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Flashcards in EPQ QUESTION REVIEW Deck (225):
1

1. The PIC must ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by 10 percent (up to a maximum of 45 minutes for fixed wing) or _________ minutes, whichever is greater. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 30
B. 15
C. 20
D. 60

C. 20

2

2. When computing required fuel reserves, turbine-powered aircraft use fuel consumption rates that provide: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. long range cruise at 10,000 MSL
B. maximum endurance
C. maximum range cruise at planned divert altitude
D. maximum endurance at 10,000 MSL

D. maximum endurance at 10,000 MSL

3

3. An aircraft established on final approach has the right-of-way over other aircraft on the ground or in the air, except when two or more aircraft are approaching to land. In this case: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. the higher aircraft has the right of way.
B. the aircraft closest to the ground must break out
C. the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way but it shall not use this advantage to cut in front of or overtake the other. D. the most maneuverable aircraft must yield right-of-way

C. the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way but it shall not use this advantage to cut in front of or overtake the other.

4

4. When given clearance to taxi by ATC, pilots: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. do not have to hold short of intersecting runways.
B. are cleared intersecting runways and onto the assigned runway.
C. shall taxi to the assigned runway via the most expeditious route.
D. will hold short of intersecting runways on the route of taxi until obtaining specific clearance to cross.

D. will hold short of intersecting runways on the route of taxi until obtaining specific clearance to cross.

5

5. Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go or low approach unless: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. at least 400 ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation.
B. at a safe airspeed
C. specifically cleared by the controlling agency or required by a local procedure.
D. past the end of the runway (if visible)
E. all of the above.

E. all of the above.

6

6. The minimum weather to file according to VFR to a destination is _____ feet ceiling and _____ statute miles visibility. (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. 1,000, 3.
B. 1,500, 3.
C. 2,500, 3.
D. 3,000, 3.

B. 1,500, 3.

7

7. USAF fixed-wing aircraft must fly under IFR when: (Ref: AFI 11-202 Vol 3, AETC SUP 1)
A. operating in Class A airspace.
B. operating in excess of 180 KTAS within a federal airway.
C. operating at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR.
D. all of the above..

D. all of the above..

8

8. If the GPS database has expired, the PIC (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. May continue a mission with an expired database if the database information required for the flight can be verified with current FLIP
B. Will not fly procedures that require terminal or better accuracy (i.e. terminal or approach)
C. Both a and b
D. The PIC cannot use the GPS at all with an expired database

C. Both a and b

9

9. If a RAIM flag/status annunciation appears after the FAWP: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. Descend no lower than MDA, proceed to the MAWP, and execute a missed approach
B. Climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute a missed approach
C. Initiate a climbing turn back to the FAWP
D. Immediately switch to backup non-precision approach

B. Climb to the missed approach altitude, proceed to the MAWP and execute a missed approach

10

10. In formation, you notice your wingman holds his or her hand at the top of the canopy, palm down, fingers extended and joined. He or she moves his or her hand forward and down. He or she is trying to tell you: (Ref: AFI 11-205)
A. Descend to lower altitude.
B. He or she desires to land.
C. He or she needs to land immediately.
D. He or she must land on your wing.

A. Descend to lower altitude.

11

11. A visor must be worn during all phases of flight (including at night). (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

A. True

12

12. While leading a formation, you notice that your wingman holds a closed fist to the top of the canopy with the thumb extended downward. He or she then moves his or her arm up and down rapidly. (Ref: AFI 11-205)
A. He or she wants to land immediately.
B. He or she is HEFOE with an oxygen problem.
C. He or she needs to descend.
D. He or she is indicating a low fuel state.

A. He or she wants to land immediately.

13

13. The formation signal for attention in the air is to: (Ref: AFI 11-205)
A. large wing rock.
B. execute rapid, shallow wing rock.
C. execute a series of porpoising maneuvers.
D. turn the anti-collision strobe lights off then on.

B. execute rapid, shallow wing rock.

14

14. G-suits are required on all sorties when planning to exceed 2 G's during any portion of a sortie. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

A. True

15

15. Maintain a taxi interval of ____ feet when staggered and ____ feet when in trail. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 60, 150
B. 150, 300
C. 100, 200
D. 75, 150

D. 75, 150

16

16. Normal recovery fuel (the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate) is the higher of what is established locally or ____ pounds: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 250
B. 200
C. 150
D. 100

B. 200

17

17. Minimum runway length for normal T-6 operations is ____ feet: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. Heavyweight, no-flap landing distance plus 1000
B. 4500
C. 4000
D. 3000

C. 4000

18

18. When conducting OCF recoveries over clouds, plan to complete all OCF recoveries (to include dive recoveries) at least _____ feet above the clouds. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 1000
B. 3000
C. 5000
D. 7000

B. 3000

19

19. Which of the following maneuvers is prohibited at night: (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. aerobatics
B. stalls
C. practicing the visual circling maneuver portion of an instrument approach
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

20

20. Flying formation at night is prohibited. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

A. True

21

21. The maximum crosswind for formation wing takeoffs and landings is _____ knots. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

C. 15

22

22. When leading fingertip formation, limit maneuvering to 120 knots minimum airspeed, approximately 90 degrees of bank, and 2 to 3 Gs. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

A. True

23

23. Aircrews should use TO or UP flap settings for full-stop and touch-and-go landings when the crosswind (steady state or gust) exceeds ___ knots. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 5
B. 10
C. 13
D. 15

B. 10

24

24. The minimum runway width for normal T-6 operations is _____ ft. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 150
B. 100
C. 50
D. 75

D. 75

25

25. Taxi spacing will be a minimum of ____feet and on the taxiway centerline at night. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 75
B. 150
C. 300
D. 200

C. 300

26

26. Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ____ knots. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 35
B. 25
C. 50
D. 30

A. 35

27

27. After beginning a penetration or published approach, if weather is reported below the required PWC or published minimums (ceiling or visibility), the pilot may continue the approach to the PWC or published minimums, whichever is higher. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

A. True

28

28. In fingertip formation, limit maneuvering to _________ knots minimum airspeed, approximately 90 degrees of bank, and 2 to 3 Gs. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 100
B. 110
C. 90
D. 120

D. 120

29

29. Planned formation low approaches will________. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. be initiated no lower than 100 ft AGL
B. not descend below 100 ft AGL at any time
C. go around no lower than 300 ft AGL
D. are not allowed

A. be initiated no lower than 100 ft AGL

30

30. Minimum fuel is _____ pounds (_____ pounds on all solo student syllabus sorties). (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 110, 150
B. 150, 250
C. 150, 200
D. 110, 200

C. 150, 200

31

31. The minimum altitude for VFR, non-local, point to point navigation missions dictated by operational or training requirements is _________ feet AGL. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 1500
B. 3000
C. 5000
D. Not specified

B. 3000

32

32. Do not file to a destination unless the ceiling and visibility for the estimated time of arrival (plus or minus 1 hour) is at or above the appropriate PWC or suitable published minimums, whichever is greater. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. True
B. False

A. True

33

33. Limit close trail maneuvering to turns and modified lazy eights, using _______knots minimum airspeed, approximately_______ degrees of bank, and _______ Gs. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 120, 90, 2 to 3
B. 110, 90, 2 to 3
C. 120, 60, 1 to 2
D. 100, 90, 2 to 3

A. 120, 90, 2 to 3

34

34. The maximum airspeed for any operation at a non-towered airfield is _____ KIAS. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 150
B. 175
C. 180
D. 200

A. 150

35

35. Over-water training flights will not be permitted when forecast or actual wave heights exceed ____ ft or surface winds exceed _____ knots in training or operating areas. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 15, 20
B. 10, 25
C. 10, 35
D. 15, 25

B. 10, 25

36

36. Minimum altitude to fly extended trail, aerobatics, stalls, or slow flight is _______. (Ref: AFI 11-2T-6 Vol 3)
A. 5,000' AGL
B. 6,000' AGL
C. 6,000' MSL
D. Not specified

B. 6,000' AGL

37

37. Primary flight instrumentation must provide: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. full-time attitude, altitude, and airspeed information
B. immediately discernable attitude recognition capability
C. unusual attitude recovery capability
D. complete fault indications
E. all of the above.

E. all of the above.

38

38. The localizer course may be flown outside of the 18 NM flight-check distance if: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 3)
A. never
B. the instrument procedure depicts a distance greater than 18 NM
C. radar service is provided
D. b and c only

D. b and c only

39

39. The glide slope signal is usable to a range of _____ NM. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 18

B. 10

40

40. On IAPs with dead reckoning (DR) courses, pilots are expected to fly the depicted ground track by correcting for wind. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

41

41. ATC should issue holding instructions at least ______ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. Pilots are expected to start a speed reduction when an aircraft is ______ minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance beyond the fix has not been received so that the aircraft will cross the fix at or below __________. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 10, 5, max endurance airspeed
B. 5, 2, minimum holding airspeed
C. 5, 3, maximum holding airspeed
D. 3, 5, 150 KIAS

C. 5, 3, maximum holding airspeed

42

42. Before taxi, crews should set their altimeters to the airport QNH. Both primary altimeters must agree within _________ feet of field elevation. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 3)
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 35

B. 75

43

43. The Defense Internet NOTAM System (DINS) includes all military airfields and virtually all domestic, international, and Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs. If an airfield does not transmit NOTAM data to the US NOTAM System: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. a plain language notice in red font is displayed advising the user of that fact
B. pilots must contact the airfield manager or associated FSS directly for NOTAM information
C. all airfields transmit NOTAM data to DINS
D. a and b

D. a and b

44

44. An emergency safe altitude is normally developed only for military procedures and will provide _____ feet of obstacle clearance ( _____ feet in designated mountainous areas) within _____ NM of the facility. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 1,000, (3,000), 25.
B. 2,000, (3,000), 100.
C. 1,000, (2,000), 25.
D. 1,000, (2,000), 100.

D. 1,000, (2,000), 100.

45

45. Touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) is the highest point in the first _____ feet of the landing surface. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 1,500
B. 2,000
C. 2,500
D. 3,000

D. 3,000

46

46. The VDP is normally identified by DME and is computed for the ____________ on the IAP. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. precision approach with the highest DH.
B. precision approach with the lowest DH.
C. non-precision approach with the highest MDA.
D. non-precision approach with the lowest MDA.

D. non-precision approach with the lowest MDA.

47

47. When checking the VOR at a designated ground checkpoint, the allowable CDI error is _____ degrees. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. +/-2
B. +/-4
C. +/-5
D. 0

B. +/-4

48

48. A standard holding pattern consists of ________ turns. The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg is _________ at or below 14,000 feet MSL and __________ above 14,000 feet MSL: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. left, 1 minute, 1 1⁄2 minutes
B. right, 1 1⁄2 minutes, 1 minute
C. right, 1 minute, 1 1⁄2 minutes
D. left, 1 minute, 2 minutes

C. right, 1 minute, 1 1⁄2 minutes

49

49. When determining bank angle for holding, unless correcting for known winds, make all turns during
entry and while holding at ___________ , whichever requires the least bank angle. 217 Vol 1)
A. 3 degrees per second
B. 30 degree bank angle
C. bank angle commanded by the flight director system
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

50

50. If the inbound holding course is NOT within 70 degrees of the aircraft heading (using the 70 degree method): (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. turn outbound on the holding side to parallel the holding course.
B. turn outbound in the shorter direction to parallel the holding course.
C. if this turn places you on the non-holding side, either parallel or attempt to intercept the holding course.
D. both a and c above. E. both b and c above.

E. both b and c above.

51

51. Pilots shall perform the missed approach when the missed approach point, decision height (DH), or decision altitude (DA) is reached and any of the following conditions exist: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. runway environment is not in sight
B. unable to make a safe landing
C. directed to execute missed approach by the controlling agency
D. all of the above E. a and c only

D. all of the above

52

52. Before reaching the IAF, pilots must: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. recheck the weather (if appropriate).
B. review the IAP.
C. check the heading and attitude systems.
D. obtain clearance for the approach.
E. all of the above.

E. all of the above.

53

53. While being vectored, pilots will repeat all: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. headings.
B. altitudes (departing and assigned).
C. altimeter settings.
D. all of the above.

D. all of the above.

54

54. The remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from the__________ unless the IAP specifies otherwise: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. the procedure turn fix.
B. the runway.
C. final approach fix.
D. the IAF.

A. the procedure turn fix.

55

55. The localizer signal typically has a usable range of at least 18 miles within _______ degrees of the course centerline. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 10.
B. 12.
C. 18.
D. 20.

A. 10.

56

56. When the final approach fix is the NAVAID for an approach, a course change of up to _______ degrees may be required and the approach still be considered a straight-in approach. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 20.
B. 30.
C. 35.
D. 40.

B. 30.

57

57. If you are more than one dot (half-scale) below or two dots (full-scale) above glide slope on an ILS: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. do not descend below localizer minimums.
B. execute the missed approach immediately
C. a descent to DA/DH may be continued if the glide slope is recaptured.
D. either a or c above.
E. none of the above.

D. either a or c above.

58

58. Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 1 minute while being vectored to final.
B. 15 seconds on final for an ASR.
C. 5 seconds on final for a PAR.
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

59

59. When an ASR approach will end in a circle, furnish the controller with___________. The controller will then issue the circling MDA: (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. your weather minimums.
B. your aircraft category.
C. your final approach airspeed.
D. none of the above.

B. your aircraft category.

60

60. When issued a departure clearance instructing you to “fly runway heading” by ATC: (Ref: AFMAN 11- 217 Vol 1)
A. maintain the extended runway centerline ground track using wind drift corrections.
B. do not apply wind drift corrections.
C. a diverse departure is authorized with this clearance
D. the weather must be greater than 1500/3

B. do not apply wind drift corrections.

61

61. When reported weather conditions are less than ___________ , ATC will not authorize aircraft or vehicles to operate inside the ILS critical area while an aircraft is the between the ILS FAF and touchdown. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 800 foot ceiling and/or visibility is less than 2 statute miles
B. 1000 foot ceiling and 3 NM
C. 200 foot ceiling and/or 1⁄2 NM visibility
D. 300 foot ceiling and 1NM visibility

A. 800 foot ceiling and/or visibility is less than 2 statute miles

62

62. Pilots may circle out a precision approach, but must use extreme caution to ensure their aircraft is within the appropriate circling radius before abandoning the precision glideslope. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

63

63. In a low altitude approach, a maximum ____________ descent is normally planned.(Ref: AFMAN 11- 217 Vol 1)
A. 200 feet per nautical mile
B. 200 feet per minute
C. 400 feet per nautical mile
D. 400 feet per minute

C. 400 feet per nautical mile

64

64. Any abnormal indications experienced within ____ degrees of the published front or back course centerline of an ILS localizer should be reported immediately. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1)
A. 35
B. 10
C. 5
D. 14

A. 35

65

65. In order to use GPS for the terminal area, all procedures (DPs, STARs, IAPs) must be retrieved in their entirety from a current, approved navigation database. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1) A. True
B. False

A. True

66

66. Terminal CDI scaling during a GPS approach is _____ nm; approach sensitivity (within 2NM of the FAWP) is ____ nm. (Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Vol 1) A. 5, 1
B. 1, .3
C. 5, .3
D. 2, 1

B. 1, .3

67

67. The aircraft commander (AC) of a single-ship mission or the flight lead (FL) of a formation may adjust joker or bingo fuels during flight to accommodate mission conditions. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. True
B. False

A. True

68

68. Bingo fuel is established and briefed _____________. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. on contact and formation missions only
B. optionally, at the discretion of the aircraft commander
C. only when the WX requires an alternate
D. for every mission

D. for every mission

69

69. An emergency route abort altitude (ERAA) for the planned portion of a low level route should be computed to provide _____ ft (_____ ft in mountainous terrain) clearance from the highest obstacle within ____ nautical miles either side of the route. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 1,000; 2,000; 5
B. 1,000; 2,000; 25
C. 500; 1,000; 10
D. 500; 1,000; 5

B. 1,000; 2,000; 25

70

70. Attain a minimum of 140 KIAS and 400 feet AGL, or per local directives, before the first turn after takeoff. The 400 foot restriction does not apply to the VFR pattern. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. True
B. False

A. True

71

71. Practice slow flight using the Flaps UP configuration and ______ knots. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 80-85
B. 85-90
C. 90-95
D. 95-100

C. 90-95

72

72. Perform a G-awareness exercise or AGSM demonstration before accomplishing any maneuver that may require 3 Gs or more. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. True
B. False

A. True

73

73. In a typical MOA, optimum energy for aerobatic maneuvering is ______ KIAS at _________: (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 150-200, 8000 MSL
B. 100-200, 10000 MSL
C. 190-210, an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limits
D. 180-200, an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limits

D. 180-200, an altitude midway between the top and bottom area limitsB. fuel filler cap, wingtip

74

74. A visual reference for proper no-wind spacing (0.7 to 1.0 NM) on inside downwind (Flaps TO), is approximately when the landing runway is placed half way between the _______ and the ________. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. fuel filler cap, white/blue color change
B. fuel filler cap, wingtip
C. mid-point of wing, wingtip
D. AOA vane, wingtip

B. fuel filler cap, wingtip

75

75. On an ELP, the following conditions describe the target low key position: (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 120 KIAS minimum
B. 1500’ AGL C. abeam intended landing aimpoint
D. all of the above
E. a and b only

D. all of the above

76

76. _______________________ are the top priorities of Number 1 in formation. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. Radio discipline and planning
B. Clearing, planning, and monitoring Number 2
C. Monitoring Number 2 and clearing
D. Communication, planning, and providing a stable platform

B. Clearing, planning, and monitoring Number 2

77

77. Applying ORM 3-2-1 guidance in a forced landing (FL) engine-out situation, pilots will not descend below the minimum controlled ejection altitude of 2,000’ AGL unless the aircraft is: (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. On profile for the field of intended landing, with the runway in sight, and in a position to safely maneuver to land
B. On profile, gear confirmed down, on centerline
C. Descent checklist completed, on profile for intended landing field, runway in sight
D. On profile for field of intended landing, runway OBS course set in GPS, and in a position to safely maneuver to land

A. On profile for the field of intended landing, with the runway in sight, and in a position to safely maneuver to land

78

78. During an instrument trail departure, until join up or level off, both number 1 and number 2 will call: (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. passing every 5,000 ft.
B. when passing thousands of feet (1000, 2000, etc.).
C. when passing even thousands of feet (2000, 4000, etc.) and when initiating heading changes.
D. passing every 5,000 ft and when initiating all heading changes.

C. when passing even thousands of feet (2000, 4000, etc.) and when initiating heading changes.

79

79. Normal holding airspeed in the T-6 is ___ KIAS. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 150
B. 160
C. 180
D. 125

C. 180

80

80. When preparing a chart for low-level navigation, choose an initial point (IP) about _____ minutes from the target. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. 1-3
B. 1-5
C. 3-5
D. 3-7

A. 1-3

81

81. The AGSM cycle should last from 10 to 15 seconds with at least 4 to 5 breathing cycles. (Ref: AFMAN 11-248) A. True
B. False

A. True

82

82. P-Factor is caused by: (Ref: AFMAN 11-248)
A. AOA being higher on the upward moving propeller blade than on the downward moving propeller blade.
B. AOA being higher on the downward moving propeller blade than on the upward moving propeller blade.
C. The propeller rotating at a constant speed
D. A low PCL setting

B. AOA being higher on the downward moving propeller blade than on the upward moving propeller blade.

83

83. Maximum abort speed calculations allow for a ___ second reaction time to select idle power and a ___ second period to apply the brakes after idle is selected. Speed may increase up to _____ knots during this period. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 3, 2, 10
B. 2, 2, 15
C. 4, 4, 20
D. 3, 3, 20

D. 3, 3, 20

84

84. Add _______feet to charted take off distance for formation wing take offs, assuming lead is using no less than ______% torque. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 1000, 85
B. 85, 100
C. 1000, 80
D. 1000, 75

A. 1000, 85

85

85. Critical altitude is defined as ________. This occurs at approximately _________ feet MSL on a standard day with the PCL at MAX. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. The altitude where delta-P begins to increase / 8,000
B. The altitude at which 100% torque is no longer available with the PCL at MAX / 16,000
C. The altitude at which the power curve is non-linear / 10,000
D. The optimum cruise altitude / 16,000

B. The altitude at which 100% torque is no longer available with the PCL at MAX / 16,000

86

86. If the PCL is placed in cutoff with the PMU in OFF and the PROP SYS circuit breaker pulled, the propeller will not rapidly feather and may not fully feather until after landing. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

87

87. Failure to ensure the ST READY light remains illuminated for ___ seconds following PCL movement to the Auto Start range may result in engine damage from the start being conducted in manual mode. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9

B. 3

88

88. The engine data manager (EDM) monitors engine operating parameters and____________.
(Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. governs propeller RPM
B. illuminates the appropriate annunciator when necessary
C. is activated by a weight-on-wheels switch
D. allows near linear power response with PCL position

B. illuminates the appropriate annunciator when necessary

89

89. The engine has been flat-rated to produce ______ shaft horsepower. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 900
B. 1100
C. 1300
D. 1500

B. 1100

90

90. Oil cooling is accomplished by routing scavenged oil through an oil cooler located ________ before returning to the oil tank. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. in the lower aft cowl assembly
B. in the RGB
C. in the left main gear well
D. next to the oil fill port

A. in the lower aft cowl assembly

91

91. If the rate of change of propeller RPM exceeds the PMU sensor validity check limit, the PMU will assume a sensor failure has occurred, and dashes will be displayed for Np and Torque. If the dashes were caused by a propeller RPM rate limit exceedence: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. smoothly advance the PCL until normal indications appear
B. a reset is not possible
C. cycling the PMU switch will restore the displays
D. cycle the PROP SYS circuit breaker

C. cycling the PMU switch will restore the displays

92

92. Placing the starter switch in the AUTO/RESET position automatically: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. energizes the battery bus
B. engages the starter
C. energizes the ignition system
D. both b and c

D. both b and c

93

93. During an auto start or normal operation with the ignition switch set to ______, the PMU will energize and deenergize the igniters as required. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. ON
B. NORM
C. AUTO
D. AUTO/RESET

B. NORM

94

94. When the ignition switch is set to ON, or when the igniters are activated in AUTO mode, a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

95

95. The reduction gearbox (RGB) is driven by the power turbine, which is driven by hot gases from the gas generator section. There is no mechanical connection between the gas generator section and the RGB. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

96

96. The PCLs are interconnected with a push-pull rod so that movement of one PCL moves the other. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

97

97. The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of ______rpm (100% Np) during most flight conditions. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 30,000
B. 3000-5000
C. 2000
D. none of the above

C. 2000

98

98. The PCL in each cockpit contains switches for activating which of the following components: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. rudder trim
B. speed brake
C. UHF communications
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

99

99. When feathered, the propeller blades are aligned nearly ________ the wind. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. flat against
B. opposite of
C. straight into
D. diagonal to

C. straight into

100

100. Propeller feather may be selected to minimize drag during engine failure by placing the ______ to ______. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. PCL, OFF
B. PROP, FEATHER
C. PCL, IDLE
D. None of the above

A. PCL, OFF

101

101. With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below _____ percent. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 100
B. 103
C. 106
D. 110

C. 106

102

102. Power for the engine/systems/NACWS display (ENG SYS DIS) is provided through the _________ bus. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. battery
B. generator
C. aux battery
D. AC

B. generator

103

103. In the ground mode, the engine idle N1 is ______% and in the flight mode, idle is approximately _____%. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 67, 40
B. 60-61, 67
C. 40, 60
D. 67, 60

B. 60-61, 67

104

104. Power setting is linear with PCL position throughout the operating envelope of the aircraft. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

105

105. Engine starts are NOT recommended with the PMU in the manual mode. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

106

106. If faults prevent the PMU from setting the requested power or respecting engine limits, or the pilot switches the PMU OFF, the system will revert to the manual mode. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

107

107. During a normal (auto) start, the PMU can automatically abort the start if necessary to avoid a hung/hot start or if any engine start parameter is exceeded. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

108

108. If the auto fuel balance system shuts off without reducing the fuel imbalance to _______ pounds or less, the auto balance system may be reset to provide an additional ______ minutes to balance the fuel load. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 50, 3
B. 30, 3
C. 30, 2
D. 20, 3

C. 30, 2

109

109. During an normal (auto) engine start, the PMU: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. activates the starter
B. activates the boost pump
C. activates the igniters
D. adds fuel at the proper N1
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

110

110. The PCL may be advanced to IDLE any time N1 is at or above ______. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 50%
D. 30%

A. 60%

111

111. After the PCL has been advanced past the start ready position, the PMU will not cut off fuel to terminate a start. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

112

112. The start may be manually aborted by: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. placing the PCL back to OFF
B. reselecting the STARTER switch to AUTO/RESET (if PCL is not past idle gate)
C. de-energizing the PMU
D. either a or b above

D. either a or b above

113

113. If a start attempt is automatically or manually aborted: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. advance the PCL past the idle gate
B. immediately attempt a restart to burn any residual fuel C. wait 10 minutes to allow residual fuel to evaporate
D. perform the Abort Start Procedure

D. perform the Abort Start Procedure

114

114. Illumination of the fire warning light accompanied by one or more of the following indications is confirmation of an engine fire: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. smoke
B. engine vibration
C. unusual sounds
D. fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature, or hydraulic pressure
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

115

115. Flattening, twisting, kinking or denting of the fire detection loop will affect test or flight operation. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

116

116. During inverted flight, the inverted flight fuel pickup provides _______ fuel supply, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. a limited
B. a minimum 15 seconds
C. a maximum 30 seconds
D. an unlimited

B. a minimum 15 seconds

117

117. The fuel auto balance system (provided by the EDM) detects fuel imbalances: (Ref: T.O. 1T- 6A-1)
A. using actual fuel quantity
B. using indicated fuel flow
C. as displayed on the fuel gauge
D. as calculated using the fuel control

C. as displayed on the fuel gauge

118

118. Selecting the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to L will: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the right tank. B. drain fuel from the left wing.
C. add fuel to the left wing.
D. stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the left tank.

D. stop motive flow fuel from feeding from the left tank.

119

119. The generator provides 28 volts DC, which is sufficient to power: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. all equipment on the generator bus
B. the battery bus equipment
C. charge the battery
D. all the above
E. only a. and b.

D. all the above

120

120. If the generator control switch (GEN) has been set to on in either cockpit, and the occupant of the other cockpit selects ON: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. generator function is interrupted momentarily, then
B. it trips the GEN switch in the other cockpit to OFF
C. generator function is controlled by the switch set to ON D. all of the above
E. b and c above

E. b and c above
B. it trips the GEN switch in the other cockpit to OFF
C. generator function is controlled by the switch set to ON

121

121. While the PMU should normally abort a hot/hung/no start, the pilot should manually abort a start in the following situations: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. Normal N1 increase is halted
B. No rise of ITT is evident within 10sec after fuel flow indications
C. BAT BUS annunciator illuminates during the start sequence
D. PCL is moved or the ST READY annunciator extinguishes during the start sequence
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

122

122. Preflight testing of the auxiliary battery power level is accomplished: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. prior to application of battery power
B. using the AUX BAT switch and making a radio call
C. using the AUX BAT test switch and light
D. both a and b above
E. both a and c above

E. both a and c above
A. prior to application of battery power
C. using the AUX BAT test switch and light

123

123. In an emergency situation, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, backup UHF radio, standby instrument lighting and FIRE 1 fire warning system for approximately ________. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 3-5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 1 hour

C. 30 minutes

124

124. The hydraulic system consists of one engine-driven pump with approximately a ________ capacity. The hydraulic pump pressurizes the normal system and emergency accumulator to ________ psi. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 1 gallon, 3000, +/- 150
B. 5 quart, 3000 +/- 120
C. 1 gallon, 1800
D. 5 quart, 1800-3000

B. 5 quart, 3000 +/- 120

125

125. A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately ______ seconds. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 5
B. 6
C. 10-15
D. 30

B. 6

126

126. The wheel brake system ______ affected by a failure of the aircraft hydraulic system. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. is
B. is not

B. is not

127

127. The pilot applying the most wheel brake pedal force determines the amount of braking being used. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

128

128. Flap position is controlled by a three-position flap selector marked: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. UP, TO, LDG
B. UP, 50%, 100%
C. UP, HALF, FULL
D. UP, TO, DN

A. UP, TO, LDG

129

129. Normal flap operation and indications are NOT available whenever: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. the battery bus has failed
B. when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power
C. the generator bus has failed
D. either a or b above
E. either b or c above

D. either a or b above

130

130. Emergency flap extension is enabled: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. after selecting EMER using hydraulic system switch
B. after the emergency landing gear extension handle is operated
C. when the aux battery is the only source of electrical power
D. none of the above

B. after the emergency landing gear extension handle is operated

131

131. During flap deployment or retraction, the flap position pointer moves: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. with flap movement to indicate flap position in transit
B. to the selected flap position to indicate flap handle position
C. only when the flaps have reached the selected position
D. to an intermediate position between the placarded settings to indicate flap motion

D. to an intermediate position between the placarded settings to indicate flap motion

132

132. The speed brake ______ be stopped at an intermediate deflection. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. may
B. may not

B. may not

133

133. If the flaps are extended, the speed brake will not extend. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

134

134. Pressing and holding the trim interrupt button: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. interrupts radio traffic to allow the student to trim
B. interrupts power to rudder trim, and centers the rudder C. interrupts front cockpit input to allow IP intervention
D. interrupts power to all trim actuators and causes the TAD to disengage.

D. interrupts power to all trim actuators and causes the TAD to disengage.

135

135. Actuating the TRIM DISCONNECT switch will: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. remove power from the trim system
B. illuminate green TRIM OFF and TAD OFF annunciators C. cause the trim aid device (TAD) to disengage
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

136

136. _________ provides indication of takeoff trim setting. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. a green band on each trim indicator
B. a green light near the top of the glare shield
C. a green stripe on the fuselage
D. a green T/O TRIM annunciator

A. a green band on each trim indicator

137

137. The aileron trim actuator moves the: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1) A. ground adjustable trim tab
B. aileron trim tab on the left wing
C. entire aileron
D. control stick centering mechanism

C. entire aileron

138

138. The pitch trim actuator moves: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. the pitch trim tab on the right side of the elevator
B. the entire elevator
C. the control stick centering mechanism
D. none of the above

A. the pitch trim tab on the right side of the elevator

139

139. The ______ senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. trim computer
B. PMU
C. air data computer
D. trim aid device (TAD)

D. trim aid device (TAD)

140

140. The standby instruments are normally powered by the battery bus. In the event of a battery bus failure, the standby instruments are powered by the ____________. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. battery direct bus
B. auxiliary battery
C. generator bus
D. avionics bus

B. auxiliary battery

141

141. The ________ sets takeoff trim in the yaw axis when the trim aid system is switched on after engine start. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. pilot manually
B. crew chief manually
C. TAD automatically
D. T/O TRIM button

C. TAD automatically

142

142. Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. the pilot moves the rudder out of trim
B. the aircraft accelerates to at least 80 KIAS
C. there is no weight on the wheels
D. all of the above
E. b and c above

E. b and c above
B. the aircraft accelerates to at least 80 KIAS
C. there is no weight on the wheels

143

143. The ______ pitot system probe near the ______ wing tip provides ram air pressures for the air data computer. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. primary, right
B. primary, left
C. secondary, left
D. secondary, right

A. primary, right

144

144. The manual override (MOR) handle on the ejection seat is provided to initiate seat/pilot separation if the automatic system fails or if seat/pilot separation is desired above: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 15,000 AGL
B. 14,000 MSL
C. 14, 000 AGL
D. 20,000 MSL

B. 14,000 MSL

145

145. The following fuels have been approved for use in the PT6A-68 engine: JP-4, JP-5, JP-8, JP- 8+100 (USAF only), JET A, JET A+100 (USAF Only), JET A-1, and JET B. Fuel must contain a fuel system icing inhibitor. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

146

146. As AOA approaches stall angle (approximately _____ units on the gage), the AOA computer activates the ________, (15-16 units) providing stall warning. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 10, spoilers
B. 18, speed brake
C. 10, pitch limiter
D. 18, stick shaker

D. 18, stick shaker

147

147. If an inverted or power-on departure from controlled flight is encountered, land as soon as conditions permit. The pilot should suspect: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. possible engine damage
B. loss of torque information
C. Np greater than 102%
D. PMU FAIL annunciation

A. possible engine damage

148

148. If HYDR FL LO annunciator illuminates and hydraulic pressure indicates 0 psi, check the HYD SYS circuit breaker on the battery bus circuit breaker panel (left front console). If the circuit breaker is open, it may be reset. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1) A. True
B. False

A. True

149

149. Engine bleed air is used for: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. canopy seal, emergency gear extension, OBOGS
B. environmental control system (ECS), OBOGS, anti-G system
C. ECS, anti-G system, fuel system pressurization
D. OBOGS, anti-G system, rain removal system

B. environmental control system (ECS), OBOGS, anti-G system

150

150. If the PMU is activated with the IOAT at/above ___° C, IOAT and the ITT data will be invalid (amber dashes in the counter display and missing ITT pointer) and EDM FAIL will be displayed in the bottom of the primary engine data display. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 96
B. 93
C. 121
D. 80

A. 96

151

151. With the PMU off (manual mode), the PCL schedules fuel directly to the engine through the FMU and the pilot must exercise care to ensure N1, temperature, and torque limits are not exceeded. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

152

152. The fuel system provides approximately_____ pounds of usable fuel through the single point refueling system. Approximately _______ pounds of additional fuel is available if manually filled to the base of the filler neck in each wing tank using over-the-wing/gravity refueling. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1) A. 1000, 100
B. 1100, 100
C. 1100, 50
D. 2000, 100

B. 1100, 100

153

153. Normal operation of landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering should be considered unavailable when the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated and pressure is below _______ psi: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 2400
B. 3000
C. 1800
D. 800

C. 1800

154

154. Anti-ice heat is provided to both the pitot tubes and the static ports. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

155

155. A suitable landing area is a hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun. Landing on an unprepared surface or ditching is not recommended. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

156

156. The AOA heat is controlled through a switch labeled: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. AOA heat
B. Defog
C. Inflow
D. Probes Anti Ice

D. Probes Anti Ice

157

157. For high altitude ejections, an altitude sensing device and G-limiting device delay seat/pilot separation and parachute deployment until the seat and pilot are between _______ and _______ ft MSL and a safe parachute deployment speed. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 13,000 to 17,000
B. 11,500 to 15,500
C. 11,000 to 16,000
D. 14,000 to 16,000

D. 14,000 to 16,000

158

158. Operation of the Manual Override (MOR) Handle will fire a cartridge to operate: (Ref: T.O. 1T- 6A-1)
A. upper and lower harness locks
B. upper and lower bridle locks
C. the headbox deployment unit
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

159

159. Execute the Emergency Engine Shutdown On The Ground checklist for the following: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. engine fire
B. prop strike
C. if the aircraft appears likely to depart the prepared surface
D. any other serious ground emergency
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

160

160. Approximately _______ feet of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at the best glide speed of 125 KIAS. Approximately _______ seconds will be required to complete the starting sequence. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 1350, 30
B. 1200, 60
C. 1200, 40
D. 1000, 40

C. 1200, 40

161

161. Non-precision approaches, DPs and STARs are automatically deleted from the Flight Plan 0 page (active flight plan) in non-volatile memory ___ minutes after the GPS is turned off. (Ref: T.O. 1T- 6A-1)
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

B. 5

162

162. When the OBOGS is turned on a BIT is initiated and the system enters a system warm-up period which lasts approximately ___ minutes, during which time the OBOGS FAIL annunciator is inhibited. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

C. 3

163

163. When receiving radar vectors to final for a GPS approach, select OBS mode and set the FAF as the active waypoint. Select the inbound course to the FAF in the EHSI. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

164

164. Due to the sensitivity of the signal conditioning unit, a single, momentary illumination of the amber OIL PX annunciator while maneuvering is possible but may not indicate a malfunction. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

165

165. When testing the cockpit lamps using the lamp test switch, the landing gear control handle and gear lights are illuminated only in the cockpit that activates the lamp test switch. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

166

166. Essential steps or items which are to be checked in both cockpits, if occupied, are indicated by _______ following the step. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. an asterisk (*)
B. (COMMAND RESPONSE)
C. (BOTH)
D. (CHALLENGE)

C. (BOTH)

167

167. With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats will eject if the handle is pulled: (Ref: T.O. 1T- 6A-1)
A. unless the other ejection seat handle safety pin is installed
B. even if one ejection seat handle safety pin is installed
C. even if both ejection seat handle safety pins are installed
D. none of the above

B. even if one ejection seat handle safety pin is installed

168

168. If the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the area labeled FULL AC or FULL AD: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. have maintenance personnel service the system
B. the system requires servicing after the flight
C. the system is fully serviced
D. the system requires immediate servicing

C. the system is fully serviced

169

169. The emergency oxygen cylinder will be charged to _______ psi minimum at 70deg F. However, indicated pressure is affected by temperature changes. To approximate acceptable bottle pressure, add or
subtract _______ psi for each degree the outside temperature is above or below 70deg F. 1T-6A-1)
A. 2400, 3.5
B. 1800, 3.5
C. 2000, 3
D. 3000, 4

B. 1800, 3.5

170

170. When flying solo, failure to secure the rear seat oxygen regulator will result in the loss of ability to: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1) A. deactivate OBOGS from the front seat
B. activate OBOGS from the front seat
C. eject from the front seat
D. select EMER oxygen from the front seat

A. deactivate OBOGS from the front seat

171

171. During the anti-suffocation valve check, if the valve is functioning correctly, it will be _________ to breathe through the valve when you inhale deeply. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. impossible
B. possible
C. easy
D. none of the above

B. possible

172

172. When checking the fire detection system, both fire test positions must check good (all four bulbs) in both cockpits (if occupied). (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

173

173. Before engine start, if PMU FAIL or PMU STATUS annunciators are illuminated: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. set PMU switch to OFF, then NORM
B. press PMU reset button
C. abort the aircraft and notify maintenance personnel
D. start engine with PMU switch OFF

A. set PMU switch to OFF, then NORM

174

174. To preclude unnecessary wear to nose wheel steering and tire, ________ nose wheel steering prior to executing sharp turns with differential braking. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. disengage
B. engage
C. fully deflect
D. none of the above

A. disengage

175

175. Do not connect external power if battery voltage is below _______ volts. Connecting external power in this case could cause damage to the aircraft battery. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 22.0
B. 23.5
C. 19.0
D. 28.0

A. 22.0

176

176. Any fault discovered during the ________ check is reason for a ground abort. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. BEFORE TAKEOFF
B. OVERSPEED GOVERNOR
C. BEFORE EXTERIOR
D. COCKPIT

B. OVERSPEED GOVERNOR

177

177. If climbout obstacles are a factor, rotate to _____ nose high on takeoff and accelerate to best rate of climb speed of _____ KIAS using normal procedures. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 25, 125
B. 25, 140
C. 15, 140
D. 8-10, 160-180

C. 15, 140

178

178. If the flaps are set to LDG and the gear is raised, the gear warning horn: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. is inaudible
B. will sound momentarily
C. will sound and cannot be cancelled
D. will sound when the flaps are raised from LDG

C. will sound and cannot be cancelled

179

179. If Delta P readings other than _____ psi are encountered at or above 18,069 feet, notify maintenance. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 3.9 to 4.0
B. 3.2 +/- .6
C. 3.0 +/-.6
D. 3.6 +/- .2

D. 3.6 +/- .2

180

180. Before stalling, spinning and aerobatics verify caution and warning annunciators are extinguished and fuel imbalance is less than ____ pounds. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 160
B. 70
C. 50
D. 10

C. 50

181

181. During a missed approach, smoothly advance the PCL to MAX power and retract the speed brake (if extended). Set attitude to ____________ nose high and execute the missed approach procedure. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 25 degrees
B. 5 degrees above level flight
C. as required
D. 10-15 degrees

D. 10-15 degrees

182

182. When landing with a crosswind: (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. maintain wing low attitude and rudder input through the flare
B. land in a crab
C. hold crab until just prior to touchdown
D. hold runway alignment with rudder until just prior to touchdown

A. maintain wing low attitude and rudder input through the flare

183

183. During the COCKPIT (ALL FLIGHTS) interior preflight checklist, the parking brake must always be reset. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

184

184. For most accurate results, check oil level ___to___ minutes after engine shutdown. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 10, 15
B. 15, 20
C. 20, 25
D. 25, 30
E. All of the above

B. 15, 20

185

185. During a normal takeoff, initiate rotation to ______ degrees nose high at rotation speed. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 7-10
B. 10-12
C. 12-15
D. 7-15

A. 7-10

186

186. N1 will automatically reduce from flight idle (67%) to ground idle (60-61%) approximately _____ seconds after touchdown: (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 7
B. 8
C. 10
D. 4

D. 4

187

187. In the auto start mode, if a hot start, hung start, or no start is detected, the PMU should terminate the start sequence. The pilot must then perform a _______ second motoring run. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 30

C. 20

188

188. During gusty wind conditions, increase landing threshold and touchdown speeds by 50% of the gust increment up to a maximum increase of _______ knots. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 5
B. 10
C. 8
D. Do not increase speeds

B. 10

189

189. Airstart attempts are not recommended below ______ AGL, as primary attention should be to eject or safely recover the aircraft. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 6000
B. 5000
C. 2000
D. 3000

C. 2000

190

190. If the standby attitude gyro off flag appears after the battery bus has failed, the indicator will continue to operate for at least _____ minutes. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 5
B. 9
C. 15
D. 30

B. 9

191

191. If the battery fails, OBOGS will be inoperative. Emergency oxygen is recommended above 10,000 feet cabin altitude. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

192

192. Maximum airspeed for flight with a shattered/damaged/unlocked canopy is: (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 200 KIAS
B. 185 KIAS
C. 150 KIAS
D. 120 KIAS

C. 150 KIAS

193

193. If safe gear-down indications are obtained at any point during LANDING GEAR MALFUNCTION checklist: (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. discontinue the checklist and land as soon as practical
B. cycle the landing gear handle to verify safe gear down indications
C. pull the EMER LDG GR handle
D. none of the above

A. discontinue the checklist and land as soon as practical

194

194. Illumination of the DUCT TEMP annunciator indicates that bleed air temperature in the environmental systems duct (at anytime) or in the defog duct (defog on) has exceeded _____ deg F. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 200
B. 500
C. 300
D. 100

C. 300

195

195. During a trim system malfunction, if the rudder trim circuit breaker is pulled, automatic TAD correction inputs for power and configuration changes will be unavailable. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

196

196. Recommended minimum altitudes for ejection are _____ feet AGL for controlled ejection, and _____ feet AGL for uncontrolled ejection. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 2,000; 10,000
B. 2,000; 6,000
C. 6,000; 10,000
D. None of the above

B. 2,000; 6,000

197

197. For an engine failure, depending on airspeed, N1 will indicate 0% within approximately __ seconds, even though the gas generator core may not have seized. (Ref: 1T-6A-1) A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

B. 5

198

198. Full rudder deflection above ________ KIAS will exceed the limits for the rudder control system. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 150
B. 120
C. 180
D. 227

A. 150

199

199. Holding a zero-G loading for over ______ seconds can cause engine damage and possible engine failure, regardless of oil pressure indications. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 15
B. 5
C. 10
D. 30

B. 5

200

200. Engine operation with high pressure pump suction feeding is limited to ___ hours. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

D. 10

201

201. You should attempt to manually balance a fuel load when the alternate engine data display is indicating FP FAIL. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

202

202. Which system operates independently from the primary hydraulic system: (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. Landing gear normal extension
B. Speed brake
C. Nose wheel steering
D. Wheel brakes

D. Wheel brakes

203

203. Cabin pressurization will bleed out through the ________ when the inflow switch is set to OFF. (Ref: 1T-6A-1)
A. canopy seal
B. ram air valve
C. cabin pressurization outflow valves
D. inflow valve

C. cabin pressurization outflow valves

204

204. The extra drag during an airstart attempt will cause a descent rate greater than 1350-1500 feet/min. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

205

205. Increase approach speed by _______ KIAS when landing with ice accumulation. (Ref: T.O. 1T- 6A-1)
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 0

B. 10

206

206. At idle power during aerobatics or spins, allowable transient oil pressure is _____ psi for a maximum of _____ seconds. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 15-90, 10
B. 15-40, 5
C. 40-90, 5
D. 40-130, 10

B. 15-40, 5

207

207. Maximum oil pressure during start is _____ psi. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 3
B. 45-65
C. 105
D. 200

D. 200

208

208. Oil temperatures up to _____ deg C are acceptable for ground operations at and below 20% torque: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 105
B. 110
C. 120
D. 132

B. 110

209

209. Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery voltage is below _____ volts. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 20
B. 23.5
C. 28
D. 22

B. 23.5

210

210. Maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence is ______ KIAS. The recommended airspeed in turbulent air is ______ KIAS. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 180, 160
B. 195, 180
C. 227, 200
D. 250, 230

B. 195, 180

211

211. Airstart attempts outside of the airstart envelope may be unsuccessful or result in engine overtemperature. The airstart envelope is defined as: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 125-200 KIAS for sea level to 15,000’
B. 135-200 KIAS for 15,001 to 20,000’
C. 125 KIAS minimum
D. A & B only
E. 120-250 KIAS for sea level to 31,000’

D. A & B only
125-200 KIAS for sea level to 15,000’
135-200 KIAS for 15,001 to 20,000’

212

212. All of the following are prohibited maneuvers except: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. Intentional inverted spins
B. Spins with the PMU OFF
C. Tail slides
D. Intentional spins with landing gear and flaps retracted

D. Intentional spins with landing gear and flaps retracted

213

213. For a clean aircraft, asymmetric (rolling Gs) acceleration limits are: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. +7.0 to -3.5
B. +2 to 0
C. +4.7 to -1.0
D. +4.7 to -3.5

C. +4.7 to -1.0

214

214. Canopy defog must be off for takeoff and landing. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. True
B. False

A. True

215

215. The maximum permissible crosswind for a wet runway is ____ knots. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

A. 10

216

216. Aerobatic operation is prohibited with indicated fuel quantities below _____ pounds per side (yellow arc on gage). (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 50
B. 150
C. 160
D. 370 +/- 30

B. 150

217

217. The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed _____ knots. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1) A. 17.5
B. 25
C. 40
D. 50

C. 40

218

218. Ejection seats may be operated with the canopy open without injuring the user. (Ref: T.O. 1T- 6A-1)
A. True
B. False

B. False

219

219. Normal oil pressure during steady state conditions is________ PSI. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 40-130
B. 90-200
C. 90-130
D. 90-120

D. 90-120

220

220. Spins above ________ feet pressure altitude are prohibited: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 24,000
B. 20,000
C. 22,000
D. 25,000

C. 22,000

221

221. Maximum ITT for starting is _____ degrees C (5 sec). (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 820
B. 750
C. 1000
D. 870

C. 1000

222

222. Allowable torque range with Np stabilized and PCL at IDLE: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 0 to 3%
B. 3 to 8%
C. 3 to 5%
C. 2 to 6%

B. 3 to 8%

223

223. Maximum tailwind component for takeoff is _____ knots. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 15
B. 10
C. 5
D. 20

B. 10

224

224. Operating maneuvering speed (Vo) is the speed above which full or abrupt control movements in one axis can result in structural damage to the aircraft. Vo is ___ KIAS. (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1)
A. 240
B. 236
C. 227
D. 206

C. 227

225

225. Aural tones are inaudible during engine start until the engine’s gas generator (N1) is above: (Ref: T.O. 1T-6A-1) A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

D. 50%