Everything Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

Describe the concept of Geogenesis in the origin of life.

A

Geogenesis is the idea that life first formed on Earth, proposed by Aleksandr Ivanovich Oparin, who suggested that organic molecules could be created from primitive atmospheric gases in the presence of strong energy sources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain the theory of Panspermia.

A

Panspermia is the theory that life first formed somewhere else in the universe and was transferred to Earth, suggesting that life did not originate on our planet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define Creationism in the context of the origin of life.

A

Creationism is the belief that a superior being or deity created life on Earth, contrasting with scientific theories of life’s origins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How did Aleksandr Ivanovich Oparin contribute to our understanding of the early Earth atmosphere?

A

Oparin proposed that the early Earth’s atmosphere was composed of gases like ammonia, hydrogen, methane, and water vapor, with no oxygen present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What energy sources did Oparin believe contributed to the formation of organic molecules?

A

Oparin believed that energy required for the formation of organic molecules came from lightning and rays from the sun.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the significance of the Miller and Urey experiment.

A

The Miller and Urey experiment demonstrated the hypothesis of the primordial soup by simulating early Earth conditions, showing that organic compounds, including amino acids, could form from simple gases under those conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What were the main gases used in the Miller and Urey experiment?

A

The main gases used in the Miller and Urey experiment were methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain the role of Sydney Fox in the study of the origin of life.

A

Sydney Fox conducted experiments to generate proteinoids, which are thought to be precursors to proteins and essential for the development of early life forms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are liposomes and their significance in the formation of cells?

A

Liposomes are pure liquid structures that can form spontaneously in liquid environments, potentially serving as precursors to cellular membranes in the origin of life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How did the cooling of primitive Earth contribute to the formation of life?

A

The cooling of primitive Earth allowed for the transition from inorganic chemicals to small organic molecules, which were essential for the development of life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of life is believed to have first evolved according to the content?

A

It is believed that life first evolved as RNA-based life, indicating that RNA played a crucial role in the early stages of biological development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe why DNA degrades more slowly than RNA.

A

DNA degrades more slowly than RNA because enzymes are less likely to act on it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Explain the concept of evolution.

A

Evolution is the progressive change in organisms over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List Darwin’s five components of evolution based on his observations.

A
  1. All individuals are unique 2. All organisms descend from a common ancestor 3. Gradualness of evolution 4. Multiplications of species (diversity) 5. Natural selection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How did Charles Lyell contribute to the understanding of evolution?

A

Charles Lyell introduced the idea of Uniformitarianism, suggesting that changes happening on Earth affect how organisms evolve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the principle of gradualism as proposed by James Hutton?

A

Gradualism is the idea that small changes happen over time, leading to the formation of new species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define catastrophism as explained by Georges Cuvier.

A

Catastrophism is the concept that species extinction provides the space for new species to emerge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does Thomas Malthus’s theory relate to evolution?

A

Thomas Malthus proposed the struggle for existence, stating that more offspring lead to increased competition for survival in the next generation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Contrast the views of Lamarck and Darwin on evolution.

A

Lamarck believed that acquired characteristics cause evolution, while Darwin focused on fitness, which is the ability to survive and pass on traits to the next generation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What role did Alfred Russel Wallace play in the development of evolutionary theory?

A

Alfred Russel Wallace drew the same conclusions as Darwin and sent him a manuscript, which led to both their works being presented to the Linnaean Society in 1858.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain the significance of mutations in the context of Darwin’s theory of evolution.

A

Darwin’s theory did not explain how organisms changed, but the discovery of mutations allowed for the development of the Modern Synthesis Theory of Evolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are fossils and how are they formed?

A

Fossils are the preserved remains of once-living organisms, formed when an organism is buried in sediment, calcium in bones mineralizes, and the surrounding sediment hardens to form rock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the geological time scale in relation to fossils.

A

The geological time scale indicates that lower rocks and sedimentary rocks are the ones that contain fossils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the significance of sedimentary rocks in paleontology?

A

Sedimentary rocks are significant because they do not break or melt, preserving fossils within them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Relative dating of fossils VS. absolute dating
Relative dating estimates the age of fossils based on their position in sedimentary rock layers, while absolute dating uses radioactive decay rates to determine a specific age.
26
Explain the concept of half-life in radioactive elements.
Half-life is the time required for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay into a stable form.
27
Define homologous structures in comparative morphology.
Homologous structures are body parts in different species that have similar underlying anatomy but may serve different functions, indicating a common ancestor.
28
How does comparative embryology support the theory of evolution?
Comparative embryology shows that embryos of different species exhibit similar features, suggesting they share a common ancestor.
29
What is the significance of comparing DNA in comparative molecular biology?
Comparing DNA and protein sequences helps determine the genetic relationships and evolutionary history between different organisms.
30
Describe vestigial structures and their evolutionary implications.
Vestigial structures are body parts that have lost their original function through evolution, indicating a shared ancestry among species.
31
Explain the concept of convergent evolution.
Convergent evolution occurs when unrelated species develop similar traits or structures due to adapting to similar environments.
32
What are analogous structures and how do they differ from homologous structures?
Analogous structures are features that serve similar functions in different species but do not share a common anatomical origin, unlike homologous structures.
33
Define parallel evolution and its significance in evolutionary biology.
Parallel evolution refers to the process where two or more species evolve similar traits independently after diverging from a common ancestor.
34
How does coevolution occur between species?
Coevolution occurs when two or more species influence each other's evolution through reciprocal adaptations, often in response to environmental changes.
35
Describe divergent evolution and its effects on species.
Divergent evolution happens when species evolve different traits due to varying environmental pressures, leading to increased differences despite common ancestry.
36
What is adaptive radiation and how does it occur?
Adaptive radiation is the rapid evolution of multiple species from a common ancestor, often in response to new environmental opportunities.
37
Describe microevolution.
Microevolution refers to the change in allele frequencies that occur over time in a population due to factors such as mutations, selection (both artificial and natural), gene flow, and genetic drift.
38
Explain macroevolution.
Macroevolution is evolution on a grand scale, involving stability, change, lineage arising, and extension of species over long periods of time, typically billions of years.
39
Define a population in the context of evolution.
A population consists of organisms of the same species that inhabit a given area, and it is the population that evolves, not individual organisms.
40
How does mutation contribute to genetic variation?
Mutation introduces changes in a DNA sequence, which can occur due to errors in replication or repair, leading to genetic variation within a population.
41
What is genetic drift and its impact on populations?
Genetic drift is a random change in gene frequencies of a population from generation to generation, which can decrease genetic variation within that population.
42
Describe the bottleneck effect in genetic drift.
The bottleneck effect occurs when a large, diverse population is drastically reduced in size, leading to a few individuals reproducing and resulting in little genetic variation.
43
Explain the founder effect.
The founder effect happens when a new colony is started by a few members of the original population, leading to reduced genetic variation and a non-random sample of genes from the original population.
44
What role does migration play in evolution?
Migration involves the movement of a population, enabling gene flow, which is the transfer of genes from one population to another.
45
Differentiate between emigration and immigration.
Emigration refers to individuals leaving a population, which decreases genetic variation, while immigration refers to individuals joining a population, which increases genetic variation.
46
How does natural selection influence evolution?
Natural selection is a process where individuals with traits that enhance survival and reproduction are more likely to pass those traits on to the next generation.
47
Describe the three conditions necessary for natural selection to occur.
Variation must exist within the population, these variations must lead to differences in reproductive success, and the variations must be genetically transmitted to the next generation.
48
Explain the concept of directional natural selection.
Directional natural selection favors one extreme allele over another, such as favoring the dark allele (FF) over the light allele (ff).
49
Define disruptive selection in the context of natural selection.
Disruptive selection favors both extreme phenotypes in a population, such as FF and ff, while not favoring the intermediate phenotype (Ff).
50
What is stabilizing selection and how does it affect a population?
Stabilizing selection maintains the status quo in a population, favoring the average phenotype and resulting in little to no change in the population's genetic makeup.
51
How is speciation defined in biological terms?
Speciation is a lineage-splitting event that produces two or more separate species.
52
What is a species
A species is a group of individuals that actually or potentially interbreed in nature, sharing the biggest gene pool.
53
What is a gene pool?
A gene pool is the complete set of genetic information within a population, including both recessive and dominant genes.
54
Explain geographic isolation and its role in speciation.
Geographic isolation, or allopatric speciation, occurs when a physical barrier, such as a river, separates a population, preventing gene flow and leading to speciation.
55
What is reproductive isolation?
Reproductive isolation occurs due to intrinsic factors within an organism, preventing different species from interbreeding.
56
Describe pre-zygotic isolation and its types.
Pre-zygotic isolation occurs before gametes meet and includes ecological isolation, temporal isolation, behavioral isolation, mechanical isolation, and gametic isolation.
57
How does ecological isolation prevent species from interbreeding?
Ecological isolation occurs when two species occupy different habitats, preventing them from meeting and mating, such as one beetle living in trees and another not.
58
Explain temporal isolation and provide an example.
Temporal isolation occurs when species breed at different times, such as one species being nocturnal and the other diurnal, preventing them from mating.
59
What is behavioral isolation in the context of reproductive isolation?
Behavioral isolation occurs when organisms do not mate because they are not attracted to each other, often due to differences in mating rituals.
60
Define mechanical isolation and its significance in speciation.
Mechanical isolation occurs when two species are physically incompatible for mating, preventing successful reproduction even if they are attracted to each other.
61
What is gametic isolation and how does it affect fertilization?
Gametic isolation occurs when the egg and sperm do not fuse properly, preventing the formation of a viable embryo.
62
Describe post-zygotic isolation and its consequences.
Post-zygotic isolation occurs after fertilization and includes hybrid inviability, where the zygote develops abnormally and the hybrid is aborted, and hybrid sterility, where hybrids are unable to reproduce.
63
What is hybrid inviability?
Hybrid inviability is a post-zygotic isolation mechanism where the development of the zygote proceeds abnormally, leading to the abortion of the hybrid.
64
Explain hybrid sterility and its implications for species.
Hybrid sterility is a post-zygotic isolation mechanism where hybrids are produced but are unable to reproduce, thus preventing gene flow between the parent species.