at 400 feet RA, CAS < 60 kts or after 1 minute.

16

2216: During normal flight operation the electrical system is:

Divided into two networks, left and right.

17

2217: The APU generator can be connected to the central electrical bus:

When the APU RPM is above 95% RPM plus 7 seconds.

18

2218: The 24-volt lead acid backup battery provides:

A source of power for the operation of the GCUs.

19

2219: The Engine/APU Fire Detection System:

Automatically returns to normal mode when the fire or overheat condition has been removed.

20

2220: The engine fire bottles:

Are cross-connected to enable the bottle to be discharged into either engine.

21

2221: The lavatory waste bin fire extinguisher:

Will discharge automatically if the temperature in the waste bin exceeds a preset level.

22

2222: In the event of a complete loss of electric (fuel) pumps:

The engines can suction fuel feed.

23

2223: To determine fuel quantity using the measuring sticks:

Enter the table in the AOM with the value read on the stick to obtain fuel quantity in gallons.

24

2224: The normal way to shut down the APU is:

Press the STOP button.

25

2225: If an APU FAIL caution message is presented on the EICAS:

Do NOT try to restart the APU.

26

2226: The 24-blade ducted-fan is driven by:

The 3-stage low-pressure turbine.

27

2227: The 14th stage HP bleed-air valve opens:

During low engine thrust, cross-bleed starts and anti-ice operation

28

2228: Operation of the landing gear is:

Electrically-controlled and hydraulically-actuated.

29

2229: The nose-gear doors are:

Hydraulically-actuated.

30

2230: To avoid retraction on the ground:

A mechanical device locks the landing gear lever.

31

2231: The nose-wheel steering is enabled by:

The nose-gear weight-on-wheels proximity switch.

32

2232: Total nose-wheel steering authority using both tiller and pedals is:

76 degrees.

33

2233: The magenta airspeed trend vector indicates the airspeed the aircraft will be at in:

10 seconds.

34

2234: The steering can be manually disengaged by:

Either steering disengagement button on both control wheels.

35

2235: A red BLD 1 or 2 OVTEMP warning message is displayed:

If bleed air temperature down stream of the pre-cooler is too high.

36

2236: The steering can be manually disengaged by:

The steering disengage trigger on either control wheel.

37

2237: The low-speed awareness airspeed tape indication has 3 colors:

White, Yellow, Red.

38

2238: The minimum crew oxygen pressure for dispatch without an observer is:

1100 PSI.

39

2239: The PBEs provide oxygen for a minimum of:

15 minutes.

40

2240: The purpose of the primary RSB is to:

Connect RMU 1 and 2 so they can cross-tune the radios.

41

2241: The Tuning Backup Control Head:

Can be used to tune COMM 2 and NAV 2.

42

2242: A passenger oxygen generator will produce oxygen for approximately:

12 minutes.

43

2243: Proper operation of the IRS requires the mode selector:

To be set to ALIGN briefly between each flight.

44

2244: The EGPWS will generate an aural “TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP” message...:

30 seconds away from terrain conflict.

45

2245: The nose gear landing light:

Requires the nose gear to be down and locked and the nose landing switch selected to illuminate.

46

2246: Low bank mode is automatically selected:

When climbing above 25,000 feet.

47

2247: Choose the correct statement regarding the Flight Level Change Mode (FLC)

FLC will maintain a climb speed of Mach 0.56 above 17,377 ft.

48

2248: The red light on the emergency flashlights:

Is illuminated when the flashlight is charging.

49

2249: The crew oxygen mask delivers oxygen under positive pressure:

By selecting the Emergency setting on the mask.

50

2250: When the passenger oxygen knob is set to AUTO the system is automatically deloyed when:

The cabin altitude is above 14,000 feet plus or minus 500 feet.

51

2251: If the FPMU fails:

The engine will shut down.

52

2252: If the CPL button is pressed with the autopilot engaged:

The autopilot will default to heading and pitch hold modes.

53

2253: In the event of a trim runaway, the pilots first action should be:

Press the control wheel quick disconnect button.

54

2254: In the auto pressure controller, the takeoff sequence lasts until:

Until the cabin altitude is equal to the theoretical altitude.

55

2255: If an Air Data Computer fails:

A red X will appear on the airspeed and altitude display.

56

2256: Why does the weather radar receive AHRS information:

For antenna stabilization.

57

2257: The max airspeed for windshield wiper operation is:

170 kts.

58

2258: Take-off configuration warning system parameters include:

Flaps, Spoilers, Pitch Trim and Brakes.

59

2259: An EICAS caution message AURAL WARN FAIL means:

Both AWU channels are inoperative.

60

2260: The stick pusher:

Requires agreement from both SPS computer channels.

61

2261: The GPU AVAIL caption indicates:

Ground power can be selected by pressing the GPU button on the electrical panel.

62

2262: During normal in-flight operation:

One electric fuel pump is in operation and the other two are in automatic standby.

63

2263: With only two generators available in flight, which bus bars will still be powered:

All bus bars except the Shed Bus's will be powered.

64

2264: To correct a fuel imbalance:

Turn the Crossfeed Knob toward the low tank.

65

2265: Hydraulic system 1 supplies the:

The rudder, the landing gear and the outboard brakes.

66

2266: The right (#2) engine may be started with:

Bleed air from the APU with the crossbleed open.

67

2267: Correct operation of the thermal anti-ice system can be confirmed by:

"OPEN" inscriptions in the anti-ice switches on the overhead panel.

68

2268: The rear electronics compartment is cooled in flight by:

Opening of the pressurization outflow valves which are situated in the compartment.

69

2269: When Holding in icing conditions:

You must be configured Flaps UP, Gear UP, and maintain 200 kts.

70

2270: The forward electronic bay cooling system includes:

NACA air inlets with water separators, re-circulation fans and exhaust fans.

Shut-off valves and thermostats.

THE ANSWER IS - BOTH ANSWERS ARE CORRECT.

71

2271: what is the maximum permitted weight in the rear baggage compartment:

2646 lbs.

72

2272: The engine igniters are powered from:

The PMA's only.

73

2273: The maximum operating altitude for the EMB-145 is:

37,000 ft.

74

2274: The aircraft flight number is entered into the DFDR through the:

Captain's clock.

75

2275: The ram air valves:

Open automatically when both Packs are OFF.

76

2276: Icing conditions exist when:

Visible moisture is present in any form and the temperature is 10 degC or less.

77

2277: Proper operation of the pressurization system requires the pilot to:

Enter the landing elevation.

78

2278: To perform the ice detector test on the ground:

The engines must be supplying system bleed air.

79

2279: The flight crew oxygen system:

Includes an external discharge indicator on the right forward fuselage.

80

2280: How many igniter plugs are there in each engine:

2.

81

2281: A red HDG FAIL annunciation on the PFD indicates:

A failure of the heading system.

82

2282: On landing, the weather radar:

goes into FORCED STBY mode

83

2283: Blank display screens on MFD 1 and PFD 2 indicate:

DC bus 2 failure.

84

2284: The emergency light batteries are charged:

By the essential bus.

85

2285: High-pressure engine bleed air is tapped from the compressor:

14th stage.

86

2286: Ram air for the standby airspeed indicator is supplied by:

Pitot static tube #3.

87

2287: The FADEC is powered by the PMA at:

50% N2.

88

2288: The normal source of power for starting the APU is:

Battery #2.

89

2289: The anti-skid system:

Can only relieve brake pressure.

90

2290: The emergency / parking brake system is:

2290: mechanically commanded

91

2291: Which statement concerning the hydraulic ENG PUMP SHUTOFF valve IS CORRECT:

The valve shuts off supply to the engine driven pump only.

92

2292: In the event of hydraulic system 2 failure, how many applications of the parking brake does the accumulator provide:

6.

93

2293: Turbulent air penetration speed above 10,000 feet is:

250 KIAS / 0.63 M, whichever is lower.

94

2294: The bleed air pre-cooler functions to control:

Bleed air temperature.

95

2295: The maximum airspeed for extension of the landing gear is:

250 KIAS.

96

2296: The maximum cabin differential overpressure is:

8.1 PSID.

97

2297: In icing conditions, the air conditioning logic closes which pack:

The left pack below 24,600 ft.

98

2298: If a fuel pump was to fail in flight how would the crew be alerted:

A cycling amber “FUEL LO PRESSURE” EICAS message would be presented.

99

2299: The APU will automatically shutdown in-flight if the following occur:

Under-speed, loss of speed data or ESU failure.

100

2300: The loss of a generator in flight will result in the following automatic actions:

The three remaining generators will operate in parallel.

101

2301: Maneuvering Va speed is:

200 KIAS.

102

2302: The engine accessory gearbox is driven by the:

The high-pressure spool.

103

2303: The electric hydraulic pumps are activated in the AUTO position if:

The associated engine N2 falls below 56.4%.

104

2304: To extend the speed brakes, you must set the speed brake lever to OPEN and:

Thrust lever angle must be low and flaps at 0 or 9 degrees.

105

2305: The ground spoilers are deployed when the aircraft is on the ground and:

Main landing gear wheel speed is greater than 25 kts with a low TLA.

106

2306: The RUDDER OVERBOOST message on the EICAS means:

The aircraft is above 135 KIAS with both hydraulic systems supplying the rudder

107

2307: The left engine may be started with:

Bleed air from the right engine with the crossbleed open.

108

2308: The maximum landing weight of the ERJ-145 LR is:

42,549 lbs.

109

2309: The crossbleed valve opens when the switch is in the AUTO position if:

Engine 2 is being started with the APU or a crossbleed engine start.

110

2310: Hydraulic system 2 supplies the:

Emergency brakes, outboard spoilers and the Inboard brakes.

111

2311: The landing gear warning message will be heard If:

The flaps are extended to 45 and the gear is not down and locked.

112

2312: The emergency brakes:

Use system 2 hydraulic pressure and an accumulator.

113

2313: The STEER INOP message on the EICAS means:

The nose wheel is in the free-caster mode and must be reset with the steering.

114

2314: The normal cabin differential pressure is:

7.8 PSID.

115

2315: Pitch trim of the ERJ-145 is achieved by:

Electrically repositioning the Horizontal Stabilizer.

116

2316: The flap velocity sensors:

Detect flap asymmetry.

117

2317: A battery over-temperature warning is activated if the battery temperature exceeds:

70 degC.

118

2318: The maximum fuel tank imbalance for the ERJ-145 is:

800 lbs.

119

2319: The electric hydraulic pumps are activated in the AUTO position by:

System pressure less than 1600 PSI.

120

2320: If the EICAS displays “PRESN AUTO FAIL” caution message, you should:

Consult the QRH.

121

2321: The total number of landing lights is:

3, one on each wing and one in the nose gear.

122

2322: The red beacon light switch controls:

The red beacon lights and flight data recorder.

123

2323: When the courtesy light switch is in the auto position:

All courtesy and stair lights extinguish when door is closed.

124

2324: The courtesy light switch can control the cockpit domelight provided:

The courtesy light switch is in the AUTO position and the A/C is de-energized.

125

2325: No Smoking/Fasten Seatbelt signs are automatically illuminated:

Whenever the oxygen dispensing units are open either automatically by the altimetric switch or manually from the cockpit control.

126

2326: The emergency lights are charged when:

The emergency light switch is in ARM.

127

2327: In the ARM position, the emergency lights will automatically illuminate:

For an electrical emergency, supplied by dedicated batteries.

128

2328: The APU fuel shut off valve automatically closes:

10 seconds after an APU fire is detected on the ground or when the APU fire extinguishing switch is pressed.

129

2329: The minimum altitude for auto pilot engagement after take off is:

500 feet.

130

2330: Choose the incorrect statement concerning the over wing emergency exits:

They can be opened from either inside or outside the aircraft.

131

2331: In the event of an IC-600 #1 failure:

PFD #1, MFD #1 and the EICAS will display a red X.

132

2332: if the Air Data Computer fails:

A red X appears on the airspeed and altitude tapes, and a red VS is displayed on the Vertical Speed indicator.

133

2333: An amber CAS MSG displayed on the EICAS means:

There is a discrepancy in the number of messages between IC-600 #1 and #2.

134

2334: The brake ON light indicates:

The parking brake is applied and there is hydraulic pressure in the parking lines.

135

2335: The APU generator supplies 28 Volts DC and is rated at:

400 amps below 30,000 feet, 300 amps above 30,000 feet.

136

2336: Two 24 v, 44 ampere-hour NiCad batteries can supply essential in-flight power for:

40 minutes.

137

2337: ??

??

138

2338: Detection of a fire in the APU compartment:

Causes an automatic shutdown of the APU if the aircraft is on the ground.

139

2339: Choose the correct statement concerning the APU fire extinguishing button:

When pressed, the extinguisher will discharge and the APU shutoff valve will close.

140

2340: The correct statement about the baggage compartment smoke detection system:

The “BAGG SMOKE” EICAS message disappears when smoke is no longer present.

141

2341: The purpose of the baggage compartment metered discharge extinguisher:

To provide a constant flow of Halon for 50 minutes.

142

2342: Pulling an Engine Fire Handle:

Closes the associated fuel, hydraulic, bleed air and engine anti-ice shutoff valves.

143

2343: The maximum usable fuel quantity for an EMB-145 LR in each tank is:

5717 lbs.

144

2344: If an APU FAIL caution message is presented on the EICAS:

Do NOT try to restart the APU.

145

2345: The 14-stage compressor is connected to:

A two-stage high-pressure turbine.

146

2346: The PMA can power the ignition system at speeds above:

10% N2.

147

2347: The FADECs will command maximum reserve thrust only when:

Both MAIN gear are on the ground and wheel speeds are above 25 kts, or ALL gear are on the ground.

148

2348: Which is not an example of when the FADEC will select T/O-1 thrust:

Either Go-around button is pressed for 2 seconds or more.

149

2349: The continuous thrust mode is available:

When the aircraft is 300 feet above takeoff altitude and the gear is not locked down.

150

2350: Choose the correct statement concerning the weight-on-wheels proximity switches:

There are a total of 5, two on each main gear and one on the nose gear.

151

2351: Landing gear position is determined:

2 proximity sensors on each main gear and 1 on the nose gear.

152

2352: Each landing gear is held in the up position by:

A mechanical up-lock hook.

153

2353: Pulling up the freefall extension lever:

Mechanically releases the up-lock hooks.

154

2354: The nose wheels steering is automatically disabled:

As soon as the aircraft is airborne.

155

2355: Using the nose wheel steering handle allows:

71 deg of nose wheel displacement.

156

2356: With 76 deg of nose wheel steering, the turning radius is:

69 ft. 7 inches.

157

2357: The engine high-stage valve automatically opens during:

Low engine thrust operations.

158

2358: The engine bleed valves:

Can be closed using buttons on the overhead.

159

2359: An amber ADC1 or ADC2 is displayed in the upper left-hand corner of the PFD when:

One ADC is providing data for both PFD's.

160

2360: The low altitude raster band is displayed on the altitude tape when:

The aircraft is below 550 feet radio altitude.

161

2361: The portable oxygen bottle pressures for dispatch are:

1600 psi for the short bottle, 1200 psi for the tall bottle.

162

2362: In the event of a loss of either side of the secondary RSB:

You will still be able to tune the RMU normally on the lost side.

163

2363: if you lose all three radio service buses (RSBs):

You will be able to tune COMM2 and NAV2 through the TBCH.

164

2364: A passenger oxygen generator will produce oxygen for approximately:

12 minutes.

165

2365: Proper operation of the IRS requires the mode selector:

To be set to ALIGN briefly between each flight.

166

2366: The heading hold mode:

Is the default mode when no other mode is selected, 
Will be displayed on the PFD with a ROL label, when selected,
THE ANSWER IS - Both 1 and 2 are correct.

167

2367: The pitch attitude can be changed by the pitch control wheel provided:

The autopilot is engaged and the flight director is in PIT mode.

168

2368: During a windshear warning:

The altitude pre-select mode is cancelled.

169

2369: How many portable oxygen bottles are onboard the aircraft:

Two, one located in the forward left cabin equipment storage unit and one located on the aft cabin bulkhead, right side.

170

2370: How many hand-held Halon fire extinguishers are on board the aircraft:

Three, one in the cockpit and two in the cabin.

171

2371: Which is not a location a PBE is stored in:

The forward cabin bulkhead next to the flight attendant's seat.

172

2372: An aural "CABIN" warning is generated when the cabin altitude exceeds:

10,000 feet.

173

2373: What is the total number of static wicks on the aircraft:

22.

174

2374: During an in-flight engine start:

The FADEC in control will command its ignition ON and request the other FADEC to command its ignition ON.

175

2375: The maximum ramp weight for the ERJ-145 LR is:

48,722 lbs.

176

2376: The maximum speed for flaps 9, 22 and 45 are, respectively:

250, 200 and 145 KIAS.

177

2377: In the event of a battery over-temperature, the correct memory action is:

Associated Battery - OFF.

178

2378: If a takeoff is to be performed from a sea level airfield, the pre-pressurization sequence will cause the cabin altitude to descend towards an altitude equivalent of:

-300 feet

179

2379: If an AHRS fails:

A red ATT FAIL and HDG FAIL message will appear on the PFD.

180

2380: If the airspeed comparison monitor detects a difference of more than 5 KIAS on the PFDs:

An amber IAS caption appears on both airspeed tapes.

181

2381: How do you override the WX radar forced standby function:

Press the STAB button four times within 3 seconds.

182

2382: The minimum turning radius when steering angle is 76 deg is:

69 feet 7 in.

183

2383: What are the 4 modes of the FMS in descending order of accuracy:

GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, IRS (if installed).

184

2384: How is the AWU status confirmed during power up:

An aural message "AURAL UNIT OK" is generated.

185

2385: If ground power is selected while the engine driven generators are supplying the aircraft electrical system:

The generators will go off-line automatically leaving the GPU powering the aircraft.

186

2386: Concerning the data acquisition units which of the following statements...:

Both DAUs supply information to both IC-600s.

187

2387: If the flaps have not been selected to the takeoff position:

The AWU will generate a "TAKEOFF, FLAPS" message.

188

2388: The stick pusher:

Requires agreement from both SPS computer channels.

189

2389: If ground power is selected while the APU generator is supplying the aircraft electrical system:

The ground power source will have priority over the APU.

190

2390: In normal inflight operations:

BTC 1 is open and BTC 2 is closed.

191

2391: During an electrical emergency, the following are operational:

The standby flight instruments and the EICAS.

192

2392: The EMB-145 fire protection system includes:

Two fire extinguishing bottles for the engine, two for the baggage compartment, one for the APU and one in the lavatory trash bin.

193

2393: To transfer fuel from tank 1 to tank 2 you must:

Fuel cannot be transferred from one tank to another.

194

2394: The ESU automatically shuts down the APU at:

108% rpm.

195

2395: Pressing the fire detection test button will:

illuminate the Fire Handles and the BAG SMOKE light, present 3 RED and 2 AMBER flashing EICAS messages and operating the warning bell.

196

2396: During APU starting the APU bleed valve:

Must be closed to start.

197

2397: If ALL the fuel booster pumps failed:

The FPMU will suction feed fuel from the fuel tank, the engine will keep running.

198

2398: An amber SPOILER FAIL EICAS message indicates:

Any spoiler panel is open without being commanded.

199

2399: The engine high stage valve opens:

During low engine thrust, cross bleed starts or anti-ice operations.

200

2400: The ejector pump always requires at least one bleed supply:

To ensure correct operation of the outflow valves.