EPME E-2 - E-4 Flashcards
(280 cards)
1
Q
In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized?
A
`TA is authorized for Active Duty military and if funded in the FY20
Coast Guard appropriation, Reserve members affiliated with the Selected Reserve
(SELRES). In accordance with REF (B), members of SELRES must be drilling reservists with satisfactory progress in the current anniversary year and have met the participation standards for the previous anniversary year. TA is now available for courses leading to the first certificate, Associate, Bachelor, and Master’s degree.
2
Q
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
A
Suicide-Related Ideations
3
Q
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
A
Suicide
4
Q
What is the result of Self-Harm Level 3?
A
Fatality
5
Q
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
A
Self-Harm
6
Q
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
A
Suicide Threat
7
Q
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
A
Suicide Attempt
8
Q
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
A
Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior
9
Q
Dismissing _____________ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
A
Suicidal Ideations
10
Q
What would self-harm with no injury be reported as?
A
Self-Harm Level 1
11
Q
What level of self-harm results in injury?
A
Self-Harm Level 2
12
Q
What level of self-harm results in no injury?
A
Self-Harm Level 1
13
Q
For reporting purposes, what level of suicide attempt results in injury?
A
Suicide Attempt Level 2
14
Q
In one survey more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____________ at some point in their lives.
A
Episode of Suicidal Thinking
15
Q
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
A
Suicide-Related Communications
16
Q
What type of suicide-related communications is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?
A
Suicide Plan
17
Q
What type of suicide-related communications is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
A
Suicide Plan
18
Q
For reporting purposes, what level of self-harm results in death?
A
Self-Harm Level 3
19
Q
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
A
I, S, P, A, T, H, W, A, R, M, See Table on pg. 3 of the EPME SWE Complete file
20
Q
_____________ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
A
Ask
21
Q
What may be helpful to lead into the question “Are you thinking about killing yourself?”
A
A statement of your observations
22
Q
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
A
ACE: Ask - Care - Escort
23
Q
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
A
Ask
24
Q
During the _____________ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
A
Care
25
During which step of suicide prevention you should remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Care
26
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Care
27
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Care
28
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care
29
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care
30
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person and this will save his/her life?
Escort
31
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
Escort
32
If you ask a person "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
“Hang in there and ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious”
33
If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
(a) How? - Does he/she have a plan? Is the plan specific? Does he/she possess the means (pills, gun, etc.)? Are the means lethal? If there is a plan, does the person express or imply an intention to actually go through with it?
(b) Situation? - Is he/she alone (if communication is by phone or e-mail)? Have they been drinking?
(c) History? - Prior attempts? Hospitalizations? Any family history of suicidal behaviors?
34
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Contact your Regional Work-Life Office for specific contact information
35
Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans, Form CG-6049?
All AD and SELRES
36
All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____________ per week.
180 Minutes
37
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____________ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.
150 Minutes
38
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____________ minutes per week of strength training.
30 Minutes
39
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?
150 Minutes
40
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?
2 or more days a week
41
Who do you submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?
The completed Personal Fitness Plan (PFP) must be submitted to their supervisors in the months of April and October.
42
When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?
The completed Personal Fitness Plan (PFP) must be submitted to their supervisors in the months of April and October.
43
Who is required to keep your most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved?
The most current form must be kept on file or electronically saved by the member and supervisor.
44
What is the minimum amount of time for exercise sessions, in order to be beneficial?
10 Minutes
45
In general, physical activity should be spread out over at least how many days per week.
3 days per week
46
What levels of intensity are used to measure a training effect for physical activity?
Medium to vigorous level of intensity
47
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
Moderate-Intensity
48
Who are required to use installed occupant restraints while operating or riding in a motor vehicle on any Coast Guard installation?
All Personnel
49
Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?
The unit commander, commanding officer, or officer-in-charge within applicable law and regulations
50
When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?
To transport an employee, spouse and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity
51
Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?
Official Purposes, Ceremonies, Non-CG Employees in Official Capacity, Spouse and Dependents with Member, Military Recruits, Official Travel
52
Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?
Official Purposes, Ceremonies, Non-CG Employees in Official Capacity, Spouse and Dependents with Member, Military Recruits, Official Travel
53
Transportation of a member's dependent would be authorized in a CG owned motor vehicle in which case?
To transport an employee, spouse and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity
54
What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?
10%
55
What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one's personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family?
Personal Financial Management
56
The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?
Personal Financial Readiness
57
What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual's or family's income and expenditures and recommending short- and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness?
Financial Planning and Counseling
58
The PFMP consists of how many elements?
6
59
Which of the following is an element of the PFMP?
Education and Training, (2) Counseling, (3) Information and Referral, (4) Command Financial Specialist Program, (5) Outreach, (6) Collaboration and Coordination
60
CFS's fall under what element of the PFMP?
Counseling
61
Onboard a ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?
Except for those rendered the commanding officer and officers senior to the commanding officer, to visiting officers, to officers making inspections, and to officers when addressing or being addressed by them
62
You must render salutes to which of the following?
All persons in the Coast Guard shall salute all officers senior to themselves on each occasion of meeting or passing near or when addressing or being addressed by such officers.
63
When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles?
Persons that are passengers will render and return salutes
64
You will not render a salute if the person to be saluted does not approach within what distance?
6-Pace Distance
65
NTAS consists of how many types of advisories?
2 Types: Bulletins and Alerts
66
Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
FPCON Bravo
67
Which FPCON require the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
FPCON Bravo
68
Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?
FPCON Normal
69
Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?
FPCON Alpha
70
Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?
FPCON Charlie
71
Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?
Stearns Model I600 Type I PFD
72
Boat characteristics include which types of frames?
Transverse and Longitudinal
73
Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?
Facial hair will be trimmed so as not to exceed 1/4 inch in length
74
Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?
If worn, a moustache must be neatly groomed. Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth. For the purpose of uniformity, Ceremonial Honor Guard members, Coast Guard Academy Cadets, Officer Candidates, and Coast Guard Training Center Cape May recruits will be clean-shaven.
75
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosis with Pseudofolliculitis Barbae (PFB)?
Commanding Officers or Officers-in-Charge
76
Whose proposal to Congress resulted in the establishment of the Revenue Cutter Service 1790?
Alexander Hamilton
77
On August 7, 1789, Congress gave responsibility for constructing and maintaining all of the Nation's aid to navigation to what entity?
The Treasury Department
78
The Revenue Marine were charged with what single purpose?
Assistance in the collection of customs duties and tonnage taxes
79
In 1838 Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
Steamboat Inspection Service within the Treasury Department
80
The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____________ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.
10
81
The USCG celebrates its birthday on _____________ of each year.
04 August
82
In what year were Revenue Marine cutters ordered to begin limited cruising during the winter months to assist mariners in distress?
1831
83
The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
28 January 1915
84
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?
April 1967
85
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?
The Homeland Security Act of 2002 transferred the Coast Guard to the Department of Homeland Security as the maritime element of the Nation’s new security organization
86
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first _____________.
Secretary of the Treasury
87
Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?
Captain-Commandant Ellsworth Price Bertholf
88
Which Revenue Cutter helped lead the Overland Expedition to rescue of rescue missions of marooned whalers near Point Barrow, Alaska?
Revenue Cutter Bear
89
Who was the Coast Guard's first aviator?
Elmer Stone
90
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____________
U.S. Revenue Cutter Service
91
Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?
Signalman First Class Douglas A. Munro
92
Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?
Point Cruz Guadalcanal
93
SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, _____________
Guadalcanal
94
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
Cutter Harriet Lane
95
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____________ during World War I
A German torpedo
96
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk with how many people onboard?
131 crewmembers onboard
97
What legislation forced the bulk of the burden for enforcing Prohibition in U.S. waters to the Coast Guard?
The National Prohibition (Volstead) Act of 1919
98
An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led the Congress to establish _____________ for the United States Coast Guard.
Coast Guard Captain of the Port Offices
99
Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
World War I
100
During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6 Cutters
101
When did the Coast Guard begin carrying out neutrality patrols in the North Atlantic?
September 1939
102
Following the explosion of the French ammunition carrier SS Mont-Blanc in World War I, what was one of the Coast Guard's major related tasks at home?
Port Security
103
In what year was the Coast Guard tasked with open-ocean weather patrol duties in the North Atlantic?
1940
104
During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____________, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.
“Operation Market Time”: Involved the interdiction of trawlers used by North Vietnam for infiltration and re-supply activities
105
During Vietnam, how many 82-foot patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
26
106
By the end of "Operation Market Time" the Coast Guard had boarded nearly how many sampans and junks?
A quarter of a million
107
Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991.?
The Persian Gulf
108
Who pioneered the use of aviation for law enforcement and search-and-rescue operations for the Coast Guard?
Elmer Stone, the Coast Guard’s first aviator
109
Women and African Americans were integrated into the United States Coast Guard by the end of _____________.
World War II
110
When was the Homeland Security Act passed?
2002
111
The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following _____.
The terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
112
The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on _____________.
September 11, 2001
113
In 2005, the United States Coast Guard responded to thousands of oil and HAZMAT spills, totaling over 9 million gallons, following _____________.
Hurricane Katrina
114
Nearly half of the United States Coast Guard’s Selected Reserves were used to carry out homeland security and national defense missions at home and abroad beginning in 2003, as part of what Operations?
Operation Iraqi Freedom / Operation Enduring Freedom
115
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?
2005
116
Who served as Boarding Officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal
117
DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star Medal (with combat “V”)
118
Who was the first African-American to command a U.S. Life-Saving Station?
Captain Richard Etheridge
119
Captain Richard Etheridge was appointed as Keeper to which Life-Saving Station?
Pea Island Life-Saving Station
120
The Life-Saving Station where Captain Richard Etheridge was appointed as keeper had a reputation as _____.
“One of the tautest on the Carolina Coast”
121
The Pea Island Life-Saving Station is located near _____________.
Cape Fear, North Carolina
122
For their actions in saving the entire crew of E.S. Newman, the all African American crew of the Pea Island Life-Saving Station, were awarded _____________.
The Gold Lifesaving Medal posthumously
123
Which Coast Guard officer took part of the planning effort for the liberation of Cherbourg, France, a key supply depot, as part of Operation Overlord (D-Day) preparations?
LCDR Quentin R. Walsh
124
Who was awarded the Navy Cross during World War II while serving as a Commanding Officer of a specially trained U.S. Naval Reconnaissance Party?
LCDR Quentin R. Walsh
125
What was awarded to LCDR Walsh for engaging in active street fighting with the enemy during World War II?
The Navy Cross
126
Which Coast Guard officer liberated 53 paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day?
LCDR Quentin R. Walsh
127
Who was the Coast Guard's first female helicopter pilot?
Lieutenant Colleen A. Cain
128
What year did LT Collen A. Cain become the Coast Guard's third female aviator?
1979
129
DC3 Bruckenthal detected a small, unidentified _________ proceeding toward the Al Basra Oil Terminal in Iraqi territorial waters and moved his team into position to screen the oil terminal.
Dhow
130
Lieutenant Colleen A. Cain was awarded the _______ for saving a three-year-old boy involved in a boating accident.
Coast Guard Achievement Medal
131
Lieutenant Colleen A. Cain, Lieutenant Commander Buzz Johnson, and Aviation Survivalman David Thompson made the ultimate sacrifice in service to their nation and fellow countrymen when their helicopter crashed, in route to a sinking vessel, in the State of _____________.
Hawaii
132
The Union Jack is flown on the _____________ of the ship.
Bow
133
The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.
16
134
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26
135
The _____________ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.
The Coast Guard Ensign
136
The _____________ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.
The Union Jack
137
The _____________ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.
The Union Jack
138
The _____________ is the canton of the United States Flag.
The Union Jack
139
The _____________ provided a symbol of authority, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
The Coast Guard Ensign
140
The _____________ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
The Coast Guard Ensign
141
The current design of the _____________ has 16 red and white stripes.
The Coast Guard Ensign
142
The design of the Coast Guard Ensign was ordered by Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, on _____________.
1 August 1799
143
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Battle Streamers
144
Battle streamers are attached to the ________________, replacing cords and tassels
Coast Guard Standard
145
During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____________.
43 Battle Streamers
146
Individual units may only display those _____________ that they have earned.
Battle Streamers
147
Only _____________ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
Major Headquarters Commands
148
The design of the _____________ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.
Coast Guard Standard
149
The presence of the _____________ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
Commissioning Pennant
150
The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____________.
U.S. Marine Corps
151
The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____________ battle streamers.
43
152
This flag is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.
Union Jack
153
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
Coast Guard Standard
154
The _____________ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.
CG Stripe
155
The _____________ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
The Coast Guard Seal
156
The _____________ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.
The Coast Guard Seal
157
The _____________ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.
CG Stripe
158
The Coast Guard _____________ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
CG Seal and Emblem
159
The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in _____________.
1927
160
The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____________ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
CG Shield
161
Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning: _____________.
“Always Ready” or “Ever Ready”
162
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
Sometime between October 1896 and May 1897
163
The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of _____________, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.
New Orleans
164
What language did Semper Paratus originate from?
Latin
165
The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____________
Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck
166
What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
Set of instructions or operating guidelines designed to protect end users from the dangers posed by hazardous chemicals
167
The standard GHS format for a safety data sheet includes _____ sections, in a specified order.
16
168
What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?
Safety Data Sheet's
169
Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the _____________ to prevent improper use or handling.
Safety Data Sheet's
170
GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of _____.
Hazard Communications
171
If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS.
The Manufacturer
172
What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badges assignment standard tour length?
2 Years
173
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
0-6 or Higher
174
If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem and conditions permit, the senior person should _____________.
If you are in a vehicle, stop and sit at attention, do not salute. If conditions permit, the senior person gets out and salutes.
175
If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem, the driver shall _____________.
Vehicles within sight or hearing of the ceremony shall be stopped. Persons riding in such vehicles shall remain seated at attention
176
When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall ____________.
Salute flag when it comes within 6 paces, and hold salute until it has passes 6 paces beyond you.
177
When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall _____.
Place your hand over your heart when the flag comes within 6 paces, and hold until it passes 6 paces beyond you.
178
Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands?
Operational Stress Control
179
How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?
CG SUPRT - Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com
180
Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?
Active Duty members and their dependents, Reservists, and Civilian Employees of the Coast Guard
181
Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:
The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.)
182
Which of the following does the National Institute of Mental Health recommend to manage stress?
-Be observant
-Talk to your health care provider or a health professional
-Get regular exercise
-Try a relaxing activity
-Set goals and priorities
-Stay connected
-Consider a clinical trial
183
What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?
Relocation Assistance Program
184
Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?
Transition/Relocation Managers (TRMs)
185
Transition/Relocation Managers may provide _____ with local resource information.
Welcome Packages
186
How should you contact your Transition/Relocation Manager?
Regional Work-Life Staff
187
Your _______ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.
The Family Resource Specialist (FRS) on your Regional Work-Life Staff at 1-800-872-4957
188
Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?
Family Resource Specialist (FRS) on your Regional Work-Life Staff at 1-202-475-5100
189
What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS)
190
What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the SNP?
Family Member Medical Summary, DD Form 2792
191
One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____.
The Family Advocacy Program is a Congressionally-mandated (Chapter 10 United States Code Section 1058) program that addresses prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment and assigns responsibilities for a coordinated community response within the Coast Guard in collaboration with services outside the Coast Guard. Services are provided to minimize the occurrence of maltreatment and to support Coast Guard commands by retaining productive members.
192
The purpose of the _____________ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.
Family Advocacy Program
193
CGSUPRT is part of HSWL’s _____________ CG-111 Site.
Employee Assistance Program
194
Members can call _____________ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor.
CG SUPRT
195
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-1 is the last day of which months?
January and July
196
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-2 is the last day of which months?
January and July
197
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-3 is the last day of which months?
February and August
198
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?
March and September
199
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?
April and October
200
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-6 is the last day of which month?
May
201
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-7 is the last day of which month?
September
202
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-8 is the last day of which month?
February (AD) or November (Reserves)
203
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-9 is the last day of which month?
June
204
How many major categories of performance are there in the EES?
4
205
The Marking Official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ____ days after the evaluation report period ending date?
5 Days
206
____________ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period.
The Rating Chain
207
The evaluee must perform which of the following functions within the EES?
Familiarization
Performance
Evaluation Input
Acknowledgement
Verification
208
When do you need to need to provide evaluation input for your EER?
Evaluation Input. Provide a list of significant accomplishments, if required by the rating chain, to the rating chain not later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period.
209
What is done with the original EER counseling sheet?
The unit provides the evaluee the original counseling sheet
210
The ____________ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance, so the Coast Guard can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence.
The Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
211
The ____________ has been designed to inform each member of the performance stands against which they are measured.
The Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
212
The ____________ has been designed to provide a means by which each enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member is measuring up to the standards.
The Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
213
The ____________ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade.
The Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
214
The ____________ has been designed to set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member.
The Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
215
Your signature on the member's signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgement of: ____________.
The counseling and review of their evaluation report
The impact of their evaluation report on their Good Conduct eligibility
The appeal time frame
Their advancement potential and recommendation
216
What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
Conduct
217
What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?
Competencies
218
Which factor type in the EER measures the member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?
Military
219
Which factor type in the EER measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
Leadership
220
Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____.
2,4, or 6 in each competency
221
What are the areas impacted by awarding an "Unsatisfactory Conduct Mark", as listed in CIM 1000.2(series)?
Advancement
Good Conduct Award Eligibility
222
Appeals to the approving official's decision on the advancement recommendation _____.
Are not authorized
223
What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?
Ready, Not ready, Not Recommended
224
What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?
If a member is not ready or not recommended for advancement, the approving official must counsel the member on why this mark was assigned and on the steps necessary to earn a ready for advancement
225
The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?
Incorrect information
Prejudice
Discrimination
Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances
226
What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?
The appeal letter must contain the specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed. Supporting information must include specific examples of demonstrated performance that indicate how the member met or exceeded the written standards. The member attaches a copy of the signed evaluation report counseling sheet as the first enclosure and other enclosures pertinent to the assigned marks.
227
What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?
Request an Audience
Written Appeal
The Appeal Letter
Submission Deadline
Appealing after the deadline
228
As a result of an appeal, what actions may an approving official take?
As a result of the appeal, a commanding officer may raise or leave marks unchanged, but may not lower any marks
229
What actions may the appeal authority take?
The appeal authority may raise or leave unchanged the member’s marks, but may not lower any marks an approving official assigned
230
What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their marks?
The member must submit the appeal within 15 calendar days (45 calendar days for reservists) after the date they signed the acknowledgment section of the counseling sheet for the disputed evaluation report
231
What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their marks?
The member must submit the appeal within 15 calendar days (45 calendar days for reservists) after the date they signed the acknowledgment section of the counseling sheet for the disputed evaluation report
232
What are forms CG-3788A-G used for?
These forms are optional and may be used by units with limited or no access to Direct Access to include cutters away from homeport operating for extended periods without shore side connectivity
233
Which is true of hazing and bullying?
Hazing and bullying erodes mission readiness and will not be tolerated. Hazing and bullying are unacceptable and are prohibited in all circumstances and environments, including off-duty or in "unofficial" unit functions and settings. Hazing and bullying can be conducted through the use of electronic devices or communications, and by other means, as well as in person.
234
Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of “inclusion” is defined as _____.
Hazing
235
Which is true of hazing?
Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of “inclusion” is prohibited and will not be tolerated. No service member may engage in hazing or consent to being hazed. Its prevention is an all-hands responsibility.
236
Which directive requires a commanding officer to "prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel"?
Article 4.1.15 of reference (j), United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992, COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)
237
Hazing can include which of the following?
(1)Playing abusive or mean-spirited tricks intended to ridicule, humiliate, or ostracize,
(2)Throwing personnel over the side from a ship or pier,
(3)Tacking on crows or other devices by forcibly applying them to a member’s clothes or body,
(4)Forcing or encouraging the consumption of substances not normally prepared or suitable for consumption,
(5)Group wrestling matches targeting a particular member,
(6)Encouraging a member to consume excessive amounts of alcohol or requiring the consumption of alcohol in any amount,
(7)Subjecting to excessive or abusive use of water,
(8)Forcibly cutting or shaving hair,
(9)Branding, tattooing, or painting another,
(10)Coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe,
(11)Taping, tying, or otherwise restraining a member’s arms, legs, or mouth,
(12)Handcuffing or otherwise securing a member to a fixed object or another member(s),
(13)Using law enforcement restraints or techniques on another member in other than an official capacity or a bona fide training session,
(14)Placing or pouring foreign substances or liquids on another member,
(15)Touching in an offensive manner,
(16)Striking, or slapping another member,
(17)Threatening or offering violence or bodily harm to another, or
(18)Oral or written berating of another for the purpose of belittling or humiliating
238
The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____________.
Hazing
239
If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, _____.
Personnel knowingly and voluntarily submitting to hazing may be held accountable as well
240
An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?
1) Jeopardize the members' impartiality,
(2) Undermine the respect for authority inherent in a member's rank or position,
(3) Result in members improperly using the relationship for personal gain or favor, or
(4) Violate a punitive Article of reference (a), Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. § 801
– 946 (as amended), or
(5) Violate any lawful order, regulation or policy regarding inappropriate and prohibited relationships, communications, conduct or contact established by competent military authority.
241
A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?
Romantic relationships between former recruiters who have transferred to a new unit and those prospective members who were engaged in the recruiting process while the former recruiter was assigned to recruiting duties. Individuals are considered prospective members until 365 days have elapsed since their last contact with a recruiter.
242
Which of the following would be a prohibited relationship?
(a)Engaging in sexually intimate behavior aboard any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled work place,
(b)Romantic relationships outside of marriage between commissioned officers and enlisted personnel. For the purposes of this paragraph, Coast Guard Academy (CGA) cadets and officer candidates (both OCS and ROCI) are considered officers.
(c)Personal and romantic relationships between instructors at entry level accession programs and other training commands, and students.
(d)Personal and romantic relationships between recruiters, Academy admission officers, Academy admission partners, or personnel assigned to a Military Entrance Processing Station (MEPS), and family members of students or prospective members. A prospective member is anyone who has a face-to-face meeting with one of the above representatives regarding becoming a member of the Armed Forces, regardless of whether the person eventually becomes a member of the Armed Forces. Individuals are considered prospective members until 365 days have elapsed since their last contact with representative or upon physically reporting to his or her first duty assignment.
(e)Romantic relationships between instructors and certain former entry level accession students, as follows:
[1]Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs may not have a romantic relationship with any individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days. Former enlisted entry level accession program instructors who transfer to a new unit have a continuing duty to abide by this prohibition in regards to those individuals who were enrolled in enlisted accession training while the former instructor was assigned to the respective accession program.
[2] Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs may not have a romantic relationship with any individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days. Former officer entry level accession program instructors who transfer to a new unit have a continuing duty to abide by this prohibition in regards to those individuals who were enrolled in officer accession training while the former instructor was assigned to the respective accession program.
243
Engaging in sexually intimate behavior in which of the following situations would be prohibited
Engaging in sexually intimate behavior aboard any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled work place is prohibited
244
Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding _____.
365 Days
245
Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days _____.
Is prohibited
246
Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?
Does not:
(1) Jeopardize the members' impartiality,
(2) Undermine the respect for authority inherent in a member's rank or position,
(3) Result in members improperly using the relationship for personal gain or favor, or
(4) Violate a punitive Article of reference (a), Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. § 801 – 946 (as amended), or
(5) Violate any lawful order, regulation or policy regarding inappropriate and prohibited relationships, communications, conduct or contact established by competent military authority.
247
Which would be an acceptable romantic relationship?
(a)Romantic relationships outside of marriage between commissioned officers and enlisted personnel. For the purposes of this paragraph, Coast Guard Academy (CGA) cadets and officer candidates (both OCS and ROCI) are considered officers.
(b)Romantic relationships between instructors and certain former entry level accession students, as follows:
[1]Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs may not have a romantic relationship with any individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days. Former enlisted entry level accession program instructors who transfer to a new unit have a continuing duty to abide by this prohibition in regards to those individuals who were enrolled in enlisted accession training while the former instructor was assigned to the respective accession program.
[2] Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs may not have a romantic relationship with any individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days. Former officer entry level accession program instructors who transfer to a new unit have a continuing duty to abide by this prohibition in regards to those individuals who were enrolled in officer accession training while the former instructor was assigned to the respective accession program.
248
Which of the following is an example of unacceptable conduct?
Examples of unacceptable conduct, contact and communication include, but are not limited to:
(1) Supervisors and subordinates gambling together.
(2) Giving or receiving gifts, except gifts of nominal value on special occasions.
(3) Changing duty rosters or work schedules to the benefit of one or more members in a relationship when other members of the command are not afforded the same consideration.
(4) When between instructors and entry level accession program students, or between recruiters, Academy admission officers, Academy admission partners, or MEPS personnel, and prospective members:
(a) Soliciting or providing personal information to or from a student or a prospective member, including telephone number, social media profile, email address, or physical address, for other than official business.
(b) Using personal vehicles to transport students or prospective members, for other than official business.
(c) Providing alcohol to a student or a prospective member.
(d) Lending or borrowing money to/from a student or prospective member.
(e) Employing a student or a prospective member for personal services.
249
Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?
Article 92
250
Which of the following is an example of prohibited use of government office equipment?
(1) Use of government office equipment or services to intentionally and knowingly view, download, store, display, transmit, or copy any materials that are sexually explicit, or are predominantly sexually oriented. Sexually explicit or predominantly sexually oriented includes, but is not limited to, any material that depicts, in actual or simulated form, or explicitly describes, sexual content e.g., sexual contact, nudity, child pornography, sexting, etc. “Intentionally” and “knowingly” may be inferred based on repeated downloading, storing, displaying, transmitting, or copying of the prohibited materials referenced in this section.
(2) Intentionally creating, copying or transmitting any materials or communications that may be considered hate incidents or discriminatory to fellow employees or to the public. Illegal discrimination is any intentional action or omission that results in the adverse treatment of a person because of that person's race, color, religion, national origin, disability, handicap, age or gender, including sexual harassment or intentional actions or omissions in reprisal. Hate incident is defined as any intentional act (conduct or speech) of intolerance committed against a person, a group of individuals, or property which is motivated, in whole or in part, by the offender’s bias against a race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability, age, or sexual orientation and which is intended to or is more likely than not to have the effect of intimidating others or inciting others to similar conduct.
(3) Loading personal or unauthorized software onto a government computer or other government office equipment.
(4) Making unauthorized configuration changes to a government computer system or other government office equipment.
(5) Using government office equipment or services as a staging ground or platform to gain unauthorized access to other systems.
(6) Deliberate introduction of viruses, worms, or other malicious software (malware) into the CG Network or any other government network.
(7) Intentionally and knowingly creating, copying, or transmitting SPAM, PHISHING, chain letters, or any unofficial mass mailings, regardless of the subject matter.
(8) Subscribing to, downloading (e.g., movies, music, books, etc.) or streaming media (e.g., radio, television, MP3, stock tickers, YouTube, etc.) or other automatic Internet service(s) from a CGSW (desktop or laptop), unless specifically authorized for CG business.
(9) Intentionally and knowingly acquiring, reproducing, transmitting, distributing, or using any controlled information including computer software and/or data protected by copyright, trademark, privacy laws or other proprietary data or material with other intellectual property rights beyond fair use, without consent or authorization of the copyright holder, or export-controlled software and/or data.
(10) Connecting personally-owned IT equipment (e.g., laptop, iPad, Tablet, Smartphone, etc.) to the CG Network at a CG office or facility without prior approval by Commandant (CG-65) or Commandant (CG-651). This includes visitors (U.S. Citizens or Foreign Nationals), contractors, vendors, other government agencies, or non-CG employees.
251
Which of the following is an example of inappropriate use of government office equipment?
(1) Accessing personal e-mail sites (e.g., Gmail, Yahoo, AOL, Cox, Verizon, etc.), educational web-mail (*.edu), and government contracting company’s web-mail.
(2) Using a CG e-mail address (John.M.Doe@uscg.mil) for subscribing to anything other than official, professional, or job-related websites.
(3) Use of or accessing web-based application, social media or social networking sites (e.g., Facebook, E-Harmony, Twitter, Skype, Gaming, Peer-to-Peer (P2P), File Sharing, etc.) from a CGSW (desktop or laptop). This also applies to connection to the CG Network during use of Remote Access Services (e.g., CACRAS).
(4) Engaging in any fundraising activity not sanctioned by the CG, endorsing any company (service or product), or engaging in any political activity.
(5) Using government office equipment or services for commercial purposes to support a private or personal business, including assisting relatives, friends, or other persons in such activities. Examples of this prohibition include, but are not limited to, employees using a government computer and Internet connection to run a travel business, investment or consultant service.
(6) Using government office equipment or services for private, non-profit, non-commercial business or activities. Examples of this prohibition include, but are not limited to, organizing charity event participation and soliciting volunteers for non-Coast Guard sanctioned activities.
(7) Use of government office phones, cellular, or Smartphone devices that could incur unnecessary government expenses (e.g., long distance charges, roaming charges, International charges, data charges, additional minutes, etc.).
(8) Accessing personal shopping sites (e.g., Amazon, EBay, 1-800 Flowers, Craig’s List, Orbit.com, etc.) from any CGSW (desktop or laptop).
252
What is the definition of substance abuse?
The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member's safety at risk.
253
Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues.
Encourage, Teach, and Support Low-Risk Guidelines for Alcohol Use
Provide Periodic Prevention Training
Support Commands
Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse
Support Mission Readiness
Align with Other Policy
254
Which of the following is an example where zero drinks is the preferred option?
There are occasions where “zero” drinks is the low-risk option; such as, when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications
255
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
The 0,1,2,3 model
256
Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____.
An increased risk for developing alcohol use disorder
257
How many grams of pure alcohol is in a "standard" drink?
14 grams
258
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5 ounces of table wine
259
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12 ounce beer
260
Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?
Studies show that women start to have alcohol-related problems sooner and at lower drinking levels than men do and for multiple reasons. On average, women weigh less than men. Also, alcohol resides predominantly in body water, and pound for pound, women have less water in their bodies than men.
261
Where can you find additional clarifications on low risk drinking guidelines?
National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism
262
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5 ounces
263
What is considered binge drinking for men?
5 drinks for men - in about 2 hours
264
What is considered binge drinking for women?
4 drinks for women—in about 2 hours
265
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
0.08 percent or higher
266
What is considered substance abuse?
The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member's safety at risk.
267
Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues.
Encourage, Teach, and Support Low-Risk Guidelines for Alcohol Use
Provide Periodic Prevention Training
Support Commands
Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse
Support Mission Readiness
Align with Other Policy
268
What is a responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative?
a. Contact the SAPS within 24 hours of Commanding Officer notification of a potential substance-related issue;
b. Collaborate with the SAPS to provide administrative support to the command regarding prevention strategies and treatment options;
c. Collaborate with the SAPS to prepare the appropriate Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307;
d. Schedule and document required unit substance abuse prevention training, as needed, and in accordance with directions provided by SAPS;
e. Prepare and prominently display prevention awareness materials;
f. Collaborate with the SAPS to initiate substance abuse screenings, referrals, treatment, aftercare, and support plans. NOTE: Never diagnose or infer a diagnosis; failure to comply will result in removal from position and may lead to further administrative action;
g. Ensure that all documentation is complete before arranging treatment or training via the SAPS;
h. Keep the command informed of the status of members undergoing treatment, including expected date of completion and/or return, prognosis, and personal needs (e.g., pay, orders, etc.);
i. Collaborate with the SAPS to develop support and aftercare plans;
j. Monitor mandatory pre-treatment and aftercare plans with the Commanding Officer;
k. Provide updates to the SAPS for all members who are:
(1) Assigned an aftercare plan; and
(2) Transferred or separated from service while in aftercare.
l. Provide copies of all documentation to the receiving command when members on an aftercare plan are transferring;
m. Complete annual HIPAA training related to substance abuse patient records;
n. Provide Substance Abuse Prevention Training minimally one time per year, especially during “Alcohol Awareness Month;” and
o. Enact and annually review with the unit “Seven Steps to an Effective Command Prevention Program.”
269
What is Prime for Life training used for?
An evidence-based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misusing alcohol
270
What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?
There is no dollar limit placed on the aggregate value
271
The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____________ articles.
6
272
The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide that provides members of the Armed Forces with guidance _____________.
All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in this Code of Conduct while in combat or in captivity. To ensure achievement of these standards, members of the armed forces liable to capture shall be provided with specific training and instruction designed to better equip them to counter and withstand all enemy efforts against them, and shall be fully instructed as to the behavior and obligations expected of them during combat or captivity
273
Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
No current prescription (within six months) or verified medical use explanation for a drug(s) that would account for the positive urinalysis result. Unauthorized use results in a drug incident finding.
274
Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?
Unauthorized use of substances strictly prohibited by CG policy
275
Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?
a. Intentional use of drugs for non-medical purposes;
b. Wrongful possession of drugs;
c. Trafficking of drugs--distributing, importing, exporting, or introducing to a military facility;
d. The intentional use of other substances, such as inhalants, glue, cleaning agents, or over-the-counter (OTC), or prescription medications to obtain a "high," contrary to their intended use; or
e. A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possession, or trafficking of drugs, unless rebutted by other evidence (note the member need not be found guilty at court-martial, in civilian court, or be awarded NJP for the conduct to be considered a drug incident); however,
f. If the conduct occurs without the member’s knowledge, awareness, or reasonable suspicion or is medically authorized, it does not constitute a drug incident. See Chapter 5 of this Manual.
276
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
4.1.2. A member of the Armed Forces on active duty shall not:
4.1.2.1. Participate in partisan political fundraising activities (except as permitted in subparagraph 4.1.1.7.), rallies, conventions (including making speeches in the course thereof), management of campaigns, or debates, either on one’s own behalf or on that of another, without respect to uniform or inference or appearance of official sponsorship, approval, or endorsement. Participation includes more than mere attendance as a spectator. (See subparagraph 4.1.1.9.)
4.1.2.2. Use official authority or influence to interfere with an election, affect the course or outcome of an election, solicit votes for a particular candidate or issue, or require or solicit political contributions from others.
4.1.2.3. Allow or cause to be published partisan political articles, letters, or endorsements signed or written by the member that solicits votes for or against a partisan political party, candidate, or cause. This is distinguished from a letter to the editor as permitted under the conditions noted in subparagraph 4.1.1.6.
4.1.2.4. Serve in any official capacity with or be listed as a sponsor of a partisan political club.
4.1.2.5. Speak before a partisan political gathering, including any gathering that promotes a partisan political party, candidate, or cause.
4.1.2.6. Participate in any radio, television, or other program or group discussion as an advocate for or against a partisan political party, candidate, or cause.
4.1.2.7. Conduct a political opinion survey under the auspices of a partisan political club or group or distribute partisan political literature.
4.1.2.8. Perform clerical or other duties for a partisan political committee or candidate during a campaign, on an election day, or after an election day during the process of closing out a campaign.
4.1.2.9. Solicit or otherwise engage in fundraising activities in Federal offices or facilities, including military reservations, for any political cause or candidate.
4.1.2.10. March or ride in a partisan political parade.
4.1.2.11. Display a large political sign, banner, or poster (as distinguished from a bumper sticker) on a private vehicle.
4.1.2.12. Display a partisan political sign, poster, banner, or similar device visible to the public at one’s residence on a military installation, even if that residence is part of a privatized housing development.
4.1.2.13. Participate in any organized effort to provide voters with transportation to the polls if the effort is organized by or associated with a partisan political party, cause, or candidate.
4.1.2.14. Sell tickets for or otherwise actively promote partisan political dinners and similar fundraising events.
4.1.2.15. Attend partisan political events as an official representative of the Armed Forces, except as a member of a joint Armed Forces color guard at the opening ceremonies of the national conventions of the Republican, Democratic, or other political parties recognized by the Federal Elections Committee or as otherwise authorized by the Secretary concerned.
4.1.2.16. Make a campaign contribution to, or receive or solicit (on one’s own behalf) a campaign contribution from, any other member of the Armed Forces on active duty. Any contributions not prohibited by this subparagraph remain subject to the gift provisions of sections 2635.301-2635.304 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations (Reference (f)). See subparagraph 4.1.2.1. for general prohibitions on partisan fundraising activity.
277
Which of the following would be an authorized political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
4.1.1. A member of the Armed Forces on active duty may:
4.1.1.1. Register, vote, and express a personal opinion on political candidates and issues, but not as a representative of the Armed Forces.
4.1.1.2. Promote and encourage others to exercise their voting franchise, if such promotion does not constitute use of their official authority or influence to interfere with the outcome of any election.
4.1.1.3. Join a partisan or nonpartisan political club and attend its meetings when not in uniform, subject to the restrictions of subparagraph 4.1.2.4. (See DoD Instruction 1334.1 (Reference (c).)
4.1.1.4. Serve as an election official, if such service is not as a representative of a partisan political party, does not interfere with the performance of military duties, is performed when not in uniform, and the Secretary concerned has given prior approval. The Secretary concerned may NOT delegate the authority to grant or deny such permission.
4.1.1.5. Sign a petition for a specific legislative action or a petition to place a candidate’s name on an official election ballot, if the signing does not obligate the member to engage in partisan political activity and is done as a private citizen and not as a representative of the Armed Forces.
4.1.1.6. Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper expressing the member’s personal views on public issues or political candidates, if such action is not part of an organized letter-writing campaign or a solicitation of votes for or against a political party or partisan political cause or candidate. If the letter identifies the member as on active duty (or if the member is otherwise reasonably identifiable as a member of the Armed Forces), the letter should clearly state that the views expressed are those of the individual only and not those of the Department of Defense (or Department of Homeland Security for members of the Coast Guard).
4.1.1.7. Make monetary contributions to a political organization, party, or committee favoring a particular candidate or slate of candidates, subject to the limitations under section 441a of title 2, United States Code (U.S.C.) (Reference (d)); section 607 of title 18, U.S.C. (Reference (e)); and other applicable law.
4.1.1.8. Display a political bumper sticker on the member’s private vehicle.
4.1.1.9. Attend partisan and nonpartisan political fundraising activities, meetings, rallies, debates, conventions, or activities as a spectator when not in uniform and when no inference or appearance of official sponsorship, approval, or endorsement can reasonably be drawn.
4.1.1.10. Participate fully in the Federal Voting Assistance Program.
278
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
1. Treat all firearms as if they are loaded.
2. Always maintain proper muzzle control.
3. Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot.
4. Know your target and what is beyond it.
279
Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an "UNSAT" conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
Six months of good conduct prior to being advanced to E-4 or E-5
280
Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?
Investigator (IV) Rating
Diver (DV) Rating
