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Flashcards in Exam 1 Deck (186):
1

Delivering anesthetic gas in air (21% O2) would lead to ____ due to hypoventilation and V/Q mismatch.

Hypoxemia

2

What is the metabolic requirement for oxygen?

5-10 mL/kg/min

3

Which cylinder is attached directly to the anesthesia machine via a yoke?

E cylinder

4

What are the standard complications of an anesthetized animal? (4H's and 1P)

Hemorrhage
Hypoventilation
Hypothermia
Hypotension
Pain

5

True/False: When a ruminant is recovering we must remove the ETT with the cuff deflated.

False.

**leave cuff inflated when removing ETT

6

What are the two sites you can place an IV catheter in cattle?

Aruicular vein
Jugular vein

7

True/False. Atropine is recommended as a premed in cattle.

False

**reduces saliva but thickens the salivary secretions and reduces gut motility**

8

Which of the following is false regarding premeds in cattle?

a. Acepromazine can be given alone or in combo with others
b. Brahmans and Herefords are more sensitive to xylazine
c. Benzodiazepines are ususalyl combined with ketamine at induction
d. Buprenorphine is the most frequently used opioid in ruminants

d. Buprenorphine is the most frequently used opioid in ruminants

**Butorphanol

9

What is a common side effect caused by Acepromazine when administered as a premed in bulls?

Prolonged penile prolapse

10

What is the most common induction drug used in large animals?

Ketamine

11

What is the drug of choice for induction in a calf <100kg?

Propofol

12

What drug can be administered to cattle prior to the induction agent to significantly reduce the induction dose?

Guaifenesin or GGE

13

Which of the following is false regarding maintenance in cattle?

a. Use padding to prevent myopathy
b. Spread the upper leg away to facilitate blood flow to the legs
c. Cover the tip of the horns
d. Raise the head higher than the rest of the body and cushion under the pole

d. Raise the head higher than the rest of the body and cushion under the pole

**head lower than the rest of the body for saliva drainage!

14

What is the oxygen flow rate for cattle? Induction and maintenance

Induction: 20-50 mL/kg/min
Maintenance: 10-20 mL/kg/min

15

What agents are used in cattle 'Triple Drip'?

Ketamine
GGE
Xylazine

16

What agents are used in ruminant 'Double Drip'?

Ketamine
GGE

17

What should the heart rate of ruminants be when monitoring them under anesthesia?

~60-90 bpm

18

What should the blood pressure be when monitoring cattle under anesthesia?

SAP > 90 mmHg
MAP> 70 mmHg

19

What are common sites where you would place an IV catheter in sheep and goats?

Jugular vein
Cephalic vein
Saphenous vein
Aricular vein

20

What premeds would you combine in sheep and goats?

Acepromazine
Midazolam or Diazepam

21

What analgesic drugs can be given to your sheep and goats?

Morphine or Hydromorphone
Butorphanol

22

What range of tube sizes do you use for intubation in sheep and goats?

7mm to 12mm tubes

23

What is the oxygen flow rate for sheep and goats? Induction and maintenance

Induction: 50-100 mL/kg/min
Maintenance: 20-50 mL/kg/min

24

Which NSAID's can be used in cattle for analgeisa?

Flunixine meglumine
Meloxicam
Ketofen

25

True/False: When recovering cattle they should be placed in lateral recumbency immediately.

False

**sternal recumbency

26

True/Flase. The ETT cuff should remain inflated to prevent aspiration of saliva or regugitants during recovery of cattle.

True

27

Sheep and goats are susceptible to ___ if in dorsal recumbency.

Hypotension

28

What should the heart rate of sheep and goat's be when monitoring them under anesthesia?

~90-130 bpm

29

Which of the following is false regarding camelids?

a. They have 3 compartment stomachs
b. Jugular catheterization is easily done because of their thin skin
c. They're susceptible to brady-arrhythmias
d. You want to target at the level of the mandible or 5/6th cervical vertebrae region for IV catheterization

b. Jugular catheterization is easily done because of their thin skin


**hard to do bc they have thick skin

30

All of the following are measured variables fo blood gas analysis except:

a. PaCO2
b. PaO2
c. HCO3
d. pH

c. HCO3

31

What are the calculated variables for blood gas analysis?

HCO3
BE
Oxygen content (CaO2)

32

What is measured for the respiratory component and for the metabolic component of blood gas analysis?

PaCO2 - repsiratory
BE or HCO3 - metabolic

33

A patient comes in with a pH of 7.25, PaCO2 of 65mmHg and HCO3 of 25mEq/L. You can say that this patient is experiencing

a. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Meabolic acidosis

b. Respiratory acidosis

34

List the normal ranges for:
pH, HCO3, PaCO2

pH: 7.35 - 7.45
HCO3: 24 +/- 4 mEq/L
PaCO2: 35 - 45 mmHg

35

If a paitent has a PaCO2 > 45 mmHg you can say the state of ventilation is:

a. Hypoventilation
b. Hyperventilation
c. Normal ventilation

a. Hypoventilation

36

A PaCO2 <35 mmHg means that the patient is in a state of ___ventilation.

Hyperventilation

37

What are the three things that can reflect any PaCO2 value?

Respiratory rate
Tidal volume
Breathing effort

38

True/False. Hypoxemia depends on inspired O2 %

False!

**it doesn't depend on inspired O2 %

39

What are the five casues of hypoxemia (low PaO2)?

1. Low FiO2
2. Hypoventilation
3. Diffusion impairment
4. V/Q mismatch
5. RIght to left shunt

40

When breathing 100% O2 the PaO2 should be ____ mmHg.

>500 mmHg

41

What is the number one cause for low PaO2/ FiO2 ratio under anesthesia?

V/Q mismatch

42

What is the term used to describe when the lung collapse very rapidly after induction and persists for hours or days after surgery?

Atelectasis

43

In a clinical situation lactate >2mmol/L is high and may indicate increased _____ metabolism.

anaerobic

44

What are the normal values for: BE, PaO2, PaO2/FiO2 ratio, and lactate?

BE: 0 +/- 4 mEq/L
PaO2: >500 mmHg at 100% O2 (FiO2 = 1)
PaO2/FiO2 ratio: >500 mmHg
Lactate: <2 mmol/L

45

True/False: When breathing 100% O2 oxygenation cannot be improved by MORE ventilation.

True

46

What is the term used to describe a method of artificial ventilation where mechanical means is used to assist or replace spontaneous breathing?

Mechanical ventilation

47

What are the three types of ventilation?

Spontaneous
Assisted
Mandatory

48

Which of the following is incorrect?

a. IPPV is maintained only during inspiration
b. IMV there is a set number of positive breaths but the patient can also breath freely between mechanical breaths
c. CPAP is spontaneous breathing during inspiratory and expiratory phases
d. PIP is the highest pressure during expiration and keeps the alveoli open

d. PIP is the highest pressure during expiration and keeps the alveoli open

**highest during inspiration and inflates the alveoli

49

Which of the following is false regarding PEEP?

a. Positive pressure that is maintained during expiration
b. Keeps the alveoli open and prevents re-collapse
c. Causes barotrauma and opens atelectasis
d. Indicated during open thorax and lung parenchymal disease

c. Causes barotrauma and opens atelectasis

**true for PIP

50

What is the main indication of mechanical ventilation for intubated patients on 100% O2?

Decrease PaCO2

51

Which of the following is not a treatment option for a hypotensive patient on mechanical ventilation?

a. Volume loading
b. Decrease airway pressure
c. Turn up the ventilator
d. Give inotropic drugs

c. Turn up the ventilator


**Switch off the ventilator

52

Which of the following is false regarding respiratory assisted devices of mechanical ventilation?

a. Ambu bag and Demand valve are two examples
b. Ambu bag is used to provide IPPV for small animals with air or supplemental O2
c. Demand valve provides pressurized O2 to the patient via ETT
d. All the above are true

d. All the above are true

53

What are the US standards for cylinder colors?

Oxygen = green
Nitrous oxide (N2O) = blue
Medical air = yellow

54

Cylinder perssure is ususally measured in ____ and breathing system pressure is measured in ___.

psi, cmH2O

55

All of the following are considered high pressure (100-2200+ psi) systems except:

a. Gas cylinder
b. Flush valve
c. Regulators
d. Pressure gauges

b. Flush valve

56

What is the capacity of oxygen that the E cylinder carries?

660 L

57

The ___ decreases the tank pressure to a safe working pressure of 50 psi which is supplied to the flowmeter.

Regulator

58

Which of the following is false regarding the flowmeter?

a. You read the flow at the top of the bobbin or middle of the ball
b. Gas enters at 15 psi and exits at 50 psi
c. It is calibrated for 760 mmHg and 20 degrees C
d. All the above are true

b. Gas enters at 15 psi and exits at 50 psi

59

What would be the % O2 delivered to a paitent on 1L of O2 and 6L of N2O?

14%

1L O2 + 6L N2O = 7 --> O2 = 1/7 = 14%

**this is a hypoxic mixture and is fatal

60

Which of the following is false regarding the quick flush?

a. Delivers O2 from the intermediate pressure area of the machine
b. Delivers gas at a rate between 35-75 L/min
c. Patient should be disconnected from the circuit before its utilized
d. It delivers pure O2 to the vaporizer

d. It delivers pure O2 to the vaporizer

**this is pure O2 that has bypassed the vaporizer

61

What is a possible complication of the quick flush in small patients?

Pneumothorax

62

Which of the following is considered a gas inhalant?

a. Isoflurane
b. N2O
c. Sevoflurane
d. Halothane

b. N2O

**the others are vapor inhalants

63

True/False. Vapor pressure depends on tempearture and is inversely related to boiling point.

True

64

Which of the following is false?

a. VOC vaporizers are considered prescise becuase anesthetic % is known
b. VIC is not prescise or recommended
c. VOC carries fresh gas from the regulator
d. VIC increases surface area for vaporization

c. VOC carries gas from the regulator

**flowmeter

65

Which of the following requires an electric heated vaporizer?

a. Desflurane
b. Isoflurane
c. Halothane
d. Sevoflurane

a. Desflurane

66

Bain (Mapleson D) and Mapleson F are part of the ____ system.

Non-rebreathing

67

Which systems are part of re-breathing?

Circle and Universal F

68

Which of the follwoing is true regarding non-rebreathing systems?

a. They are used in patients that are >3 kg
b. They have no APL valve
c. They have no soda lime or unidirectional valves
d. There are more components which means that there is more chances of leaks

c. They have no soda lime or unidirectional valves

69

True/False. If the soda lime changes to purple while in use it means that it is exhausted and needs to be changed.

False

**just means that it is being actively used

70

What is the equation used to calculate the reservoir bag used in small animals?

(~15 mL/kg) x 6 + round up

71

When the ___ is closed you have an increased perssure which means there is no exhaust and it can lead to cardiorespiratory arrest.

APL valve

72

Which rebreathing system has no dead space because of the unidirectional flow?

Circle system

73

The ____ bypasses the vaporizer and delivers O2 at a high pressure and flow of 35-75 L/min.

O2 flush valve/ quick flush

74

What are the only two conditions when its ok to have the APL valve closed?

Leak check or if giving PPV

75

Which of the following is not a sign of CO2 exhaustion?

a. CO2 >1-2 mmHg on capnograph
b. Increased PaCO2 on blood gas
c. Decreased HR and BP
d. Red mucous membranes

c. Decreased HR and BP


**Increased

76

Which of the following is matched correctly?

a. Murphy: has a curved/shoulder
b. Cole: no cuff and is most commonly used
c. Wire/ reinforced (armored): used in eye surgeries
d. None of the above

c. Wire/ reinforced (armored): used in eye surgeries

77

Whic ET tube would you use in birds?

Cole

78

The ___ laryngoscope is the straight on and the ___ is the curved one.

Miller = straight
Macintosh = curved

79

Which of the following is false regarding intubation?

a. Air should be added with ruminants before moving them to prevent regurgitation
b. Disconnect animals from cricuit if cuff is inflated when moving
c. Place the blade on the epiglottis and go rostral
d. When checking for a leak close the reservoir to 20 cmH2O

c. Place the blade on the epiglottis and go rostral

**DON'T place blade on epiglottis

80

Which of the following does the F canister absorb?

a. N2O
b. CO2
c. Halogenated agents
d. Halogenated agents and N2O

c. Halogenated agents

81

When should an F canister be discarded?

When >50 g

82

True/False. Exposure to volatile anesthetic agents should be <2 ppm and aren't smelled until >125 ppm.

True

83

The ___ removes a sample from the breathing curcuit and needs to be scavenged.

Capnograph

84

Which of the following is most susceptible to Sick Sinus Syndrome?

a. Doberman Pinschers
b. Minuature Schnauzers
c. Pugs
d. Quarter Horses

b. Minuature Schnauzers

85

Which of the following is not paired correctly?

a. Dobermans: DCM
b. Pugs: Brachycephalic Syndrome
c. Quarter Horses: Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis
d. Rabbits: atropine estherase

c. Quarter Horses: Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis

**Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis

86

What are the commonly suggested minumum database (quads) tests done for healthy young (<2 years) small animals?

PCV, TP, glucose, BUN

87

Which of the following is not matched correctly regarding mucous membrane color and associated conditions?

a. Cyanosis: Hypoxemia
b. Pale: Icterus
c. Yellow: Hyperbilirubinemia
d. Brick red: Hyperdynamic status

b. Pale: Icterus

88

Which tests are generally recommended for sick or old patients?

CBC, CHEM, UA

**+/- any special tests indicated for specific cases

89

A patient that is mobidly obese or has moderate heart diseases be classified under which phsyical status?

a. ASA I
b. ASA II
c. ASA III
d. ASA IV
e. ASA V

c. ASA III

90

An animal that is pregnany or has mild anemia would be classified under which ASA group?

a. ASA I
b. ASA II
c. ASA III
d. ASA IV
e. ASA V

b. ASA II

91

Which ASA group would an animal with CHF or GDV be classified under?

a. ASA I
b. ASA II
c. ASA III
d. ASA IV
e. ASA V

d. ASA IV

92

An animal with multiple organ/system dysfunction and massive trauma would be classified as:

a. ASA I
b. ASA II
c. ASA III
d. ASA IV
e. ASA V

e. ASA V

93

Healtyh dogs and cats should be fasted how many hours before anesthesia?

8-12 hours

94

Which of the following is false regarding preparation of a patient for anesthesia?

a. You want to remove suckling calves from their mothers 2 hours before anesthesia
b. Cattle should be fasted 8-12 hours before
c. 1-2 month old calves should be fasted 2-4 hours before
d. Sheep and goats should be fasted 4 hours before

a. You want to remove suckling calves from their mothers 2 hours before anesthesia

**they should NOT be fasted

95

What are the three things that should be done if a patient starts to wake up during a procedure?

1. Increase fresh gas flow
2. Increase vaporizer settings
3. Give some PPV

96

True/False: Inhalant anesthetics have effects of narcosis, muscle relaxation and analgesia.

False

**Not analgesics (with exception)

97

True/False: Partial pressures are equal but the number of anesthetic molecules are not equal.

True

98

Solubility is expressed as ____ which is the concentration ratio of anesthetic in the solvent and gas phases.

Partition coefficient

99

Which of the following is false regarding blood gas partition coefficient?

a. The anesthetic in alveolar gas represetns brain concentration
b. Anesthetic dissolved in blood is pharmacologically active
c. Halothane is most soluble and Desflurane is least soluble
d. All the above are true

b. Anesthetic dissolved in blood is pharmacologically active

**considered INactive

100

All of the following have a low blood pas partition coefficient except:

a. Isoflurane
b. Sevoflurane
c. Halothane
d. Desflurane

c. Halothane

101

Which of the following is false regarding a low blood gas PC?

a. Long induction and recovery
b. Shorter time required to attain a partial pressure in the brain
c. More anesthetic in the alveoli and less dissolved in blood
d. All the above are true

a. Long induction and recovery

**Short induction and recovery

102

True/False: A high blood gas PC means that its harder for the patient to get lighter or deeper into the anesthesia and takes longer for them to be woken up.

True

103

True/False: The partial pressure in the brain is roughly equal to the partial pressure in the alveoli.

True

104

All of the following are ways to increase anesthetic delivery to the aveoli except:

a. Increase vaporizer setting
b. Decrease fresh gas flow
c. Decrease breathing circuit volume
d. Increase minute ventilation

b. Decrease fresh gas flow


**Increase

105

What are two ways to increase partial pressure in the alveoli (PA)?

1. Increase anesthetic delivery to the alveoli
2. Decrease removal from alveoli

106

How can one increase alveolar ventilation?

-Increase minute ventialtion
-Decrease dead space ventilation

107

Which of the following is a way to decrease the removal of gas from the alveoli?

a. Increase cardiac output
b. Increase alveolar-venous anesthetic gradient
c. Using anesthetics with a low blood gas PC
d. Increasing blood solubility of anesthetics

c. Using anesthetics with a low blood gas PC

108

What are ways to quickly decrease PA to eliminate anesthetic solutions?

Turn off vaporizer
Disconnect patient and flush O2
Trun up O2 flow
Increase ventilation (IPPV)

109

The ___ of an anesthetic that prevents movement in 50% of patients exposed to a noxious stimulus.

Minumum alveolar concentration (MAC)

110

A high MAC means there is a low ___.

potency

111

What is the MAC value of Iso and Sevo in a dog?

Iso: 1.3%
Sevo: 2.3%

112

All the following increase MAC except:

a. PaCO2 >95 mmHg
b. Drugs causing CNS stimulation
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hyperthermia

a. PaCO2 >95 mmHg

113

True/False: Inhalants cause significant hypoventilation.

True

114

Which of the following is not an effect of volatile anesthetics?

a. Decrease liver flow and O2 delivery
b. Decrease GFR and renal blood flow becasue of decreased CO
c. Increases heart rate
d. Decrease ICP at >1 MAC

d. Decrease ICP at >1 MAC

**Increase ICP at >1 MAC

115

You are performing a procedure on a pig and use halothane as the inhalant anesthetic. You notice that he is having uncontrolled muscel contraction and severe hyperthermia. The first thing you do is look at the EtCO2 and see that its 55 mmHg. How do you treat this pig?

a. Bring his body temperature down using ice packs
b. Give him dantrolene to treat him for malignant hyperthermia
c. The body will compensate and you just have to give him time to heal
d. None of the above

b. Give him dantrolene to treat him for malignant hyperthermia

116

What should be done when discontinuing N2O to prevent diffusion hypoxia?

Provide 100% O2 for 5-10 minutes

117

Your horse under anesthesia has an MAP of 60mmHg, HR of 80 bpm and absent palpebral and corneal reflexes. What is the next thing that you should do?

a. Give him Lidocaine
b. Turn up the vaporizer and give IPPV
c. Turn down the vaporizer
d. Turn down the vaporizer and give Dopamine

c. Turn down the vaporizer

**he is hypotensive and too deep under anesthesia

118

What term describes a PaCO2 >40 mmHg or EtCO2 >45 mmHg?

Hypoventilation

119

You notice that your patient while under anesthesia has a PaCO2 >40mmHg and has no palpebral or corneal reflexes. What should you do next?

a. Turn down the vaporizer and perform IPPV
b. Turn off the vaporizer and perform IPPV
c. Turn up the vaporizer
d. Perform IPPV

a. Turn down the vaporizer and perform IPPV

**animal is hypoventilating and too deep under anesthesia

120

Your canine patient under anesthesia has an MAP = 45mmHg, RR = 25 bpm, and HR = 70bpm. You look at his eyes and noticed they are lacrimated and he has nystagmus. What should be done next?

a. Evaluate and turn down the vaporizer
b. Give then Atropine
c. Give an opioid and turn up the vaporizer
d. Give an opioid then turn down the vaporizer

d. Give an opioid then turn down the vaporizer

**animal is hypotensive and too light under anesthesia

121

Which animals are most susceptible to developing malignant hyperthermia?

Pigs

122

What are the three posibilities of the CO2 rebreathing waveform seen on capnographs?

1. Stuck inspired/expired valves
2. Exhausted soda lime
3. Inadequate O2 flow in a non-rebreathing system

123

Tracheal tears are commin in which animal species?

a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. Birds
d. Pigs

b. Cats

124

True/False: An EEG gives information about subcortical but not cortical activities.

False

**info about cortical not subcortical

125

Which stage of anesthesia is a patient who has strong jaw tone, which makes it hard to intubate the patient?

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

b. Stage 2

126

Which plane of anesthesia do you have weak palpebral reflexes and strong corneal reflexes?

Stage 3, Plane 2

127

Which plane of anesthesia does a patient have constricted pupils, weak palpebral and corneal reflexes, and nystagmus?

Stage 3, Plane 1

128

Which stage of anesthesia do we have voluntary movement from drug administration to loss of consciousness?

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

a. Stage 1

129

Which plane of anesthesia do we have adequate muscle relaxation that is appropriate for most surgical procedures?

Stage 3, Plane 2

130

What plane of anesthesia do we have dilate pupils, central eyes and no palpebral or corneal reflexes?

Stage 3, Plane 3

131

How do you treat apnea?

Mechanical ventilation and 100% O2

132

Most surgeries and intubation are performed at Stage ___ Planes ____.

Stage 3, Planes 2-3

133

Which of the following is not seen with the use of ketamine?

a. Central eyes
b. Nystagmus
c. Dilated pupils
d. Absent palpebral reflex

d. Absent palpebral reflex

**It does cause blinking

134

When should you mintor and record patient parameters?

a. Every 10 minutes
b. Every 5 minutes
c. Every 2 minutes
d. Every 30 seconds

b. Every 5 minutes

135

What is the order of importance from most important to least important accoding to ACVAA monitoring guidelines?

1. Circulation
2. Oxygenation
3. Ventilation
4. Temperature

136

What are the most common locations for pulse palpation in small animals?

Labial
Digital
Dorsal Pedal
Metatarsal

137

What are the most common sites for pulse palpation in large animals?

Auricular
Facial
Transverse Facial

138

Which of the following is false regarding ECG's?

a. Determines heart rate and rhythm
b. Tells us about the heart's eletrical activity and inotropy
c. Helps dianose chamber enlargement
d. Gives us clues about myocardial oxygenation and perfusion
e. All the above are true

b. Tells us about the heart's eletrical activity and inotropy


**does not indicate the heart is contracting

139

Which of the following is matched incorrectly?

a. P wave = atrial depolarization
b. QRS = ventricular depolarization
c. T wave = atrial repolarization
d. They're all correctly matched

c. T wave = atrial repolarization

**ventricular repolarization

140

Which of the following is false regarding a Type A cardiac innervation?

a. Purkinje fibers excite the endocardium
b. Current flows from base to apex
c. This is common in large animals
d. A Positive R wave is seen on ECG

c. This is common in large animals

**common in small animals and humans

141

Which of the following is false regarding a Type B cardiac innervation?

a. Commonly seen in horses, ruminants, and pigs
b. A Negative S wave is seen on ECG
c. Current flows from base to apex
d. Purkinje fibers deeply penetrate the myocardium

c. Current flows from base to apex

**apex to base

142

Explain the lead configuration in both large and small animal.

Lead 2 (small animal): right forearm (white, negative), left hindlimb (red, positive)

Lead 1 (large animal): jugular furrow/ withers (white, negative), cardiac apex (black, positive), red electrode caudal to black

143

Which are the most common arrhythmias seen under anesthesia?

Sinus bradycardia and tachycardia, and AV blocks (1st and 2nd degree)

144

V-tach is noted in a dog with pheochromocytoma under anesthesia. What is the 1st line of treatment for this dog?

Lidocaine IV

145

Which of the following is false regarding elements for the BP waveform?

a. Systolic pressure is the highest point and represents afterload for the left ventricle
b. Mean pressure determines tissue perfusion
c. Diastolic pressure determines myocardial perfusion
d. None of the above are false

d. None of the above are false

146

Which of the following the correct way to treat hypotension?

a. Decrease anesthetic, Give fluid bolus, Give drugs
b. Increase anesthetic, Give fluid bolus, Give drugs
c. Increase O2 and Give drugs
d. Give fluids and drugs

a. Decrease anesthetic, Give fluid bolus, Give drugs

147

What is the gold standard/ most accurate way to measure BP?

Arterial catheter

148

If the animal is in dorsal recumebency the BP transducer should be placed at the point of the ___ and if in lateral recumebency at the point of the ____.

Shoulder = dorsal
Sternum = lateral

149

What are the most common types of non-invasive (indirect) measurements of BP?

Oscillometric and Doppler

150

The cuff's width should be about ___% of the circumference of the limb and placed at the level of the ____.

40%, level of the base of the heart

151

Which method should be used to measure the BP of a horse who has been under anesthesia for more than 45 minutes?

Invasive Blood Pressure (direct) via arterial catheter

152

Which of the following is false regarding non-invasive (indirect) BP measurement?

a. Doppler reads only for diastolic
b. Oscillometry gives diastolic, systolic and mean BP readings
c. Doppler probe is placed on the median arter in large animals and digital artery in small
d. You can place the cuff on the metacarpus or tail in large animal

a. Doppler reads only for diastolic

**systolic

153

What machines are used to measure oxygenation?

Pulse ox or blood-gas

154

What term refers to a PaO2 <60 mmHg or SaO2 <90%?

Hypoxemia

155

True/False: Pulse oximeters are inherently inaccurate and often show 98-99% saturation even if its really 100%.

True

156

Which animal is it hard to use the laryngoscope to intubate?

a. Sheep
b. Alpaca
c. Calf
d. Adult cow

d. Adult cow

157

What is the main side effect of mechanical ventilation?

a. Hypercapnia
b. Hypotension
c. Hyperventilation
d. Hypothermia

b. Hypotension

158

What is the parameter used to measure blood gas ventilation?

PaCO2

159

What is true regarding rebreathing systems?

a. Circle system contains dead space
b. Unidirectional flow contains dead space
c. Y tube and capnograph constitute dead space
d. None of the above are true

c. Y tube and capnograph constitute dead space

160

You have a dog under anesthesia with a respiratory rate of 4, heart rate of 120 bpm and BP of 40 bpm. What is the next thing that should be done?

a. Turn up the ventilator and decrease oxygen
b. Turn off the ventilator and increase oxygen
c. Turn down the ventilator and give PPV
d. Turn off the ventilator and give PPV

b. Turn off the ventilator and increase oxygen

161

What is the proper way to determine the heart rate accurately?

a. ECG
b. Pulse ox
c. Doppler
d. Palpate and count the beats

d. Palpate and count the beats

162

What is false regarding the Pin index safety system?

a. Only allow connections between the appropriate cylinders yokes
b. There are some cylinder specific regulators/ flowmeters
c. They are made specifically for E tanks
d. They have a gas-specific diameter and thread

d. They have a gas-specific diameter and thread

163

Which of the following cannot be given as a TIVA CRI?

a. Etomidate
b. Lidocaine
c. Ketamine
d. Fentanyl

a. Etomidate

164

Which of the following is not an effect of acepromazine?

a. Antiemetic
b. Sedation
c. Analgesia
d. Anticonvulsant

c. Analgesia

165

What receptors do anticholinergics work on?

a. Antagonists on muscarinic AcH receptors
b. GABA receptor agonists
c. Full mu agonists
d. NMDA antagonists

a. Antagonists on muscarinic AcH receptors

166

What is the action of acepromazine?

a. Vasodilation and hypotension
b. Vasoconstriction and hypertension
c. Vasodilation and hypertension
d. Vasoconstriction and hypotension

a. Vasodilation and hypotension

167

True/False: With TIVA you give a loading dose followed by a CRI to have a faster onset and stable blood levels.

True

168

All of the following are used as agents in 'Triple Drip' for horses except:

a. Guaifenesin
b. Xylazine
c. Morphine
d. Ketamine

c. Morphine

169

Which of the following can be used as a CRI to relieve abdominal pain in colic horses?

a. Lidocaine
b. Propofol
c. Xylazine
d. Morphine

a. Lidocaine

170

What three drugs make up the MLK infusion for dogs?

Morphine
Lidocaine
Ketamine

171

Which of the following is true regarding Benzodiazepines?

a. They have a strong analgesia effect
b. They have minimal CV and respiratory effects
c. They are antagonists on muscarinic AcH receptors
d. They should not be used in at risk/hemodynamically unstable patients

b. They have minimal CV and respiratory effects

172

Which of the following CRI's is contraindicated in cats becuase of potential cardiotoxic effects?

a. Fetanyl
b. Alfaxalone
c. Lidocaine
d. Morphine

c. Lidocaine

173

Which of the following is best to use in at risk patients?

a. Dexmedetomidine
b. Acepromazine
c. Etomidate
d. Propofol

c. Etomidate

174

Which of the following is a strong vasoconstrictor and leads to reflex bradycardia and a decreased cardiac output?

a. Alpha 2 agonists
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Phenothiazines
d. Opioids

a. Alpha 2 agonists

175

Which of the following is a kappa agonist and mu antagonist?

a. Fentanyl
b. Hydromorphone
c. Buprenorphine
d. Butorphanol

d. Butorphanol

176

Which of the following are cattle sensitive to and can cause premature delivery?

a. Dexmedetomidine
b. Xylazine
c. Ketamine
d. Medetomidine

b. Xylazine

177

All of the following are full mu agonists except:

a. Fentanyl
b. Hydromorphone
c. Morphine
d. Buprenorphine

d. Buprenorphine

178

Which of the following is a direct negative inotropy and indirectly causes catecholamines to be released leading to increased HR and contractility?

a. Telazol
b. Propofol
c. Ketamine
d. Alfaloxone

c. Ketamine

179

What opioid drug can be given to cats to decrase excitement?

Buprenorphine

180

Which of the following is the correct CV effect of Propofol?

a. Vasodilation and Hypertension
b. Vasoconstriction and Hypertension
c. Vasodilation and Hypotension
d. Vasoconstriction and Hypotension

c. Vasodilation and Hypotension

181

Which of the following has no analgesia or CV effects?

a. Thiopental
b. Alfaloxone
c. Etomidate
d. Propofol

c. Etomidate

182

All of the following work as GABA agonists except:

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Phenothiazines
c. Inhalant Anesthetics
d. Propofol

b. Phenothiazines

183

Which of the following is false regarding propofol?

a. Its the drug of choice for C sections
b. It has some analgesic effects
c. It can cause Heinz body anemia in cats
d. It doesn't accumulate which makes it ideal for TIVA

b. It has some analgesic effects


**NO analgesia

184

What is the correct order of air movement?

a. Tank, regulator, flowmeter, vaporizer
b. Tank, flowmeter, regulator, vaporizer
c. Regulator, tank, flowmeter vaporizer
d. Flowmeter, regulator, tank, vaporizer

a. Tank, regulator, flowmeter, vaporizer

185

Which stage of anesthesia is this patient in? Ventrally rotated eyes, no palpebral reflex, regular breathing, loose jaw tone, and no anal reflex.

a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV

c. Stage III

186

What is the reversal agent for Benzodiazepines?

Flumazenil