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Flashcards in Exam 1 Deck (164):
1

plantarflexion

moving the plantar surface of the sole of the foot towards the ground

2

dorsiflexion

moving the dorsum of the foot towards the leg

3

inversion

movement of the plantar surface medially

4

eversion

movement of the plantar surface laterally

5

What does the CNS consist of?

brain and spinal cord

6

What does the peripheral nervous system consist of?

12 cranial nerves and 31 spinal nerves

7

How many cervical nerves are there?

8

8

How many thoracic nerves are there?

12

9

How many lumbar nerves are there?

5

10

How many sacral nerves are there?

5

11

How many coccygeal nerves are there?

1

12

What is the cell body called outside the CNS?

ganglion

13

What is the function of a dendrite?

conducts electrical impulses toward the cell body

14

What is the function of an axon?

conducts electrical impulses AWAY from the cell body

15

What is a synapse?

functional contact (microscopic gap) between 2 nerves (axon to dendrite)

16

What is the function of a synapse?

where chemical neurotransmitters convey electrical impulses

17

Anterior root function

contains only motor fibers

18

posterior root function

contains only sensory fibers and associated ganglion

19

Roots converge to form ______

spinal nerve

20

What are primary rami?

anterior and posterior branches of the spinal nerve that contain motor and sensory fibers

21

What is the function of posterior primary rami?

They are much smaller and distribute to intrinsic muscles and skin of the back and neck

22

What is the function of anterior primary rami?

They distribute to the remainder of the anterolateral neck, remainder of the trunk and limbs

23

What is a plexus?

a structure form by anastomoses of anterior rami of several spinal nerves

24

Somatic motor spinal nerves innervate what?

To almost all skeletal muscles inferior to head

25

Somatic sensory spinal nerves innervate what?

From skin of posterior head, neck, trunk, and limbs

26

Autonomic motor spinal nerves innervate what?

To smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

27

autonomic sensory spinal nerves innervate what?

From smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

28

What does the sympathetic autonomic nervous system regulate?

"fight or flight;" accelerates heart rate, inhibits intestinal peristalsis, dilates pupils

29

Describe the sympathetic systems ganglion fibers.

Preganglionic fibers are short and postganglionic fibers are long.

30

Where do the sympathetic nerves leave the CNS?

At T1-L2 spinal cord levels only

31

What is the sympathetic trunk?

a longitudinal nerve structure that reaches superior and inferior structures

32

How many neurons are required to transmit motor impulses to effector structure?

2- first motor neuron synapses with the second neuron

33

How many neurons are required to transmit sensory impulse from structure?

1

34

How many components does the autonomic nervous system have and what are they?

2- motor and sensory components

35

What does the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system regulate?

"rest and digest;" homeostasis- slows heart rate, increases intestinal peristalsis, constricts pupils

36

Where do the parasympathetic nerves leave the CNS?

4 cranial nerves and S2-4 spinal cord levels

37

Describe the parasympathetic systems ganglion fibers.

preganglionic fibers are long and postganglionic fibers are short

38

What structures does the parasympathetic system innervate?

limited to structures in head, viscera (thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic), and specialized vasculature in genitals. No distribution to limbs or body wall

39

Where does the spinal cord start and end?

extends from skull (foramen magnum) to 2nd lumbar vertebra

40

What is the conus medularis?

tapered, inferior end of cord

41

What is the cauda equina?

consists of lumbar and sacral nerve roots inferior to conus medularis

42

Where does the spinal cord have enlargements and why?

cervival and lumbosacral; corresponds to large nerve supply for limb muscles

43

What are the meninges?

Connective tissue surrounding the spinal cord

44

What are denticulate ligaments?

they anchor the spinal cord to the dura mater

45

What is the filum terminale?

forms the inferior end of conus medularis to coccoyx

46

How long does the dura mater extend?

to the 2nd sacral vertebra

47

What is the epidural space?

the space between the dura and bone of vertebral canal

48

Where do you complete a lumbar puncture?

from subarachnoid space between L2 and S2

49

Describe shape and function of body of vertebrae?

cylindrical; weight bearing; connects to adjacent bodies by intervertebral disks

50

Describe function of vertebral arch.

protects spinal cord

51

Describe shape of vertebral arch.

Formed posteriorly by pedicles (cylindrical) and laminae(flat) to define the vertebral foramen

52

Where are the articular processes on vertebrae?

arise from vertebral arch; 2 superior and 2 inferior articular processes located at junctions of pedicles and laminae

53

What processes on vertebrae are used for muscle attachment?

1 spinous and 2 transverse

54

Where are notches located on the vertebrae?

between the body anteriorly and articular processes posteriorly

55

What do the notches of adjacent vertebrae form?

intervertebral foramina

56

How many cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal vertebrae are there? (in respective order)

7, 12, 5, 5, 4

57

What makes cervical processes unique and what is its function?

transverse foramen for vertebral arteries

58

Why are most movements permitted for cervical vertebrae?

because it has relatively thick intervertebral discs and the nuchal ligament

59

What are the main functions of C1 and C2?

movement and support of skull

60

What is C1 called and what is its shape?

Atlas; ring-like with no body or spinous process

61

What movement does C1 allow?

Flexion and extension of head ("yes" movement)

62

What is C2 called and what is its shape?

Axis; has superiorly directed odontoid process (dens) forming pivot point for rotation of atlas

63

What movement does C2 allow?

"no" movement of head

64

Why is movement limited for thoracic vertebrae?

Thoracic vertebrae can only rotate because they have thin intervertebral discs, overlapping spines and attachment of ribs

65

What makes thoracic vertebrae unique?

facets on body and transverse processes for articulation with heads and tubercles of ribs

66

What movements are allowed for lumbar vertebrae and why?

flexion, extension and lateral bending with LIMITED rotation due to thick intervertebral discs and orientation of articular processes

67

What is purpose of sacral vertebrae?

bears weight

68

Describe composition of intervertebral discs.

outer anulus fibrosus (dense fibrous tissue that is thinner posteriorly) and inner, softer nucleus pulposus containing 70-80% water

69

What is the function of intervertebral discs?

shock absorbers

70

Describe dehydration and rehydration of intervertebral discs.

Dehydrate from mechanical pressure (standing/walking) and rehydrate at rest (rehydration becomes less efficient with age)

71

Which vertebrae are more likely to have a herniated disc?

cervical and lumbar

72

What is a herniated disc?

extrusion of nucleus pulposus through anulus fibrosus (posteriorly or posterolaterally); the anulus fibrosus is also thinner posteriorly

73

What is kyphosis?

exaggeration of thoracic curvature and is osteoporosis-related

74

What is lordosis?

Exaggeration of lumbar curvature; present in morbidly obese people or pregnant women

75

What is scoliosis?

complex lateral bending and twisting of vertebral column and is usually idopathic

76

What is the purpose of ligamenta flava?

connects laminae; very elastic and you push through this for CSF sample

77

What is the purpose of inerspinous and supraspinous ligaments?

connects spines

78

What is the nuchal ligament?

thickened supraspinous ligament in cervical region

79

What is the purpose of longitudinal ligaments?

they are anterior (thicker) and posterior ligaments that connect vertebral bodies

80

Superficial (except trapezius) and intermediate back muscle groups are innervated by...

anterior rami

81

Deep back muscles are innervated by....

posterior rami

82

Which back muscle groups are derived from anterolateral musculature?

superficial and intermediate groups

83

Which two regions of spine are concave anteriorly?

thoracic/sacral

84

Which two regions of spine are concave posteriorly?

cervical/lumbar

85

What forms bony pelvis?

2 hip bones (pubis, ischium, ilium) anterolaterally and by sacrum and coccyx posteriorly

86

What is the ischium characterized by?

ramus, tuberosity and spine

87

What separates the tuberosity and spine of the ischium?

lesser sciatic notch

88

The ischium and pubis form what?

the obturator foramen which is nearly closed by the obturator membrane

89

What bones contribute to the acetabulum?

pubis, ilium and ischium

90

What characterizes the ilium?

fan-shaped ala with crest, fossa, anterior (superior and inferior) and posterior (superior and inferior) spines, and greater sciatic notch

91

What characterizes the pubis?

tubercule, superior pubic ramus and inferior pubic ramus

92

What is the lumbosacral joint?

strong iliolumbar ligaments unite 5th lumbar vertebra to iliac crest and sacrum

93

What is the function of the lumbosacral joint?

limit axial rotation of L5 on sacrum and stabilize joint

94

What is the function of the sacroiliac joint?

transmits weight of body to hip bones

95

What holds together the sacroiliac joint?

strong sacroiliac ligaments (anterior, interosseous and posterior)

96

What are the accessory ligaments of the sacroiliac joint?

sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments that convert greater and lesser sciatic notches into greater and lesser sciatic foramina, respectively

97

Pubic symphysis

has thick interpubic disc of fibrocartilage; has superior and inferior pubic ligaments connecting bones; angle of female pubic arch is greater contributing to wider female pelvis

98

Describe possible trauma of the pubic joints.

they seldom dislocate because of great strength of surrounding ligaments; bony portions of adjacent pelvic rim (esp pubic bones ) usually fracture

99

What parts of bony pelvis are in same vertical plane in anatomical position?

anterior superior iliac spines and pubic tubercules

100

pelvic brim (rim)

ridge of bone from pubis, ilium and sacrum; bounds pelvic inlet and divides pelvis into great and lesser parts

101

greater pelvis

aka false pelvis; superior to pelvic brim and forms inferior part of abdominal cavity; bounded by abdominal wall, iliac alae, L5 and S1

102

lesser pelvis

aka true pelvis; inferior to pelvic brim and contains pelvic viscera; bounded by pubis, ilium, ischium, sacrum and coccyx

103

What does the lesser pelvis contain?

greater sciatic, lesser sciatic and obturator foramina

104

pelvic inlet

superior pelvic aperature; bounded by pelvic brim; measured routinely for obstetric reasons during pelvic exam

105

pelvic outlet

inferior pelvic aperature; bounded by pubic symphysis, ischiopubic rami, ishial tuberosities, sacrotuberous ligaments, and coccyx; closed by muscular pelvic diaphragm

106

What is prolapse of viscera?

stretching or tearing of levator ani muscles (esp pubococcygeus)

107

What is the pelvic diaphragm?

funnel-shaped musculature that closes pelvic outlet and forms floor of pelvic cavity; urethra and vagina pass through gap (urogenital hiatus) btwn anteromedial edges of muscles; consists of levator ani and coccygeus muscles

108

perineum

diamond-shaped region inferior to the pelvic diaphragm

109

male and female genitals have homologous structures because they develop from what?

the same set of embryonic primordia

110

What does a line pass between to divide the pelvic diaphragm into the urogenital and anal triangle?

ischial tuberosities

111

What is the difference between fundamental structures in female versus males?

They have remained bilateral with a midline cleft in the female but they have fused into midline structures in males.

112

What are the boundaries of the female urogenital triangle?

inferior part of pubic symphysis, ischiopubic rami, and line connecting ischial tuberosities

113

perineal membrane

triangular-shaped fascia between ischiopubic rami that is inferior to pelvic diaphragm

114

perineal membrane function

provides support for pelvic viscera at urogenital hiatus and separates area into superficial and deep perineal spaces

115

What are the external genitals of the female attached to?

either bone or perineal membrane

116

What is the homologous structure of labia majora?

male scrotum

117

labia majora

2 prominent longitudinal folds containing fat; blend together anteriorly to form mons pubis

118

labia minora

2 small folds medial to labia majora; give rise to prepuce of clitoris

119

vestibule of vagina

cleft between labia into which urethra, vagina, and ducts of greater vestibular and other glands open

120

What is the homologous structure of the clitoris?

male penis

121

clitoris

consists of mobile body and attached root; has glans and NO external urethral orifice; composed of 3 cylindrical bodies of erectile tissue

122

corpora cavernosa of clitoris

paired structures arranged side by side; expand as crura that are attached to ischiopubic rami in superficial perineal space

123

clitoris- commissure of the bulbs

unpaired and very small structure that forms glans of clitoris distally; does NOT contain female urethra; expands as 2 vestibular bulbs attached to perineal membrane.

124

what is the homologous structure of male corpus spongiosum?

commissure of the bulbs of clitoris

125

location of superficial perineal space

between mobile portion of genitals and perineal membrane

126

contents of superficial perineal space

crura of clitoris, vestibular bulbs; greater vestibular glands

127

crura of clitoris

attached to ischiopubic rami; covered by ischiocavernosus muscles that compress erectile tissue and force blood into corpora cavernosa; muscles supplied by the pudendal nerve

128

vestibular bulbs

attached to perineal membrane; covered by bulbospongiosus muscles that compress erectile tissue and force blood into commissure and glans; muscles supplied by pudendal nerve

129

greater vestibular glands

associated with inferior ends of vestibular bulbs; secrete mucus; ducts empty into vestibule of vagina

130

What is the homologous structure in a male for vestibular glands?

bulbourethral glands

131

location of deep perineal space in male and females

area between perineal membrane and pelvic diaphragm; no communication with superficial perineal space or pelvic cavity

132

what are the contents of the deep perineal space in a female?

vagina, urethra, external urethral sphincter

133

What nerve supplies the external urethra sphincter?

pudendal nerve

134

scrotum

cutaneous pouch containing testes, epidiymis and distal parts of spermatic cords; wall contains smooth muscle fibers that contract primarily under influence of cold

135

What is the name of the smooth muscle in the scrotum?

dartos muscle

136

penis

consists of mobile body and attached root; has prepuce and glans containing external urethral orifice; composed of 3 cylindrical bodies of erectile tissue called corpora

137

corpora cavernosa of penis

paired structures arranged side by side; expand as crura that are attached to ischiopubic rami in superifical perineal space

138

corpus spongiosum

unpaired and smaller structure that forms glans penis distally; contains spongy urethra; expands as bulb of penis attached to perineal membrane

139

What is the homologous structure in a female for corpus spongiosum?

commissure

140

What is the location of the superficial perineal space in the male?

between scrotum/mobile portion of penis and perineal membrane

141

What are the contents of the superficial perineal space in a male?

crura of penis and penile bulb

142

crura of penis

attached to ischiopubic rami; covered by ischiocavernosus muscles that compress erectile tissue and force blood into corpora cavernosa; muscles supplied by pudendal nerve

143

penile bulb

attached to perineal membrane; covered by bulbospongiosus muscles

144

bulbospongiosus muscle

expels residual urine and semen; help maintain an erection by compressing erectile tissue and forcing blood into corpus spongiosum and glans; supplied by pudendal nerve

145

contents of male deep perineal space

urethra, external urethral sphincter and bulbourethral glands

146

what is the male homologous structure to female greater vestibular glands?

bulbourethral glands (these are located in different place than female structure)

147

What are the boundaries of the anal triangle?

line connecting ischial tuberosities, sacrotuberous ligaments and coccyx

148

anal canal

distal 2 inches of GI tract; begins at level of U-shaped rectal sling formed by puborectalis

149

external anal sphincter

voluntary sphincter of anal canal; has subcutaneous, superficial, and deep parts; supplied by pudendal nerve

150

ischioanal fossa

wedge-shaped spaces on either side of anal canal; filled with fat that support canal; obturator internus muscle and ischial tuberosity form vertical lateral wall; levator ani and anal canal form sloping superomedial wall

151

rectum

distal part of digestive tract that hold fecal mass; continuous proximally with sigmoid colon and distally with anal canal; follows curve of sacrum and coccyx and ends at the tip of coccyx; sharp anorectal flexure maintained by puborectalis part of levator ani

152

Where do renal calculi usually occur?

kidney-ureter junction, pelvic brim and passage through bladder wall

153

ureter

muscular tube from kidney to bladder; crossed superiorly by ductus deferens in males and uterine artery in females; pass obliquely through posterior bladder wall, which prevents reflux of urine during emptying of bladder

154

bladder

muscular sac posterior to pubic bones; relatively free except for inferior tapered part that is attached to prostate gland (male) or pelvic diaphragm (female);

155

What is the name of smooth muscle of the bladder?

detrusor

156

male urethra

prostatic, intermediate (encircled by voluntary sphincter) and spongy parts

157

Where can a catheter rupture the urethral wall of a male?

transition between mobile and fixed parts; passage through deep perineal space

158

female urethra

corresponds to prostatic and intermediate parts of male urethra

159

infundibulum of uterine tubes

funnel-shaped distal end with fringed edges called fimbrae

160

ampulla of uterine tubes

widest and longest part of tube where fertilization of ovum occurs

161

isthmus of uterine tubes

short, narrow part that joins uterus

162

ductus deferens

thick-walled muscular tube from epididymis that passes through abdominal wall and approaches bladder from posterior aspect; crosses ureter and joins duct of seminal gland to form ejaculatory duct within prostate gland

163

seminal glands

lobulated glands having size and shape of small finger; attached to posterior aspect of bladder; release thick, alkaline secretion forming most of seminal fluid;

164

prostate

gland that is partly glandular and partly fibromuscular; located at neck of bladder; prostatic urethra and ejaculatory ducts pass through substance of gland; releases thin, milky fluid