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Craig > Engines > Flashcards

Engines Flashcards

1
Q

For takeoff, pilots will smoothly advance the Power Levers to the _____ position.

A

Rating Detent

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2
Q

T/F: The aircraft has auto-throttle capabilities.

A

FALSE, there are no auto-throttle capabilities

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3
Q

What is the shaft horsepower of each engine under normal takeoff conditions?

A

4580 SHP

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4
Q

What does the shaft horsepower increase to on the operating engine in the event of an engine failure after takeoff?

A

5071 SHP

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5
Q

T/F: Propeller rotation is accomplished by turning of power turbines.

A

TRUE, but the power turbines are connected to a propeller reduction gearbox and the gearbox transmits the power to the propeller

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6
Q

Where is the accessory gearbox mounted on the engine?

A

Located at the top center of the engine and is driven by the high pressure compressor (NH)

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7
Q

T/F: The low pressure (axial) compressors are driven by their associated low pressure turbine.

A

TRUE

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8
Q

Which of the following represents the speed of the low pressure axial compressor?

A

NL

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9
Q

Which of the following represents the speed of the high pressure centrifugal compressor?

A

NH

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10
Q

What powers the power turbines?

A

Exhaust gas energy

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11
Q

When on the ground and the propellers are in the ground range of beta, it is indicated by:

A

Illumination of PROPELLER GROUND RANGE light on the far left side of the Captain’s glareshield

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12
Q

T/F: The propeller has a beta range used for reverse thrust on the ground.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the engine intake bypass doors?

A

Prevents solid contaminates from entering the engine

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14
Q

When should the engine intake bypass doors be selected open?

A

Icing conditions

Operation on contaminated runways

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15
Q

When should the engine intake bypass doors be open on the ground?

A

On contaminated runways

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16
Q

T/F: The auxiliary fuel pump is powered by the accessory gearbox.

A

FALSE, it is not powered by the accessory gearbox

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17
Q

T/F: The engine driven fuel pump is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

TRUE

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18
Q

T/F: The oil pump is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

TRUE

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19
Q

T/F: The DC starter generator is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

TRUE

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20
Q

T/F: The permanent magnet alternator is attached to the accessory gearbox.

A

TRUE

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21
Q

T/F: The FADEC is the primary computer for engine control.

A

TRUE

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22
Q

What powers the FADEC once the engine is running?

A

An independent permanent magnet alternator (PMA)

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23
Q

What provides an alternate power source for the FADEC during engine starting or if a PMA failure occurs?

A

Essential buss provides alternate power

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24
Q

When the condition levers are set to the 1020 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?

A

Normal Takeoff Power (NTOP)
Or
Maximum Takeoff Power (MTOP) if the MTOP switch light

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25
When the condition levers are set to the 900 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?
Maximum Climb Power (MCL)
26
When the condition levers are set to the 850 RPM detent, what do they command the FADEC to set power to?
Maximum Cruise Power (MCR)
27
What prop speed is automatically set when in the over-travel range?
1020 RPM
28
What must pilots do to enter the ground beta range?
Raise gate release triggers to move aft of FLIGHT IDLE and into BETA range
29
T/F: When in the MAX REV, propeller RPM is limited.
TRUE (950 RPM)
30
T/F: In order for uptrim to be armed, the power levers must be high and torque on both engines must be at least 50%.
TRUE
31
When is uptrim triggered?
Torque falls below 25% on failed engine OR Power turbine speed (Np) falls below 80%
32
What does the FADEC limit torque to in reverse mode?
35%
33
What does the FADEC limit torque to when it is in the forward range?
106%
34
What does the FADEC limit transient torque to when it is in the over travel range?
135% for transient
35
T/F: There is independent engine over speed protection built into the FADEC and it has the capability of cutting off fuel flow during NH over speeds.
TRUE
36
T/F: The FADEC fault classes are critical, cautionary, and advisory.
TRUE
37
T/F: The FADEC fault classes are warning, advisory, and normal.
FALSE, classes are critical, cautionary, and advisory.
38
What does a green arc on the engine gauges mean?
Normal operating range
39
What does the yellow arc on the engine gauges mean?
Caution Range
40
What does the red dash on the engine gauges mean?
Minimum or Maximum limit value
41
What color does the needle change to when the engine gauge needle enters the cautionary range?
Yellow
42
What color does the needle change to when the engine gauge is in the green arc?
White
43
What happens if the data becomes invalid for either engine gauge?
Digital value changes to dashes Gauge changes to white arc Needle is removed
44
How is Torque (TRQ) displayed on the Engine Display?
% of maximum power | Primary thrust reference
45
T/F: NH is shown in both analog and digital format on the Engine Display.
TRUE
46
T/F: NL is shown in both analog and digital format on the Engine Display.
FALSE, only digital format, no analog gauge
47
T/F: The oil indications on the Engine Display show both oil temperature and oil pressure.
TRUE
48
T/F: Power lever AND Condition lever positions are communicated to the FADEC to determine the appropriate fuel schedule to the engines.
TRUE
49
T/F: The engine ignition system is controlled automatically by the FADEC.
TRUE
50
At about what PSI will the #1 or #2 ENG OIL PRESS warning light illuminate?
44-50 PSI
51
T/F: The oil is cooled by engine intake air.
TRUE | The air is routed through a door to the oil cooler
52
T/F: The engine oil system lubricates engine bearings, gearboxes, and the landing gear.
FALSE, nothing to do with landing gear but does also supply oil for propeller operation
53
T/F: Each propeller is constant-speed and fully feathering and can be operated in the reverse thrust range.
TRUE
54
What controls propeller pitch?
Oil pressure on either side of a piston pitch change mechanism inside the propeller hub
55
T/F: Electrical heater elements are bonded to the inner leading edge of every other propeller blade for ice protection.
FALSE, each blade has the heater element
56
What turbine is the prop reduction gearbox powered by?
The engine power turbine
57
T/F: If a PEC failure occurs, the PCU automatically defaults to controlling the minimum blade pitch in flight.
TRUE
58
What do the counter weights do when oil pressure is lost in the propeller?
They provide a natural twisting moment to move blades toward a high pitch (feather) position
59
T/F: The overspeed governor uses a flyweight design to limit propeller overspeed in the event of a malfunction.
TRUE
60
Propeller RPM in flight depends on the position of what components?
Condition levers
61
The PCU uses _____ to control propeller blade angle.
Pressurized engine oil
62
T/F: Propeller synchrophasing is a manual function.
FALSE, it is automatic with no controls
63
T/F: A failed engine with a wind-milling propeller at low blade angle creates a large amount of drag.
TRUE
64
Which of the following is not a method used for propeller feathering? (Answer which IS a method for propeller feathering)
Auto Feathering Alternate Feathering Manual Feathering
65
What must engine torque exceed for A/F SELECT to change to ARM on the ED?
50% torque on both engines
66
What must the power levers be above for A/F SELECT to change to ARM on the ED?
Advanced beyond 60 degrees on both power levers
67
If torque on either engine falls below _____ torque for at least ______ seconds, the PEC commands the propeller to the feather position.
25% // 3 seconds
68
T/F: Pilots can use the alternate feather function if the auto feather does not activate properly or is not selected (ie. in cruise flight).
TRUE
69
When is manual feathering most commonly used?
Engine shutdown
70
When should engine intake bypass doors be opened?
Icing conditions | Contaminated runways
71
FADEC FAIL warning light will ultimately result in which of the following?
Shutdown of powerplant
72
In the forward range, propeller pitch _____.
is governed to maintain a constant speed.
73
If the aircraft is configured properly for an NTOP takeoff and an engine fails, uptrim will automatically accomplish what?
Increase operating engine to MTOP
74
If an engine instrument digital display changes to dashes, what must be true?
Data is no longer valid
75
T/F: Uptrim is dependent on arming the auto feather system.
FALSE, the systems are independent
76
Which of the following statements regarding the engine-driven fuel pump is most accurate?
It is powered by the engine accessory gearbox
77
With the ignition switch in NORM, the FADEC activates the ignition circuits during which of the following?
Engine start (ground or flight) Engine Surge Engine Flameout
78
What is engine oil cooled by?
Air cooled oil cooler
79
How is propeller pitch controlled?
PEC signals PCU to use engine oil to move a piston in the hub to control prop pitch
80
Pushing the ALT FEATHER switch light will feather the prop _____.
Only when condition and power levers are in the proper condition (Condition lever at or aft of START/FEATHER and power lever at FLIGHT IDLE)
81
T/F: In ground range beta, the power levers directly control propeller pitch angle.
TRUE

Craig (26 decks)

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