Exam 1 Flashcards Preview

Spinal > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Exam 1 Deck (268)
Loading flashcards...
1
Q

What are the 4 basic tissues of the human body?

A

Epithelial, muscle, neural, & connective tissue

2
Q

What is osteology?

A

The study of bone

3
Q

What are the 3 primary cell types of bone?

A

Osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts

4
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblasts - build/form bone
Osteocytes - maintain or nurture bone
Osteoclasts - remodel bone

5
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

6
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

7
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

Collagen type I

8
Q

What are the primary constituents of the bone mineral?

A

Calcium, phosphate, citrate, & carbonate ions

9
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

10
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

Sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium & radium

11
Q

What is Wolff’s law as it pertains to bone?

A

Living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

12
Q

What are the 3 responses of bone that allow it to be described as “living”?

A

It has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors, and to age

13
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

Mesenchyme or cartilage

14
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

15
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

From the second to third month in utero

16
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

From the second to fifth month in utero

17
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

Chondrocranium

18
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

The clavicle

19
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

Sexual dimorphism, ontogenetic variation, geographic/population based variation, and idiosyncratic variation

20
Q

What are the six more commonly used classification of normal bone?

A

Long bone, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus/ pneumatic bones, and sesamoid bone

21
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

Heterotopic bone

22
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

Accessory bone

23
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

The bone develops within a tendon

24
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

Patella and Pisiform

25
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

Calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

26
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

Para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

27
Q

What are the 4 basic surface feature categories?

A

Elevations, depressions, tunnels/passageways, and facets

28
Q

When do the surface features of bone become prominent?

A

During and after puberty

29
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

Linear, rounded, and sharp

30
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

The line, ridge and crest

31
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

Tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber/tuberosity and malleolus

32
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

Spine and process

33
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

Linear and rounded depressions

34
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

Notch/incisures, groove, and sulcus

35
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

The fovea and fossa

36
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

Ostium/orifice and hiatus

37
Q

What are the names given to osseous Ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

Foramen/canal

38
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

An ostium passing completely through a thing region of bone

39
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

An ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

40
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

Meatus

41
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

An irregular slit-like/crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

42
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

Flat facets and rounded facets

43
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

Articular heads and articular condyles

44
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

The skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

45
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

Cranium

46
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

The clavaria or calva

47
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

The neurocranium, the facial skeleton and the auditory ossicles

48
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

49
Q

What bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?

A

The frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid

50
Q

How many bones for the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

51
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton?

A

14 bones

52
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

The spine

53
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

54
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1 bone

55
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

The manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphiod process

56
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pairs (24 total ribs)

57
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

Syndoesmology

58
Q

What are the 3 histological classification’s of joints?

A

Fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial fluid

59
Q

The ligamentous sacrto-iliac joints are examples of which joint classification?

A

Syndesmosis

60
Q

What are examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis) syncondrosis?

A

Costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

61
Q

Which cartilage joint classification would be considered secondary?

A

(Amphiarthrosis) symphysis

62
Q

What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

Limited motion, median plan location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

63
Q

Which examples of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

Symphysis menti

64
Q

What are the 4 consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

Articular/fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

65
Q

What are the characteristics of the type I articular receptors?

A

Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint
“at rest”

66
Q

What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

Located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

67
Q

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A

Present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

68
Q

What is the function of type IV articular receptors?

A

Nociceptive, they monitor pain

69
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

Accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

70
Q

What are the 3 modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A
  1. Synovial villi
  2. Articular fat pads/ Haversian glands
  3. Synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
71
Q

Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?

A

Lumbar zygapophyses

72
Q

Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joints examples?

A

Temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular and radio-ulnar joints

73
Q

Synovial menisci are a feature of what join examples?

A

Femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses

74
Q

What are the specific function s of type A synovial cells?

A

Phagocytic

75
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

Secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

76
Q

Which collage fiber type predominates in articular cartilage?

A

Type II

77
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

Form a network for water retention

78
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

Cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

79
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

Cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

80
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

Weeping theory

81
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication imp[lies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

Boosted theory

82
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies an ADsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?

A

Boundary theory

83
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

Yellowish-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

84
Q

Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

Hyualuronate

85
Q

Which substance in synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

Lubricin

86
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

Within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus

87
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?

A

Plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

88
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

Hinge (diarthrosis gingylmus) and Pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

89
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(Diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

90
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?

A

Ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid), are classification given to the same type of joint

91
Q

What are the examples of synovial pivot joints?

A

Median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

92
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

Temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

93
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

Radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

94
Q

What are examples of synovial saddle joints?

A

Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

95
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis enarthrosis joints?

A

Femur - acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip

Humerus - glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

96
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

97
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

98
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

24 presacral segments (The cervical, thoracic and lumbar)

99
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

The ant bear and three-toed sloth

100
Q

which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

The manatee and two-toed sloth

101
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

Region of the neck

102
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

Breast plate/chest; armor bearing region of the torso

103
Q

What other term is often to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

The dorsal segments (the dorsals)

104
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

The loin; region between rib and hip

105
Q

What does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

The holy bone/holy region

106
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

A cuckoo birds’ bill/beak

107
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

About 70 cm or 28 in

108
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

About 60 cm or 25 in

109
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

About 3 inches

110
Q

What is the length of a male cervical region?

A

About 12 cm or 5 in

111
Q

What is the length of a male thoracic region?

A

About 28 cm or 11 in

112
Q

What is the length of a male lumbar region?

A

About 18 cm or 7 in

113
Q

What is the length of a male sacrum?

A

About 12 cm or 5 in

114
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine? Total?

A

About 58 cm or 23 in

115
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

Ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

116
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the articular surface

117
Q

What is specifically responsible for the shape and position of the human frame?

A

Comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc

118
Q

What organ(s) is/are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

The eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

119
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

Notochord

120
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

Paraxial mesoderm

121
Q

Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.

A

Sclerotome, myotome and dermatome

122
Q

What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

Membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal and osseous

123
Q

Migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

The perichordal blastema

124
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what process?

A

Neural processes and costal processes

125
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

Intersegmental artery

126
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?

A

The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

127
Q

The inrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what development feature?

A

The perichordal disc

128
Q

The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perchordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?

A

The vertebral blastema

129
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

The segmental artery

130
Q

When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?

A

Beginning of the 6th embryonic week

131
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

Chondrification

132
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

6…… 2 - for centrum, 2 - for neural arches, 2 - for each transverse process

133
Q

What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra?

A

During the 7th embryonic week

134
Q

What is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

Primary centers appear in utero, secondary center appear after birth

135
Q

What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

3 primary: 5 secondary

136
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

Centrum centers and neural arch centers

137
Q

What are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

Tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

138
Q

What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

During puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

139
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body and vertebral arch?

A

Cervical - rectangular
Thoracic - triangular
Lumbar - reniform

140
Q

What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

Superior epiphyseal rim and Inferior epiphyseal rim

141
Q

What is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and articular processes attach?

A

The lamina - pedicle junction

142
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - Posterolateral
Thoracic - Posterior, slight lateral
Lumbar - Posterior

143
Q

What is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - articular pillar

Thoracic and Lumbar - pars interarticularis

144
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on later X-ray?

A

The spinolaminar junction

145
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process/apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - anterolateral
Thoracic - posterolateral
Lumbar - lateral

146
Q

All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

The costal element

147
Q

What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial directions in the cervical region?

A

Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

148
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

The zygapophysis

149
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

150
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The superior vertebral notch/Superior vertebral incisure

151
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

152
Q

What is the method of calculation the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

153
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of the spinous processes/ spinous apophyses as seen on an X-ray?

A

Imbrication

154
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - slight angle inferiorly
Thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
Lumbar - no inferior angle

155
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal/vertebral column?

A

Cervical - triangular
Thoracic - oval
Lumbar - triangular
Sacrum - triangular

156
Q

At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

157
Q

At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

S2

158
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

The vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

159
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

The deep cervical artery, superior intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

160
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

The lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

161
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

The iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

162
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

The iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

163
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?

A

C1-C6

164
Q

What segmental levels are3 supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

165
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior intercostal artery?

A

T1-T2

166
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

167
Q

What segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

168
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

169
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

170
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the median sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

171
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

172
Q

Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?

A

L5

173
Q

What is the segmental arteries of L5?

A

Iliolumbar artery, median sacral artery and lateral sacral

174
Q

What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and paravertebral region?

A

Dorsospinal artery

175
Q

Which artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral disc?

A

Spinal artery

176
Q

Which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?

A

Spinal artery

177
Q

What are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

Osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery

178
Q

Which branches o the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

Osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

179
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus

180
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the legamentum flavum?

A

Posterior spinal canal artery & plexus

181
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

Anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery and posterior medullary feeder artery

182
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve roots and nerve root ganglion?

A

Posterior radicular artery

183
Q

What is the location and number of medullary feeder arteries present in the adult?

A

9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries

184
Q

What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

Anterior spinal artery

185
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The vertebral artery

186
Q

Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

No

187
Q

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

Anterior medullary feeder arteries

188
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The posterior inferior cerebellar artery

189
Q

What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

It lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal

190
Q

Is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

No

191
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

Posterior medullary feeder arteries

192
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

Right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

193
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

A median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries and 3 communicating arteries

194
Q

What is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

Intramedullary arteries

195
Q

What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

Pial perforation arteries, central/ventral/sulcal perforation arteries

196
Q

What arterial casa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

Ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

197
Q

What intramedullary branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?

A

pial perforation arteries

198
Q

What is the source for pial perforation arteries?

A

The pial plexus

199
Q

What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

Anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

200
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

Pial veins

201
Q

What will pial veins drain into?

A

Venous vasa corona

202
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

Right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communication veins

203
Q

Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?

A

Anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins

204
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

Posterior radicular veins

205
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

206
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligament flavum?

A

Posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

207
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

Intervertebral veins

208
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord.

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

209
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

Interstitial fluid

210
Q

Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

A

Subdural space - between the dura mater and arachnoid mater

211
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningoververtebral ligaments

212
Q

What is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?

A

Serous fluid

213
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

214
Q

From a horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be the largest?

A

Transverse

215
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1 (cervical enlargement)

T9-T12 (the lumbar enlargement)

216
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

217
Q

What is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra
L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra
L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra
S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

218
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

Conus medullaris

219
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

Typically S4, S5, and Co1

220
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

221
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

Cauda equina

222
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

Filum terminale internum

223
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part o the vertebral column?

A

Typically S2, the dural cul de sac

224
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale?

A

Proximal part of the filum terminale internum

225
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

A

It joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

226
Q

What does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate?

A

Lower limbs and the external anal sphincter

227
Q

The last arterial vasa coronal creates what feature on angiogram?

A

Cruciate anastomosis

228
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

Filum terminale externum

229
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

Coccygeal medullary vestige?

230
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

Tethered cord syndrome

231
Q

What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

It is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord

232
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in the thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

The spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple; the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple

233
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

Ant bear and three-toed sloth

234
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

Manatee and two-toed sloth

235
Q

What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?

A

Posterior (kyphotic)

236
Q

What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

The intervertebral disc height

237
Q

What is the d, uncusirection of the typical cervical curve?

A

Anterior (lordotic)

238
Q

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5-C6

239
Q

What is the effect of aging on the cervical vertebral body?

A

It diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body

240
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

Anterior groove, posterior groove, right left uncinate processes

241
Q

What are the names of the later modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

Uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus/lateral lip

242
Q

At what developmental age will the uncinated process first be observed?

A

3rd-4th fetal month

243
Q

What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

Anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left later grooves

244
Q

What are the names given to the lateral modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim?

A

Lateral groove/enchancrure

245
Q

What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?

A

Fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

246
Q

What is the joint classification for the posterior lip-lateral groove articulation?

A

Fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

247
Q

What is the joint classification for the unciate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

Modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

248
Q

What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

A

Cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

249
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

5

250
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

5

251
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

10

252
Q

What is the name given to the uncinated process-lateral groove articulation?

A

Joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

253
Q

What does the recent literature suggest as the nature of the joint of Luschika?

A

The joint is representative of intervertebral disc aging, which results in loss of lamellar integrity near the joint

254
Q

What is the functional significance of the joint of Luschika?

A

It appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion and extension, requiring coupling motion (axial rotation with lateral bend) in the cervical spine

255
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

The longus colli muscle

256
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

Posterolateral, 45 degrees

257
Q

At what location on the vertebral body of a typical cervical will the pedicle attach?

A

To the side and in the center of the vertebral body

258
Q

The greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at what level?

A

C6

259
Q

The greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?

A

C5-C6

260
Q

List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.

A

Costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

261
Q

What muscle will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

Anterior scalene, Longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransversarii

262
Q

What muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

Spenius cervicis, iliocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalene, rotators and posterior intertransversarii

263
Q

What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

A

Middle scalene and posterior intertransversarii

264
Q

What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

A

Sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

265
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?

A

60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane) 15 degrees inferiorly (from horizontal plane)

266
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse?

A

The carotid tubercle

267
Q

What will cause remodeling of the anterior tubercle at C6?

A

The common carotid artery

268
Q

What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

A

The vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers