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En Route Flashcards

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1
Q

Define: MEA, MOCA, MCA, MRA, MAA,

A

MEA: Minimum Enroute Altitude
MOCA: Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
MCA: Minimum Crossing Altitude
MRA: Minimum reception altitude
MAA: Minimum authorized altitude

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2
Q

If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed (no MEA or MOCA) what minimum altitudes apply for IFR ops?

A

Min altitudes are:
1. Mountainous terrains: at least 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM from the course to be flown.
2. Non-mountainous 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM.

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3
Q

What altitudes should be maintained in controlled airspace? What about uncontrolled airspace?

A

In IFR, you need to maintain altitudes assigned by ATC.
In uncontrolled below 18000 MSL, 0-179 odd, 180-359 then even.

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4
Q

On a direct route not flown on established airways or routes, what points serve as compulsory reporting points?

A

Each reporting point on the flight plan.

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5
Q

What reports should be made to ATC w/o a specific request?

A

Missed approach
Airspeed change (5% change or 10 knots)
Reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared
Vacating any previously assigned altitude
ETA change when previous estimate in excess of 2 minutes
Leaving assigned holding fix
Outer marker inbound
Unforecast weather
Safety of flight compromised
VFR on top
Final approach fix
Radio malfunction or any impairment of nav/comm receiver capability
Compulsory reporting points
500 unable to climb / descend 500 fpm

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6
Q

What reporting requirements are required by ATC when not in radar contact?

A
  1. Leaving final approach fix inbound on final or when leaving the outer marker inbound on final approach
  2. A corrected estimate at any time it becomes apparent that an estimate as previously submitted is in error in excess of 2 minutes.
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7
Q

When used in conjunction with ATC altitude assignments, what does the term pilot’s discretion mean?

A

Pilot’s discretion means that ATC has offered the pilot the option of starting climb or descent whenever he/she wishes and doncuting the climb or descent at any rate/

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8
Q

What items of information should be included in every position report?

A
  1. Identification
  2. Position
  3. Time
  4. Altitude
  5. Type of flight plan
  6. ETA and name of next reporting point
  7. The name of the next reporting point
  8. Pertinent remarks
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9
Q

Can ATC issue a cruise clearance that authorizes you to proceed to and execute an approach at the destination airport w/o an operating control tower?

A

Yes, they may authorize cruise clearance that allows you to execute an approach upon arrival at the destination airport.

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10
Q

Why would a pilot request a VFR on top?

A

For reasons like more favorable winds, less turbulence,

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11
Q

Does ATC authorization to maintain VFR on top restrict you to only operating on top or above the cloud layer?

A

Permits operation above, below, b/w layers or in areas where there is no meterological obscuration.

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12
Q

Which airspace prohibits VFR on top clearances?

A

Alpha

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13
Q

What operational procedures must pilots on IFR flight plans adhere to when operating VFR on top?

A
  1. Fly the appropriate altitude
  2. Comply w/ VFR visibility and distance from the clouds
  3. Comply with instruments flight rules like minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting.
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14
Q

What is a clearance limit and when is it recevied?

A

Authorizes the flgiht to the airport of intended landing.

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15
Q

What information will ATC provide when they request a hold at a fix where the holding pattern is not charted?

A
  1. Direction of holding from the fix
  2. Holding fix
  3. Radial, course, bearing, airway or route
  4. Leg length
  5. Direction of turns if holding pattern nonstandard
  6. Time to expect further cleaerance
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16
Q

What are the max airspeeds permitted for AC while holding?

A

MHA - 6000 - 200 knots
60001-14000 - 240 knots
14001 + - 265 knots

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17
Q

What is a nonstadard v. standard holding pattern?

A

Right turns are standard

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18
Q

Describe the crosswind correction in a holding pattern.

A

Compensate for wind effect by drift correction on inbound and outbound legs. When outbound, triple the inbound drift correction to avoid major adjustments

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19
Q

What action is appropriate when approaching a holding fix at an airspeed in excess of max holding speed?

A

Start a speed reducgtion when 3 minutes or less from the fix. Speed may be reduced earlier but ATC must be advised.

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20
Q

Why is it important for the pilot to receive an EFC time with holding instructions?

A

If you lose 2 way comms the EFC allows you to depart the fix at a definite time. Plan the last lap of your holding pattern to leave the fix as close as posisble to the time.

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21
Q

Describe the different holding entry methods.

A

Direct, parallel, and teardrop

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22
Q

What is the standard leg length in holding?

A

1 min under 14000 and 1.5 above 14000

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23
Q

When does timing begin of the outbound leg begin?

A

When abeam the fix or completion of the turn whichever comes last.

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24
Q

What regulations apply concerning supplemental oxygen?

A

B/W 12500 -14000 flight crew must use after 30 mins
14000-15000 flight crew must use the whole time
15000+ each passenger is supplied and crew must use

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25
When may a PIC of an AC deviate from an atc clearance?
only in emergency
26
If an emergency action requries deviation, must a pilot submit a written report?
Only if requested by ATC.
27
Concerning two way radio communication failure in VFR or IFR conditions, what is the procedure for altitude, route, leaving holding fix, descent for approach, and approach selection?
In VFR conditions, continue the flight and land as soon practicable. This is done on a per segment basis. In IFR, if VFR is not available, then: 1. For altitude, fly the highest of the filed/expected/assigned. 2. For route, try in order assigned vectored expected filed
28
When would you provide a minimum fuel advisory to ATC?
A minimum fuel advisory indicates that an AC fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination, it can accept little or no delay.
29
Does ATC consider a minimum fuel advisory an emergency and give you priority on handling?
No, it merely indicates an emergency could occur if delay occurs.
30
SRM
single resource management. Manage all resources available to ensure successful outcome.
31
What are the 6 skills you must be competent in for effective SRM?
Controlled flight into terrain awarenss ADM Risk MGMT Automation MGMT Task MGMT Situational awareness
32
A majority of controlled flight into terrain accidents have been attributed to what factors?
1. Lack of currency 2. Loss of situational awareness 3. Distractions 4. Failure to comply with altitudes 5. breakdown of effective ADM 6. Insufficient planning
33
Define ADM
Systematic approach to the mental process used by AC pilots to consistently determine the best course of action
34
DECIDE
Detect Estimate the need to counter or react to the change Choose the most desirable outcome Identify actions to control the change Do something to adapt Evaluate the effect of the action
35
Define risk.
The future impact of a hazard that is not contorlled or eliminated.
36
What is a hazard?
A haxard is a present condition, event, object that could lead to an unplanned event like an accident.
37
What is one method to contorl and manage risk
Pilot Aircraft Environmnt External Pressures
38
Describe the 3P model
Perceive Process Perform
39
What procedures can be used for maintaining situational awarnes in technically advanced AC?
1. Perform verification checks of all programming 2. Check the flight routing 3. Verify waypoints 4. Make use of all onboard nav equipment 5. Plan a realistic route 6. Verify computer data entries
40
Can onboard FIS-B be useful when navigating an AC around thunderstorms?
It is not real-time information and can be up to 15 mins old.
41
If you enter a thunderstorm by accident, explain the procedures to follow.
1. Tighten seatblet 2. focus on your instruments 3. Plan your couree throug the storm in a minimum time and hold it 4. Avoid critical icing 5. Turn on pitot heat 6. Estbalish power settings for reduced turbulence 7. Turn up cockpit lights to highest intensity 8. If using auto pilot, disengage altitude hold mode and speed hold mode. 9. Maintain constant altitude.
42
Describe the hazardous icing you may encotuner in the following clouds: stratus, cumulus, freezing rain and drizzle
Stratus: Rarely contain a lot of liquid so ascending or descending should fix. Cumulus: Usually don't extend far horizontally and will occur in limited duration Freezing rain: can climb into the warm layer and occurs when supercooled droplets hit the plane Freezing drizzle: don't assume it has a warm layer. Should exit vertically or horizontally
43
What actions should you take if you accidentally eenter icing conditions?
Leave the area of visible moisture: go below cloud tops, go above cloud tops (quickly because of icing, descending must be done with caution for terrain
44
If an airplane has de-icing equipment, does this mean it can be flown in icing conditions.
No, the POH must be consulted.
45
A pilot flying an AC for flight in known icing FIKI should be aware of roll upset. Whati s it?
Roll upset may be caused by airflow separation (aerodynamic stall) inducing self-deflection of the ailerons and loss of or degraded roll handling characteristics. This phenomena can result from severe icing conditions without the usual symptoms of ice accumulation or a perceived aerodynamic stall.
46
Whati s the recommended recovery for a roll upset?
1. Reduce angle of AC 2. Set appropriate power 3. Do not retract flaps if extended because they will increase the AOA 4. Verify that wing ice protection is functioning normally
47
What is the recommend procedure for removing ice from an AC equippped with a pneumatic deicing system
Used on the first sign of icing. It may take several cycles to shed the ice.
48
After cruising above clouds you realize because of PIREPs that you will need to descend through ice to land your plane. What do you do if no alternative is possible?
1. Declare an emergency 2. Apply carb heat, pitot heat 3. Set prop to max RPM 4. Advise ATC you would like to remain above the clouds as long as possible 5. Expedite descent through the clouds 6. Delay flap and gear extension and maintain "clean" config as long as possible
49
During your initial climb you detect ice pellets hitting the airplane. Are you in danger and what does this mean?
You are not in danger yet. However, it indicates freezing rain or large super cooled droplets freezing which can be hazardous if encountered.
50
During your descent you notice a trace amount of rime ice collectingo n the leading edge. You notice your arispeed going towards a stall, what could be the problem?
Your pitot tube is iced and so is the drain. This means it is acting as an altimeter.
51
If icing is inadvertently encotunered, how woudl configuration for approach and landing be different?
1. Flaps should be deployed in stages 2. If anomalies occur, it is best not to icnrease more flaps and even retract 3. If landing with an accumulation of ice, land with a higher approach speed 4. Carry more power on the flare 5. Use brakes sparingly to prevent skidding
52
What frequency do VORs operate?
108 - 117.95
53
What are the VOR classes and the distances?
Terminal - 25NM and up to 12K feet High - 100-130NM up to 60K feet Low - 40NM and up to 18K feet
54
What is the meaning of a single-coded signal from a VORTAC every 30 seconds?
DME works, VOR does not.
55
Will all VORs be equipped with a DME?
No
56
For IFR ops off established airways, the route of flight portion should list VOR nav aids that are no further than what distance?
Below 18K MSL use aids not more than 80NM apart B/W 14500 and 17999 no more than 200NM
57
What angular deviation from a VOR course is represented by half-scale deflectionof the CDI?
Full dscale 10 degrees, half is 5
58
What is reverse sensing?
When the VOR needle indicates the reverse of normal operation.
59
What is RNAV?
Area navigation
60
How many satellites does a GPS require?
3 - lat and long only 4 - lat long and alt 5 - 4 + RAIM 6 - 5 + isolates corrupt signal and removes from nav solution
61
What is WAAS?
Wide area augmentation system. Provides enhanced integrity, accuracy sand availability.
62
When navigating with GPS explain CDI scaling changes that occur?
DPs +/- 1NM 30NM + from destination - +/-5NM Within 30NM - +/-1NM Within 3NM from FAWP - 1NM and then 0.3NM Missed approach segment - 0.3-1
63
What is OBS?
Allows pilot to specofy desired track to or from that waypoint
64
What is RNP "RNAV (RNP) Rwy 17"? mean
RNP is Required navigation performance of it's monitoring self-monitoring capabilities.
65
What are the designated altitudes for aiereays in the VOR system?
1200 to 18000 feet on enroute low altitude charts
66
What are the laterla limits of low altitude federal airways?
4NM each side of the centerline
67
what is a changeover point?
Point along the route or airway segment between two adjacent nav facilites where changeover in nav guidance shouldoccur
68
What is waypoint?
Predetermined geogrpahical position usedfor route or instrument approach definiton.
69
are the courses depicted on enroutel ow altitude magnetic or true courses?
Magnetic courses
70
Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix beyodn which a higher MEA exists.
Climb to the higher altitude immediately after passing the point beyond which the min altitude applies.
71
Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix at which an MCA exists
A pilot should initiate the climb so the MCA is reached by the time the intersection is crossed.
72
What are T routes and Q routes on IFR charts?
T routes are depicted on low enroute altitdue charts and Q routes are depicted on 18000 ft to 45K
73
What is Class A airspace?
From 18000 up to 60000 MSL
74
What is Class B airspace?
SFC to 10000 MSL at the nation's busiest airports.
75
What is Class C airspace?
SFC to 4000 core 5NM then outside of that 5-10NM 1200 to 4000
76
What is Class D airspace?
SFC to 2500 feet
77
When a control tower in class D airspace ceases operation for the day what happens to the airspace?
It shifts to a combination of E / G airspace.
78
What is E airspace?
Airspace which is within air traffic control service for IFR and VFR flights.
79
What is the floor of class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an IAP?
700 feet
80
What is the floor of class E airspace when desginated in conjunction with a federal airway?
1200 feet
81
What is the purpose of class E transition areas?
Designated for airports with approved instrument approach procedures to separate VFR and IFR traffic.
82
What is G airspace?
Airspace which is uncontrolled.
83
What are the vertical limits of class G airspace?
SFC up to 14,500MSL or wherever E begins.

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