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Zoology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Looking at the body appearance e.x. Examinations

A

Inspection

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2
Q

Structure with hands e.x. Taking pulse and swollen lymph nodes

A

Palpation

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3
Q

Listening to natural sounds e.x. Heart beat and lungs

A

Auscultation

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4
Q

Taps body for abnormal resistance and listens for sounds e.x. Pockets of fluid,air,and scar tissue

A

Percussion

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5
Q

What is cadaver dissection?

A

Also known as anatomizing, it reveals the relationship between cutting and separating tissues.

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6
Q

The study of more than one species in order to examine structural similarities and differences to analyze evolutionary trends

A

Comparative anatomy

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7
Q

Anatomy is the study of

A

Form

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8
Q

Opening the body to see what is wrong e.x. Common to diagnose disorders

A

Exploratory surgery

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9
Q

Methods of viewing the body without surgery e.x. Radiology

A

Medical imaging

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10
Q

Can be seen with the naked eye without magnification

A

Gross anatomy

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11
Q

Study of structure and function of individual cells

A

Cytology

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12
Q

The study of microscopic structure of tissues

A

Histology (microscopic anatomy)

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13
Q

Fine detailed, molecular level with an electron microscope

A

Ultrastructure

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14
Q

Examine tissues for signs of disease

A

Histopathology

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15
Q

Physiology is the study of

A

Function

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16
Q

Sub-disciplines of physiology

A

Neuro,endocrine, and patho (disease)

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17
Q

What has limitations on human experimentation and is the basis for new drug developments and medical procedures?

A

Comparative physiology. We study different species to learn about bodily functions, e.x. Animal surgery and drug trials

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18
Q

Father of medicine,Hippocratic oath, and urged people to not link illness to gods or demons but natural occurrence

A

Hippocrates

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19
Q

Diseases and natural events could be caused by the supernatural (theologi) or natural (phsysici).

Complex structure are built from simple components

A

Aristotle

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20
Q

Wrote the first medical textbook

Cadaver dissections we’re banned so animals were used,hence he guessed the human anatomy

Science is a method of discovery not facts from faith

Advised followed to trust their own observations as he could be unreliable/wrong

A

Galen

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21
Q

1st to coin the term anatomy

Dissected aborted fetuses

Later only dissected animals because of the fear of the gods

A

Diocles of Carystus

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22
Q

Great anatomist

Vivisections on prisoners

A

Herophilus

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23
Q

Wrote 10 influential medical texts and became a physician to Egyptian sultan Saladin

A

Maimonides

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24
Q

“Galen of Islam”; combined Galen and Aristotle findings with own findings.

Wrote “Canon of Medicine” which was used in medical schools for some time

A

Avicenna

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25
Q

How did medicine change in the Middle Ages in Europe?

A

Science became severely repressed in Christian cultures,whereas in Jewish and Muslim faith they were free of inquiry.

Medicine was taught primarily as dogmatic commentary on Galen and Aristotle

There were crude medical illustrations instead of realistic depictions

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26
Q

What was Andreas Vesalius’ contribution?

A

He is the father of anatomy. He was also the first to preform own dissections than a barber-surgeon. He also was the first to publish accurate anatomical drawings.

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27
Q

William Harvey created

A

Experimental physiology and studies blood circulation, realizing that the blood flows from the heart and returns to it. He also worked with Michael Servetus.

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28
Q

Robert Hooke made _______ and published the first comprehensive book of microscopy called Micrographia.

A

Improvements to the compound scope that magnified to 30x. He also invented the specimen stage,illuminate,coarse, and fine focus controls.He also was the first to see and name ‘cells’.

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29
Q

Antony Van Leeuwenhoek invented ______ and published his findings of blood,lake water,sperm, and bacteria from teeth.

A

A simple (single-lens) microscope with great magnification to look at fabrics (200x).

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30
Q

Joh Hunter sought out _____

A

An Irish giant named Byrnes

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31
Q

What was the anatomy act of 1832?

A

It forbade body snatching for anatomical specimens.

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32
Q

__________ & __________ greatly improved compound microscopes and added the condenser and superior optics to eliminate blurry edges (spherical aberration) and rainbow distortions (chromatic aberration)

A

Carol Zeiss & Ernst Abbe

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33
Q

They concluded that “all organisms were composed of cells” and first proposed Cell Theory as all functions of the body are interpreted as effects of cellular activity.

A

Mathias Schlesinger & Theodor Schwann (Schwann cell)

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34
Q

Frances Bacon and Rene Descartes invented

A

Habits of scientific thought and sought systematic way of seeking simulators, differences, and trends in nature + drawing drawings useful generalizations from observable facts (Scientific Method)

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35
Q

Frances Bacon coined

A

Inductive reasoning as it is a way of making numerous observations until one becomes confident in generalizing and deducting with own knowledge.
- reliable observations, tested & confirmed repeatedly,and not falsified by creditable observations.
- have to have proof without a reasonable doubt

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36
Q

A more physiological knowledge is gained with

A

Hypothetical-Deductive Methods as an investigator asks a question and formulated a hypothesis, a good hypothesis consists of: previous research/knowledge, can be testable and falsifiable with evidence

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37
Q

The theory of natural selection was coined by Charles Darwin and discusses what?

A

It discusses “our origin,our nature, and place in the universe” by increasing our understanding of human form and function.

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38
Q

Selection pressures an hereditary advantage are

A

Natural selection

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39
Q

Change in genetic composition or population of organisms, for example, development of bacteria resistance to antibiotics of new strands of AIDS.

A

Evolution

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40
Q

The earliest primates were

A

Squirrel sized, arboreal, insect-eating African mammals thy moved to trees for safety,food supply and lack of competition.

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41
Q

What are the adaptations for arboreal (treetop) life style?

A

Mobile shoulders (Bette movement among branches),opposable thumbs (grasping), forward facing eyes/stereoscopic vision (depth perception to watch prey),color vision, and larger brains + good memory (remembered food sources and improved social organization)

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42
Q

Standing and walking on two legs which makes it easier to spot predators, carry food or infants is ___________

A

Bipedalism

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43
Q

What are some adaptations from the early primates?

A

Skeletal and muscular modification along with increased brain volume size and family/social changes.

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44
Q

The oldest bipedal primate

A

Australopithecus (A is the beginning of the alphabet)

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45
Q

Taller,larger brain volume, probable speech and tool making were the

A

Homo-genus (geniuses b/c tools and speech)

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46
Q

They migrated from Africa to parts of Asia

A

Homo-erectus (erect means upright and they had to walk upright to these places)

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47
Q

Sole surviving hominid species are the

A

Homo sapiens which originated in Africa

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48
Q

Theory that a large complex system such as the human body can be understood by studying its simpler components. This was proposed by Aristotle and is a productive approach.

A

Reductionism

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49
Q

“Emergent properties” of the whole organism that cannot be predicted from separate parts aka human are more than the sum of their parts

A

Holism

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50
Q

If a hormone cannot enter a cell, it may bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane and trigger the formation of ___ within the cell.

A

cAMP

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51
Q

When a cell takes something in by endocytosis, part of the plasma membrane is removed. The cell does not become smaller because

A

Golgi vesicles fuse with the membrane

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52
Q

If a cell doubled in diameter, it would have twice as much cytoplasm to maintain.

A

False

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53
Q

Insulin is taken up by cells lining capillaries (endothelial cells) and transported across the other side where it is released to the tissues. This transport, which captures on one side and releases on the other, is called

A

Transcytosis

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54
Q

All of the following processes allow for transport of materials across the cell membrane except

A

Pinocytosis

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55
Q

Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubule have a “brush border” composed of ___, which are cell extensions that increase surface area.

A

Mircovilli

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56
Q

In the capillaries, blood pressure forces water, salts, nutrients, and other solutes through pores in cell membranes and gaps between cells. Materials that are too large will not be able to pass easily across the capillary wall. This process that forces selected materials across the wall of a capillary is called

A

Filtration

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57
Q

The clear, structureless gel in a cell is its

A

cytosol

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58
Q

The sodium potassium pump is

A

A transmembrance protein

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59
Q

Which of the following processes could only occur in the plasma membrane of a living cell?

A

Active transport

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60
Q

Cells specialized for absorption of matter from the ECF are likely to show an abundance of

A

Microvilli

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61
Q

Aquaporins are transmembrance proteins that promote

A

Osmosis

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62
Q

Membrane carriers resemble enzymes except for the fact that carriers

A

Do not chemically change their ligands

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63
Q

The cotransport of glucose derives energy from

A

The sodium concentration gradient

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64
Q

The function of cAMP in a cell is

A

To activate kinases

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65
Q

Most celluar membranes are made by

A

Replication of existing membranes

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66
Q

The force exerted on a membrane by water is called

A

Hydrostatic pressure

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67
Q

What is true about recessive genes?

A

Their expression is masked in the presence of a dominant allele and only occur when both homologous chromosomes appear

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68
Q

During the mitotic phase called ___________ , chromosomes condense, spindle fibers form, the nuclear envelope disappears and centrioles migrate to the poles.

A

Prophase

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69
Q

Which term refers to a type of inheritance in which three or more alleles exist for the same gene?

A

Multiple Allele Inheritance

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70
Q

Cells start dividing when they snugly contact neighboring cells or when growth factors are withdrawn.

A

False

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71
Q

Eye color and skin color are traits determined by genes at multiple loci. They are examples of which type of inheritance?

A

Polygenic Inheritance

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72
Q

Which term means the transmission of genetic characteristics from parent to offspring?

A

Heredity

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73
Q

One member of each ____________ pair of chromosomes is inherited from the individual’s mother and the other from the father.

A

Homologous

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74
Q

ABO blood type is a trait that demonstrates which type of inheritance?

A

Multiple Allele

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75
Q

If the mother is a carrier for hemophilia (X-linked trait) but the father does not have this condition, what is the chance that their son will have the disease?

A

50%

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76
Q

Which type of inheritance is a phenomenon in which two or more genes contribute to a single phenotypic trait?

A

Polygenetic

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77
Q

Dominant alleles are always more common in the gene pool than recessive alleles.

A

False

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78
Q

A genotype does not inevitably produce a phenotype. Which term refers to the percentage of a population with a given genotype that actually exhibits a predicted phenotype.

A

Penetrance

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79
Q

Epigenetic Effects can cause

A

Cancer,obesity, and make a stem cell become a liver cell

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80
Q

Males are more likely than females to inherit a genetic disease if the gene for it is which of the following?

A

X-Linked

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81
Q

What is true regarding O-type blood?

A

It is caused by the recessive allele and individuals with this are homozygous for this trait

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82
Q

Which of the following occurs as the ribosome shifts down the mRNA by a distance of three nucleotides?

A

The tRNA that was in the P site moves into the E site.

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83
Q

What happens when a stop codon is encountered in the mRNA?

A

The ribosomal complex falls apart and the protein is released into the cell.

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84
Q

Which of the following statements about DNA replication is TRUE?

A

The leading strand is replicated continuously, while the lagging strand is replicated discontinuously.

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85
Q

Which glands would require the highest rate of mitosis?

A

Holocrine because cells break down and and there would be continously replacing.

86
Q

Cilia are most likely to be seen on ___ epithelium.

A

pseudostratified

87
Q

A tissue specialized for energy storage and thermal insulation is

A

adipose tissue

88
Q

A decrease in the size of a tissue or organ is

A

atrophy

89
Q

The internal lining of the esophagus and adult vagina is

A

a stratified squamous epithelium

90
Q

Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and

A

neurogila

91
Q

Which of the following tissues is avascular (lack of blood vessels) ?

A

epithelial and cartilage

92
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four primary classes of tissue?

A

cartilage tissue

93
Q

Which of the following are branched?

A

reticular fibers

94
Q

The gel of the extracellular matrix is composed mostly of water and

A

proteoglycans

95
Q

The only type of cell seen in a tendon is

A

tendon

96
Q

The shape of a person’s external ear is due mainly to

A

elastic cartilage

97
Q

The secretory cells of a gland are supported by a connective tissue framework called the

A

stroma

98
Q

Glands that produce a thick, sticky secretion are called ___ glands.

A

mucous

99
Q

___ are single mucus-secreting cells found in the epithelia of many mucous membranes.

A

goblet cells

100
Q

A tissue most like the endothelium that lines the blood vessels is

A

mesothelium

101
Q

The epithelium that lines the stomach and intestines is

A

simple columnar

102
Q

In ___, cells and matrix are arranged in concentric layers around a central canal that contains blood vessels.

A

osseous (bone) tissue

103
Q

Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

A

muscle

104
Q

A/an ___ is a small sac of gland cells arranged around a space into which they secrete their product.

A

acinus

105
Q

All glands that release their products by way of ducts, rather than directly into the bloodstream, are called ___ glands.

A

exocrine

106
Q

A ___ is a relatively impenetrable attachment between two epithelial cells formed by membrane proteins that interlock somewhat like a zipper.

A

tight junction

107
Q

In all mucous membranes, an epithelium rests on a connective tissue layer called

A

the lamina propria

108
Q

Stem cells travel to and proliferate downward in this phase of the hair cycle:

A

anagen

109
Q

The only type of muscle with multinucleated fibers is

A

skeletal muscle

110
Q

Tendons and ligaments are made predominantly of the protein

A

collagen

111
Q

Which type of epithelium is best suited for rapid filtration?

A

simple squamous

112
Q

Tissue gel gets its viscous consistency from its

A

glycosaminoglycans

113
Q

The nonliving material surrounding cells is called

A

matrix

114
Q

The germ layer that gives rise to mucous membranes of the digestive and respiratory tracts is called

A

endoderm

115
Q

An individual was born with Marfan’s syndrome, which is a hereditary defect on chromosome 15. Symptoms of this disease include unusually tall stature, long limbs, and abnormal spinal curvature. Which germ layer is most likely affected by this hereditary disease?

A

mesoderm

116
Q

This primary germ layer is the middle layer called _____ and gives rise to a gelatinous material called ____ that gives rise to the different types of connective tissue such as bone, muscle, and blood.

A

mesoderm; mesenchyme

117
Q

This tissue regulates what enters and what leaves the body.

A

epitheal

118
Q

A tissue containing ~20 layers of flat cells is called

A

stratified squamous

119
Q

The epithelium lining the trachea is capable of

A

producing mucus and moving material across its surface

120
Q

The epithelium that would most likely be found lining the esophagus and vagina is

A

nonkeratinized stratified squamous

121
Q

Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in _____ and its function is _____.

A

kidney tubules; absorption

122
Q

This cell is large and flat and produces the fibers and ground substance of connective tissue.

A

fibroblasts

123
Q

A patient has an abnormally high concentration of basophils in his blood and mast cells in the surrounding connective tissue. The other white blood cell counts were normal. The patient most likely has

A

an allergy

124
Q

The most common fiber in connective tissue is

A

collagen

125
Q

If you were unable to produce the protein elastin that makes up elastic fibers, you would have great difficulty

A

breathing

126
Q

Glycosaminoglycan (GAG) is a long polysaccharide composed of amino sugars and uronic acid. GAGs, such as hyaluronic acid, heparin, and chondroitin sulfate, are negatively charged. GAGs help give the ground substance some of its qualities such as

A

holding water and maintaining electrolyte balance

127
Q

The connective tissue that forms the framework of organs and tissue such as lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus is composed primarily of fibroblasts and

A

reticular fibers

128
Q

Which one of the following does not have an abundance of collagen fibers?

A

cartilage of the external ear

129
Q

Adipose tissue in adults is primarily white fat, but infants and children also have brown fat. Infants and children have a need for brown fat because they

A

have a large surface area to volume ratio

130
Q

Which of the following tissues is found in the dermis of the skin?

A

dense irregular

131
Q

Which one of the following is not made of hyaline cartilage?

A

intervertebral disc

132
Q

The ground substance of blood is called

A

plasma

133
Q

The electrical charge difference across plasma membranes of all cells is called the

A

membrane potential

134
Q

Which two muscle types form sphincters?

A

skeletal and smooth

135
Q

Atoms forming molecules and compounds

A

Chemical

136
Q

Molecules combine to form structural and functional components of cells

A

Cellular

137
Q

Groups of similar cells doing a specific function

A

Tissue

138
Q

Different tissues working together that have a specific function and shape

A

Organ

139
Q

Groups of tissue and organs that have a similar function

A

System

140
Q

An individual

A

Organism

141
Q

Structures in a cell that has individual functions

A

Organelle

142
Q

Make up organelles and cellular compounds

A

Molecules

143
Q

Left-right reversal organ replacement

A

Situs inversus

144
Q

Sum of all chemical processes in the body

A

Metabolism

145
Q

The break down on molecules

A

Catabolism

146
Q

Synthesis of larger molecules from smaller ones

A

Anabolism

147
Q

Argued that constant internal conditions regardless of external

A

Claude Bernard

148
Q

Coined homeostasis, the body fluctuates (dynamic equilibrium) within a limited range around a set point; negative feedback keeps variable close to set point. It

A

Walter Cannon

149
Q

What systems control homeostasis?

A

Endocrine and nervous system

150
Q

What happens when stress disrupts balance?

A

There is changes in heart rate (increases),changes in Bp(increases) and insulin lowers which spikes uptake and glycogen production to glucose in the liver

151
Q

Vasodilation

A

Widening of blood vessels,leads to an increase in blood flow —> flushing

152
Q

Output is intensified by stress,usually a deadly response, increase metabolic and heat production

A

Positive feedback

153
Q

Control center that processes sensory information,makes a decision,and directs the response

A

Integrating center

154
Q

Carries out the final corrective action to restore homeostasis

A

Effector

155
Q

A with T; G with C is what law?

A

he law of complementary base pairings

156
Q

Cytosine and Thymine have ________ carbon-nitrogen ring(s) and is classified as pyrimidines

A

a single

157
Q

Adenine and Guanine have _________ carbon-nitrogen ring(s) and are classified as purines

A

Double

158
Q

A filamentous material in the interphase nucleus, composed of DNA and associated proteins

A

Chromatin

159
Q

A complex of DNA and protein that carries the genetic material of a cell’s nucleus

A

Chromosome

160
Q

[T/F] When a cell is ready to divide it makes an exact coy of its DNA?

A

True

161
Q

A protein plaque on each side of the centromere

A

Kinetochore

162
Q

Two genetically identical rodlike sister chromatids joined together at a pinched spot called the

A

Centromere

163
Q

RNA’s site of action is in the

A

Cytoplasm

164
Q

A sequence of 3 nucleotides for 1 amino acid is called a

A

base triplet

165
Q

A 3 sequence in mRNA is called a

A

codon

166
Q

UAG,UGA, and UAA are examples of

A

stop codons

167
Q

DNA —> mRNA —–> Protein

A

Protein Synthesis

168
Q

DNA to mRNA is

A

transcription

169
Q

mRNA to protein is

A

translation

170
Q

[T/F] The DNA is too large to leave the nucleus to go to the cytoplasm, therefore, it makes mRNA so that it can migrate to the cytoplasm

A

True

171
Q

What does transcription mean?

A

Coying genetic instructions from DNA to RNA

172
Q

RNA Polymerase does what?

A

It is an enzyme that binds to DNA and assembles RNA; it opens the DNA to read the bases to correspond with RNA’s and rewinds the helix behind it.

Another RNA polymerase follows behind; several polymerases may transcribe a gene at once and numerous copies of RNA are made.

173
Q

What is needed in order for the polymerase to connect to the promoter?

A

Transcription factors, coactivators and activators

174
Q

What is pre-mRNA?

A

An “immature form” of RNA produced by transcription contains segments called exons that will be translated into proteins later on.

175
Q

What are introns?

A

Segments that are removed before translation

176
Q

Enzymes ________ introns and ____ the exons together, which leaves the nucleus.

A

Cut;Spliced

Introns removed while still in the nucleus and exons are exported out of the nucleus

177
Q

What is alternative splicing?

A

One gene can code for more than one protein

178
Q

What is translation?

A

Converts the language of the nucleotides into the language of the amino acids

179
Q

Translation is carried out by

A

mRNA and tRNA

180
Q

mRNA in translation:

A

Carried the genetic code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. During its synthesis in the nucleus, mRNA acquires a protein cap that acts like a passport, permitting it to pass through the nuclear pore into the cytosol. The cap also acts as a recognition site that tells ribosomes where to begin translation

181
Q

tRNA in translation:

A

Its job is to bind a free amino acid in the cytosol and deliver it to the ribosome to be added to a protein chain. It also has an anticodon
A series of 3 nucleotides complementary to a specific codon of mRNA.

The codon AUG is UAC (the anticodon).
The first tRNA to bind to a ribosome at the start of translation is the initiator tRNA, which always has UAC and carries methionine

182
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

“Reading machines”. Inactive ribosomes occur in either the small subunit or large subunit

183
Q

3 binding sites:

A

A site (Accept a new amino acid); P site (carries the growing protein); E site (Exit)

184
Q

Initiation

A

A small ribosomal subunit binds to a leader sequence of bases on the mRNA near the cap, then slides unit it recognizes the start codon AUD. an initiator tRNA with the anticodon UAC pairs with the start and settles into the P site of the ribosomes (the middle). The assembled ribosome embraces the mRNA to begin sliding and reading its bases. Has methionine (Met)

185
Q

Elongation

A

the next tRNA arrives that carries another amino acid; it binds to the A site and its anticodon pairs with the second codon of mRNA- GCU. It creates a peptide bond between Met and Ala (alanine) then transfers it to threonine (Thr) to create another peptide bond. Creates a larger and larger protein

186
Q

Termination

A

Ribosome reaches stop codon it’s A site binds a protein called a releasing factor instead of tRNA. The release factor causes the finished protein to break away from the ribosome. The ribosome dissociates and is reassembled on the same mRNA to repeat the process and make another copy.

187
Q

Making proteins for packaging/export

A

If a protein is to be packaged into a lysosome or secreted from the cell, the ribosome docks on the rough ER to be modified into a transport vesicle.

188
Q

Cluster of ribosomes, all translating the same mRNA

A

Polyribosome

189
Q

Guides new proteins in folding into the proper shape and helps prevent improper use

A

Chaperone Proteins;

Stress proteins and heat shock, help damaged proteins fold back into their correct functional shape

190
Q

Are genes turned on and off when needed or not?

A

Yes, for example, prolactin stimulates cells of mammary glands to produce breast milk; contains a protein called casein.

Prolactin binds to a receptor that triggers the activation of a regulatory protein (transcription activator). The regulatory protein binds to the DNA near the casein gene and enables RNA polymerase to bind to the gene and transcribe it = producing the mRNA for casein. Casein mRNA moves to be translated by ribosomes in the rough ER; the golgi packages casein into secretory vesicles and the vesicles release the casein by exocytosis and become part of breast milk.

191
Q

The chromosomes become visible as paired chromatids and the nuclear envelope disappears. Spindle fibers.

A

Prophase

192
Q

Chromosomes are aligned at the equator and waits for a signal to stimulate them to split in two at the centromere. Spindle fibers create a lemon shaped array called a mitotic spindle.

A

Metaphase

193
Q

Activation of an enzyme that cleaves the two sister chromatids from each other at the centrone. Each chromatid is now a single stranded daughter chromosome. One daughter migrates from each pole and the fiber is “chewed up” .

A

Anaphase

194
Q

Daughter chromosomes cluster on each side of the cell. The mitotic spindle breaks up and vanishes, each new nucleus forms nucleoli, indicating it has already begun making RNA and is preparing for protein synthesis.

A

Telophase

195
Q

Division of the cytoplasm into two cells; cleavage furrow

A

Cytokinesis

196
Q

Another polymerase moves away from the replication fork and copies only a short segment of DNA at a time, and the segments are later joined together by another enzyme called

A

DNA ligase

197
Q

The old parental DNA and the two new daughter DNA

A

Semiconservation replication

198
Q

What happens in the G1 phase?

A

An interval between cell division and DNA replication. A cell synthesizes proteins, grows, and carries out its preordained tasks for the body. This phase accumulates the materials needed to replicate DNA

199
Q

What happens in the S phase?

A

It is the synthesis phase. A cell makes a duplicate copy of its centrioles and nuclear DNA. This point semiconservative replication occurs and two identical sets of DNA are divided between daughter cells at the next cell division.

200
Q

What occurs in the G2 phase?

A

A cell exhibits growth, makes more organelles, finishes replicating its centrioles and synthesizes enzymes. This phase also checks DNA replication and corrects any errors.

201
Q

G1,S, and G2 are

A

Interphase; the length of the cell cycle varies from tye of cell

201
Q

G1,S, and G2 are

A

Interphase; the length of the cell cycle varies from tye of cell

202
Q

G1,S, and G2 are

A

Interphase; the length of the cell cycle varies from tye of cell

203
Q

What is G0 phase?

A

An inability to stop cycling and enter this phase is characteristic of cancer

204
Q

What is M Phase?

A

Mitotic phase; a cell replicates its nucleus and pinches in two forms of daughter cells

205
Q

A chemical messenger that stimulates mitosis and differentiation of target cells that have receptors for it; important in such processes as fetal development, tissue maintenance and repair, and hematopoiesis; sometimes a contributing factor in cancer.

A

Growth factors

206
Q

The cessation of cell division in response to contact with other cells

A

Contact inhibition

207
Q

Regulation of cell division includes

A

growth factors contact inhibition, checkpoints and cyclin

208
Q

Cylin

A

control replication of DNA and centrioles in the S phase; the condensation of chromosomes, breakdown of the nuclear envelope, formation of the mitotic single, and attachment of chromosomes to the single in prophase; and splitting of the centromere and separation of the sister chromatids at anaphase

209
Q

More forms of the same element contain equal numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei, and hence differ in relative atomic mass but not in chemical properties;

A

Isotope

210
Q

Unstable isotopes

A

radioisotopes

211
Q

High-energy electromagnetic rays eject electrons from atoms or molecules and convert them to ions, frequently causing cellular damage; for example, X-rays and gamma rays.

A

ionizing radiation

Zoology (5 decks)

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