Flashcards in EMB-145 Systems Study Deck (200):
2201: The maximum flap extension speed for the EMB 145 flaps 45 deg is:
2202: The CVG actuators are operated by:
2203: What items are installed on the accessory gearbox:
Oil Pump, Hydraulic Pump, FPMU, 2 DC Gens, Air Starter and the PMA.
2204: If the FADEC in control of the engine fails:
The other FADEC will immediately assume control.
2205: The electric hydraulic pumps are activated in the AUTO position if:
The associated engine N2 falls below 56.4%
2206: The RUDDER OVERBOOST message on the EICAS means:
The aircraft is above 135KIAS with both hydraulic systems supplying the …
2207: Hydraulic system 1 incorporates a priority valve to:
Ensure sufficient hydraulic pressure of the flight controls during electric hydraulic pump operation.
2208: To extend the speed brakes, you must set the speed break lever to OPEN:
Thrust lever angle must be low and flaps at 0 or 9 degrees.
2009: What is the maximum altitude to start the APU:
2210: The APU fuel shutoff valve automatically closes:
10 seconds after an APU fire is detected on the ground or when the extinguishing switch is pressed.
2211: The "MAIN DOOR OPEN" EICAS warning message is displayed:
When the aircraft is on the ground with the #1 engine running and main door is open or not locked
2212: The #1 hydraulic accumulator supplies enough backup pressure to open the door:
2213: Choose the correct statement concerning the DAU's:
DAU #2 monitors the rear aircraft systems as well as the right engine.
2214: If both PFDs display an amber SG2 symbol:
SG2 is supplying the information for both PFDs.
2215: Choose the correct statement about EICAS takeoff inhibit:
Begins at V1 minus 15 kts and ends at 400 feet RA, CAS < 60 kts or after 1 minute.
2216: During normal flight operation the electrical system is:
Divided into two networks, left and right.
2217: The APU generator can be connected to the central electrical bus:
When the APU RPM is above 95% RPM plus 7 seconds.
2218: The 24-volt lead acid backup battery provides:
A source of power for the operation of the GCUs.
2219: The Engine/APU Fire Detection System:
Automatically returns to normal mode when the fire or overheat condition has been removed.
2220: The engine fire bottles:
Are cross-connected to enable the bottle to be discharged into either engine.
2221: The lavatory waste bin fire extinguisher:
Will discharge automatically if the temperature in the waste bin exceeds a preset level.
2222: In the event of a complete loss of electric (fuel) pumps:
The engines can suction fuel feed.
2223: To determine fuel quantity using the measuring sticks:
Enter the table in the AOM with the value read on the stick to obtain fuel quantity in gallons.
2224: The normal way to shut down the APU is:
Press the STOP button.
2225: If an APU FAIL caution message is presented on the EICAS:
Do NOT try to restart the APU.
2226: The 24-blade ducted-fan is driven by:
The 3-stage low-pressure turbine.
2227: The 14th stage HP bleed-air valve opens:
During low engine thrust, cross-bleed starts and anti-ice operation
2228: Operation of the landing gear is:
Electrically-controlled and hydraulically-actuated.
2229: The nose-gear doors are:
2230: To avoid retraction on the ground:
A mechanical device locks the landing gear lever.
2231: The nose-wheel steering is enabled by:
The nose-gear weight-on-wheels proximity switch.
2232: Total nose-wheel steering authority using both tiller and pedals is:
2233: The magenta airspeed trend vector indicates the airspeed the aircraft will be at in:
2234: The steering can be manually disengaged by:
Either steering disengagement button on both control wheels.
2235: A red BLD 1 or 2 OVTEMP warning message is displayed:
If bleed air temperature down stream of the pre-cooler is too high.
2236: The steering can be manually disengaged by:
The steering disengage trigger on either control wheel.
2237: The low-speed awareness airspeed tape indication has 3 colors:
White, Yellow, Red.
2238: The minimum crew oxygen pressure for dispatch without an observer is:
2239: The PBEs provide oxygen for a minimum of:
2240: The purpose of the primary RSB is to:
Connect RMU 1 and 2 so they can cross-tune the radios.
2241: The Tuning Backup Control Head:
Can be used to tune COMM 2 and NAV 2.
2242: A passenger oxygen generator will produce oxygen for approximately:
2243: Proper operation of the IRS requires the mode selector:
To be set to ALIGN briefly between each flight.
2244: The EGPWS will generate an aural “TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP” message...:
30 seconds away from terrain conflict.
2245: The nose gear landing light:
Requires the nose gear to be down and locked and the nose landing switch selected to illuminate.
2246: Low bank mode is automatically selected:
When climbing above 25,000 feet.
2247: Choose the correct statement regarding the Flight Level Change Mode (FLC)
FLC will maintain a climb speed of Mach 0.56 above 17,377 ft.
2248: The red light on the emergency flashlights:
Is illuminated when the flashlight is charging.
2249: The crew oxygen mask delivers oxygen under positive pressure:
By selecting the Emergency setting on the mask.
2250: When the passenger oxygen knob is set to AUTO the system is automatically deloyed when:
The cabin altitude is above 14,000 feet plus or minus 500 feet.
2251: If the FPMU fails:
The engine will shut down.
2252: If the CPL button is pressed with the autopilot engaged:
The autopilot will default to heading and pitch hold modes.
2253: In the event of a trim runaway, the pilots first action should be:
Press the control wheel quick disconnect button.
2254: In the auto pressure controller, the takeoff sequence lasts until:
Until the cabin altitude is equal to the theoretical altitude.
2255: If an Air Data Computer fails:
A red X will appear on the airspeed and altitude display.
2256: Why does the weather radar receive AHRS information:
For antenna stabilization.
2257: The max airspeed for windshield wiper operation is:
2258: Take-off configuration warning system parameters include:
Flaps, Spoilers, Pitch Trim and Brakes.
2259: An EICAS caution message AURAL WARN FAIL means:
Both AWU channels are inoperative.
2260: The stick pusher:
Requires agreement from both SPS computer channels.
2261: The GPU AVAIL caption indicates:
Ground power can be selected by pressing the GPU button on the electrical panel.
2262: During normal in-flight operation:
One electric fuel pump is in operation and the other two are in automatic standby.
2263: With only two generators available in flight, which bus bars will still be powered:
All bus bars except the Shed Bus's will be powered.
2264: To correct a fuel imbalance:
Turn the Crossfeed Knob toward the low tank.
2265: Hydraulic system 1 supplies the:
The rudder, the landing gear and the outboard brakes.
2266: The right (#2) engine may be started with:
Bleed air from the APU with the crossbleed open.
2267: Correct operation of the thermal anti-ice system can be confirmed by:
"OPEN" inscriptions in the anti-ice switches on the overhead panel.
2268: The rear electronics compartment is cooled in flight by:
Opening of the pressurization outflow valves which are situated in the compartment.
2269: When Holding in icing conditions:
You must be configured Flaps UP, Gear UP, and maintain 200 kts.
2270: The forward electronic bay cooling system includes:
NACA air inlets with water separators, re-circulation fans and exhaust fans.
Shut-off valves and thermostats.
THE ANSWER IS - BOTH ANSWERS ARE CORRECT.
2271: what is the maximum permitted weight in the rear baggage compartment:
2272: The engine igniters are powered from:
The PMA's only.
2273: The maximum operating altitude for the EMB-145 is:
2274: The aircraft flight number is entered into the DFDR through the:
2275: The ram air valves:
Open automatically when both Packs are OFF.
2276: Icing conditions exist when:
Visible moisture is present in any form and the temperature is 10 degC or less.
2277: Proper operation of the pressurization system requires the pilot to:
Enter the landing elevation.
2278: To perform the ice detector test on the ground:
The engines must be supplying system bleed air.
2279: The flight crew oxygen system:
Includes an external discharge indicator on the right forward fuselage.
2280: How many igniter plugs are there in each engine:
2281: A red HDG FAIL annunciation on the PFD indicates:
A failure of the heading system.
2282: On landing, the weather radar:
goes into FORCED STBY mode
2283: Blank display screens on MFD 1 and PFD 2 indicate:
DC bus 2 failure.
2284: The emergency light batteries are charged:
By the essential bus.
2285: High-pressure engine bleed air is tapped from the compressor:
2286: Ram air for the standby airspeed indicator is supplied by:
Pitot static tube #3.
2287: The FADEC is powered by the PMA at:
2288: The normal source of power for starting the APU is:
2289: The anti-skid system:
Can only relieve brake pressure.
2290: The emergency / parking brake system is:
2290: mechanically commanded
2291: Which statement concerning the hydraulic ENG PUMP SHUTOFF valve IS CORRECT:
The valve shuts off supply to the engine driven pump only.
2292: In the event of hydraulic system 2 failure, how many applications of the parking brake does the accumulator provide:
2293: Turbulent air penetration speed above 10,000 feet is:
250 KIAS / 0.63 M, whichever is lower.
2294: The bleed air pre-cooler functions to control:
Bleed air temperature.
2295: The maximum airspeed for extension of the landing gear is:
2296: The maximum cabin differential overpressure is:
2297: In icing conditions, the air conditioning logic closes which pack:
The left pack below 24,600 ft.
2298: If a fuel pump was to fail in flight how would the crew be alerted:
A cycling amber “FUEL LO PRESSURE” EICAS message would be presented.
2299: The APU will automatically shutdown in-flight if the following occur:
Under-speed, loss of speed data or ESU failure.
2300: The loss of a generator in flight will result in the following automatic actions:
The three remaining generators will operate in parallel.
2301: Maneuvering Va speed is:
2302: The engine accessory gearbox is driven by the:
The high-pressure spool.
2303: The electric hydraulic pumps are activated in the AUTO position if:
The associated engine N2 falls below 56.4%.
2304: To extend the speed brakes, you must set the speed brake lever to OPEN and:
Thrust lever angle must be low and flaps at 0 or 9 degrees.
2305: The ground spoilers are deployed when the aircraft is on the ground and:
Main landing gear wheel speed is greater than 25 kts with a low TLA.
2306: The RUDDER OVERBOOST message on the EICAS means:
The aircraft is above 135 KIAS with both hydraulic systems supplying the rudder
2307: The left engine may be started with:
Bleed air from the right engine with the crossbleed open.
2308: The maximum landing weight of the ERJ-145 LR is:
2309: The crossbleed valve opens when the switch is in the AUTO position if:
Engine 2 is being started with the APU or a crossbleed engine start.
2310: Hydraulic system 2 supplies the:
Emergency brakes, outboard spoilers and the Inboard brakes.
2311: The landing gear warning message will be heard If:
The flaps are extended to 45 and the gear is not down and locked.
2312: The emergency brakes:
Use system 2 hydraulic pressure and an accumulator.
2313: The STEER INOP message on the EICAS means:
The nose wheel is in the free-caster mode and must be reset with the steering.
2314: The normal cabin differential pressure is:
2315: Pitch trim of the ERJ-145 is achieved by:
Electrically repositioning the Horizontal Stabilizer.
2316: The flap velocity sensors:
Detect flap asymmetry.
2317: A battery over-temperature warning is activated if the battery temperature exceeds:
2318: The maximum fuel tank imbalance for the ERJ-145 is:
2319: The electric hydraulic pumps are activated in the AUTO position by:
System pressure less than 1600 PSI.
2320: If the EICAS displays “PRESN AUTO FAIL” caution message, you should:
Consult the QRH.
2321: The total number of landing lights is:
3, one on each wing and one in the nose gear.
2322: The red beacon light switch controls:
The red beacon lights and flight data recorder.
2323: When the courtesy light switch is in the auto position:
All courtesy and stair lights extinguish when door is closed.
2324: The courtesy light switch can control the cockpit domelight provided:
The courtesy light switch is in the AUTO position and the A/C is de-energized.
2325: No Smoking/Fasten Seatbelt signs are automatically illuminated:
Whenever the oxygen dispensing units are open either automatically by the altimetric switch or manually from the cockpit control.
2326: The emergency lights are charged when:
The emergency light switch is in ARM.
2327: In the ARM position, the emergency lights will automatically illuminate:
For an electrical emergency, supplied by dedicated batteries.
2328: The APU fuel shut off valve automatically closes:
10 seconds after an APU fire is detected on the ground or when the APU fire extinguishing switch is pressed.
2329: The minimum altitude for auto pilot engagement after take off is:
2330: Choose the incorrect statement concerning the over wing emergency exits:
They can be opened from either inside or outside the aircraft.
2331: In the event of an IC-600 #1 failure:
PFD #1, MFD #1 and the EICAS will display a red X.
2332: if the Air Data Computer fails:
A red X appears on the airspeed and altitude tapes, and a red VS is displayed on the Vertical Speed indicator.
2333: An amber CAS MSG displayed on the EICAS means:
There is a discrepancy in the number of messages between IC-600 #1 and #2.
2334: The brake ON light indicates:
The parking brake is applied and there is hydraulic pressure in the parking lines.
2335: The APU generator supplies 28 Volts DC and is rated at:
400 amps below 30,000 feet, 300 amps above 30,000 feet.
2336: Two 24 v, 44 ampere-hour NiCad batteries can supply essential in-flight power for:
2338: Detection of a fire in the APU compartment:
Causes an automatic shutdown of the APU if the aircraft is on the ground.
2339: Choose the correct statement concerning the APU fire extinguishing button:
When pressed, the extinguisher will discharge and the APU shutoff valve will close.
2340: The correct statement about the baggage compartment smoke detection system:
The “BAGG SMOKE” EICAS message disappears when smoke is no longer present.
2341: The purpose of the baggage compartment metered discharge extinguisher:
To provide a constant flow of Halon for 50 minutes.
2342: Pulling an Engine Fire Handle:
Closes the associated fuel, hydraulic, bleed air and engine anti-ice shutoff valves.
2343: The maximum usable fuel quantity for an EMB-145 LR in each tank is:
2344: If an APU FAIL caution message is presented on the EICAS:
Do NOT try to restart the APU.
2345: The 14-stage compressor is connected to:
A two-stage high-pressure turbine.
2346: The PMA can power the ignition system at speeds above:
2347: The FADECs will command maximum reserve thrust only when:
Both MAIN gear are on the ground and wheel speeds are above 25 kts, or ALL gear are on the ground.
2348: Which is not an example of when the FADEC will select T/O-1 thrust:
Either Go-around button is pressed for 2 seconds or more.
2349: The continuous thrust mode is available:
When the aircraft is 300 feet above takeoff altitude and the gear is not locked down.
2350: Choose the correct statement concerning the weight-on-wheels proximity switches:
There are a total of 5, two on each main gear and one on the nose gear.
2351: Landing gear position is determined:
2 proximity sensors on each main gear and 1 on the nose gear.
2352: Each landing gear is held in the up position by:
A mechanical up-lock hook.
2353: Pulling up the freefall extension lever:
Mechanically releases the up-lock hooks.
2354: The nose wheels steering is automatically disabled:
As soon as the aircraft is airborne.
2355: Using the nose wheel steering handle allows:
71 deg of nose wheel displacement.
2356: With 76 deg of nose wheel steering, the turning radius is:
69 ft. 7 inches.
2357: The engine high-stage valve automatically opens during:
Low engine thrust operations.
2358: The engine bleed valves:
Can be closed using buttons on the overhead.
2359: An amber ADC1 or ADC2 is displayed in the upper left-hand corner of the PFD when:
One ADC is providing data for both PFD's.
2360: The low altitude raster band is displayed on the altitude tape when:
The aircraft is below 550 feet radio altitude.
2361: The portable oxygen bottle pressures for dispatch are:
1600 psi for the short bottle, 1200 psi for the tall bottle.
2362: In the event of a loss of either side of the secondary RSB:
You will still be able to tune the RMU normally on the lost side.
2363: if you lose all three radio service buses (RSBs):
You will be able to tune COMM2 and NAV2 through the TBCH.
2364: A passenger oxygen generator will produce oxygen for approximately:
2365: Proper operation of the IRS requires the mode selector:
To be set to ALIGN briefly between each flight.
2366: The heading hold mode:
Is the default mode when no other mode is selected,
Will be displayed on the PFD with a ROL label, when selected,
THE ANSWER IS - Both 1 and 2 are correct.
2367: The pitch attitude can be changed by the pitch control wheel provided:
The autopilot is engaged and the flight director is in PIT mode.
2368: During a windshear warning:
The altitude pre-select mode is cancelled.
2369: How many portable oxygen bottles are onboard the aircraft:
Two, one located in the forward left cabin equipment storage unit and one located on the aft cabin bulkhead, right side.
2370: How many hand-held Halon fire extinguishers are on board the aircraft:
Three, one in the cockpit and two in the cabin.
2371: Which is not a location a PBE is stored in:
The forward cabin bulkhead next to the flight attendant's seat.
2372: An aural "CABIN" warning is generated when the cabin altitude exceeds:
2373: What is the total number of static wicks on the aircraft:
2374: During an in-flight engine start:
The FADEC in control will command its ignition ON and request the other FADEC to command its ignition ON.
2375: The maximum ramp weight for the ERJ-145 LR is:
2376: The maximum speed for flaps 9, 22 and 45 are, respectively:
250, 200 and 145 KIAS.
2377: In the event of a battery over-temperature, the correct memory action is:
Associated Battery - OFF.
2378: If a takeoff is to be performed from a sea level airfield, the pre-pressurization sequence will cause the cabin altitude to descend towards an altitude equivalent of:
2379: If an AHRS fails:
A red ATT FAIL and HDG FAIL message will appear on the PFD.
2380: If the airspeed comparison monitor detects a difference of more than 5 KIAS on the PFDs:
An amber IAS caption appears on both airspeed tapes.
2381: How do you override the WX radar forced standby function:
Press the STAB button four times within 3 seconds.
2382: The minimum turning radius when steering angle is 76 deg is:
69 feet 7 in.
2383: What are the 4 modes of the FMS in descending order of accuracy:
GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, IRS (if installed).
2384: How is the AWU status confirmed during power up:
An aural message "AURAL UNIT OK" is generated.
2385: If ground power is selected while the engine driven generators are supplying the aircraft electrical system:
The generators will go off-line automatically leaving the GPU powering the aircraft.
2386: Concerning the data acquisition units which of the following statements...:
Both DAUs supply information to both IC-600s.
2387: If the flaps have not been selected to the takeoff position:
The AWU will generate a "TAKEOFF, FLAPS" message.
2388: The stick pusher:
Requires agreement from both SPS computer channels.
2389: If ground power is selected while the APU generator is supplying the aircraft electrical system:
The ground power source will have priority over the APU.
2390: In normal inflight operations:
BTC 1 is open and BTC 2 is closed.
2391: During an electrical emergency, the following are operational:
The standby flight instruments and the EICAS.
2392: The EMB-145 fire protection system includes:
Two fire extinguishing bottles for the engine, two for the baggage compartment, one for the APU and one in the lavatory trash bin.
2393: To transfer fuel from tank 1 to tank 2 you must:
Fuel cannot be transferred from one tank to another.
2394: The ESU automatically shuts down the APU at:
2395: Pressing the fire detection test button will:
illuminate the Fire Handles and the BAG SMOKE light, present 3 RED and 2 AMBER flashing EICAS messages and operating the warning bell.
2396: During APU starting the APU bleed valve:
Must be closed to start.
2397: If ALL the fuel booster pumps failed:
The FPMU will suction feed fuel from the fuel tank, the engine will keep running.
2398: An amber SPOILER FAIL EICAS message indicates:
Any spoiler panel is open without being commanded.
2399: The engine high stage valve opens:
During low engine thrust, cross bleed starts or anti-ice operations.