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Flashcards in Exam 1 Clicker questions Deck (93):
1

Which of the following classes of antibiotics is NOT a beta-lactam?

A. Penicilins (Amipicillin)
B. Cephaosporins (Cefovecin)
C. Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)
D. Carbapenems (Meropenem)

C. Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)

2

Propanolol (a cardiac beta blocker) normally has a high first-pass metabolism involving the p450 enzyme system and the oral dose reflects that. If a patient was receiving a microsomal enzyme inhibitor like cimetidine what, if any, alteration would you make to the oral dose of propanolol for this patient?

A. Reduce the propanolol dose
B. No change
C. Increase the propanolol dose

A. Reduce the propanolol dose

3

Most NSAIDS are weak acids. If a patient received a toxic dose of an NSAID and presented to your hospital with vomiting, dehydration and acidosis would administering a urine alkalinzer (bicarbonate) be expected to increase or decrease the renal excretion of the excess NSAID?

A. Would decrease excretion
B. Would not alter excretion
C. Would increase excretion

C. Would increase excretion

4

All of the following factors that can impact drug disposition are generally DECREASED in very old patients except.

A. Body fat content
B. Cardiac output
C. Hepatic metabolism
D. Total body water

A. Body fat content

5

After how many half lives do you expect the plasma concentration to have dropped by 97% (down to 3% of the original concentration) if a drug followed first-order elimination kinetics?

A. 2 half lives
B. 3.3 half lives
C. 5 half lives
D. 7 half lives

C. 5 half lives

6

Pharmacokinetics:
Immediately after IV administration of a drug the plasma concentration is 60 mg/L. If the drug's clinical effect is apparent as long as the plasma level stays above 7-8 mg/L and the drug's half-life is known to be 45 minutes, for about how long after administration would you expect to see the clinical effect?

A. 45 minutes
B. 90 minutes
C. 135 minutes
D. 180 minutes

C. 135 minutes

7

If protein bound, weak acid typically bind to?

A. Transferring
B. Macroglobulins
C. Albumin
D. Sodium

C. Albumin

8

Which of these drugs would be most likely to reach the highest concentration in the CSF?

A. Drug A - Vd 0.06 L/kg
B. Drug B - Vd 0.23 L/kg
C. Drug C - Vd 0.50 L/kg
D. Drug D - Vd 4.30 L/kg

D. Drug D - Vd 4.30 L/kg

9

If drug A and drug B have equal Vd but the clearance of drug A is much higher than that of drug B which drug will have the longest half life?

A. Drug A
B. Drug B
C. Neither

B. Drug B

10

If a drug with a half life of 2 hours is started at a CRI dose that will reach 30 mcg/ml at steady state how long after starting the CRI will the plasma level reach 15 mcg/mL

A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 6.6 hours
E. 10 hours

B. 2 hours

11

Which of the following is the best example of a drug that does not have a specific target of action but rather exerts its effect through a direct physical interaction?

A. propofol binding to GABAa ionotropic receptors
B. Omeprazole binding to H+/K+ pumps on the gastric parietal cells
C. Mannitol osmotically drawing water to itself in the vaculature
D. Lidocain binding to voltage-gated ion channels on a neuron

C. Mannitol osmotically drawing water to itself in the vaculature

12

How many mg/mL is a 2% solution of lidocain?

A. 0.002 mg/mL
B. 0.02 mg/mL
C. 2 mg/mL
D. 20 mg/mL

D. 20 mg/mL

13

How many mg/mL is a 1:2000 solution of epinephrine?
Hint: 1:2000 = 1/2000 = 0.0005 =_%?

A. 0.005 mg/mL
B. 0.05 mg/mL
C. 0.5 mg/mL
D. 5 mg/mL
E. 50mg/mL

C. 0.5 mg/mL

14

Which of the following drugs is used to treat acute anaphylaxis?

A. Epinephrine
B. Phenoxybenzamine
C. Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)
D. Neostigmine

A. Epinephrine

15

Which of the following drugs is used primarily for its effects on the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder?

A. Propanolol
B. Pyridostigmine
C. Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)
D. Propantheline

D. Propantheline

16

Which of the following is an indication for using phenoxybenzamine? (more than one may apply)

A. Adjunct treatment for pheochromocytoma
B. Treating urethral sphincter hypertonicity
C. Treating urethral sphincter incompetence
D. Sedation prior to anesthesia

A. Adjunct treatment for pheochromocytoma
B. Treating urethral sphincter hypertonicity

17

Which best describes the classification of the drug Bethanechol

A. Direct Acting
B. Indirect acting
C. Mixed Direct/Indirect acting
D. None of the above

A. Direct Acting

18

The antibiotic chloramphenicol is known to cause aplastic anemia (complete shutdown of red blood cell production) that has a 50% mortality rate. This reaction occurs in about 1:524,000 people. It is an unpredictable response and does not require previous exposure to the drug. Which best describes this kind of reaction?

A. Toxicity
B. Type I hypersensitivity
C. Idiosyncratic reaction
D. Pharmacokinetic variation

C. Idiosyncratic reaction

19

What breed of dog is particularly sensitive to the cardiovascular effects of the phenothiazine sedative acepromazine?

A. Collies
B. Boxers
C. Australian Terriers
D. Dalmations

B. Boxers

20

Which form of cellular transport directly utilizes ATP?

A. Facilitated Passive Transport
B. Primary Active Transport
C. Secondary Active
D. Simple Diffusion

B. Primary Active Transport

21

What is the ratio of Non-ionized [B] to Ionized [BH+] for Drug "B" ( a weak base with a pKa 8.4 in a pH 5.4)?

A. 1:1000
B. 1:100
C. 1:10
D. 1
E. 10:1
F. 100:1
G. 1000:1

A. 1:1000

22

If the ratio of non-ionized/ionized is 1:1000 for drug "B" in an environment with a pH of 4.4 then will it be well absorbed from this location?

A. True
B. False

B. False

23

What is the ratio of Non-ionized [HA] to Ionized [A+] for drug 'A' (a weak acid with pKa 4.4 in a pH 1.4)?

A. 1:1000
B. 1:100
C. 1:10
D. 1
E. 10:1
F. 100:1
G. 1000:1

G. 1000:1

24

If the ratio of non-ionized/ionized is 1000:1 for drug "A" in an environment with a pH of 1.4 then will it be well absorbed from this location?

A. True
B. False

A. True

25

How many mg/mL is a 1:40 solution of a drug?
Hint: 1:40 = 1/40 = 0.025 = _%

A. 0.0025 mg/mL
B. 0.025 mg/mL
C. 0.25 mg/mL
D. 25 mg/mL
E. 250 mg/mL

D. 25 mg/mL

26

If you had to treat a patient who had a patent urethra and normal sphincter function with an atonic, flaccid bladder - which drug would be most appropriate?

A. Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)
B. Oxybutynin
C. Bethanechol
D. Propantheline

C. Bethanechol

27

Which of the following does NOT describe neostigmine?

A. Indirect-acting parasympathomimetic
B. Direct-acting parasympathomimetic
C. Cholinergic
D. Anticholinesterase

B. Direct-acting parasympathomimetic

28

Which of the following is the indirect-parasympathomimetic drug with the longest duration of action?

A. Edrophonium
B. Neostigmine
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Bethanechol

C. Pyridostigmine

29

A drug that is a weak base with a pKa of 4.2 is given IV to a patient with a blood pH of 7.2. The blood comes in contact with a part of the body with pH 4.2. What percentage of the drug do you expect to be found in the body part (pH 4.2) at equilibrium?

A. None
B. ~17%
C. ~33%
D. ~67^
E. ~100%

D. ~67%

30

If a drug is 99% protein bound and competition with another drug causes displacement leaving it 98% plasma protein bound - what change has occurred in the "free" plasma concentration of the drug?

A. 100% reduction
B. 50% reduction
C. No change
D. 50% increase
E. 100% increase

E. 100% increase

31

Propanolol (a cardiac beta-blocker) has a high first-pass metabolism. Which of the following do you expect to be true regarding dosages for different formulations of this drug?

A. The oral dose is likely higher than the IV dose
B. The oral dose is likely the same as the IV dose
C. The oral dose is likely lower than the IV dose

A. The oral dose is likely higher than the IV dose

32

Which of the following tissues/organs has a barrier which may result in reduced distribution of drug to that part of the body?
(select more than one response)

A. Aqueous humor
B. Kidney
C. Bone marrow
D. Joints
E. Brain
F. Prostate

A. Aqueous humor
D. Joints
E. Brain
F. Prostate

33

The ADME phase absorption describes drug movement from _ to _.

A. Circulation; the site of administration
B. Circulation; the tissues
C. The site of administration; circulation
D. The tissues; circulation

C. The site of administration; circulation

34

If a drug is a weak base that undergoes active tubular secretion in the kidney for elimination, would you expect a patient with very acidic urine to have increased or decreased excretion of the drug (all other things assumed equal)?

A. Increased, because the drug would be more ionized in the tubules
B. Decreased, because the drug would be more ionized in the tubules
C. Increased, because the drug would be more non-ionized int he tubules.
D. Decreased, because the drug would be more non-ionized in the tubules

A. Increased, because the drug would be more ionized in the tubules

35

If you give double the dose will the half-life (t1/2) change?

No it will not change

36

(Indication of a drug label) Would the use of this product to treat foot-rot in a herd of pigs be considered "extra label?"

A. Yes
B. No

A. Yes

37

What is the best example of a drug that does not have a specific target of action but rather exerts its effect through a direct physical interaction?

Mannitol osmotically drawing water to itself in the vasculature

38

How many mg/mL is a 2% solution of lidocaine?

20 mg/mL

39

We are happy that 1 mL weighs 1 gram, right? S if you have a 13 kg patient who you estimate to have lost 7% of his body weight worth of fluid - how many millimeters of fluid is that?

A. Close 1 mL
B. Close to 100 mL
C. Close to 1/2 L
D. Close to 1 L
E. Close 2 L

D. Close to 1 L

40

Which of the following drug is most likely to lead to tachycardia?

A. Atenolol
B. Glycopyrrolate
C. Neostigmine
D. Bethanechol

B. Glycopyrrolate

41

Which of the following is NOT considered a catecholamine?

A. Atropine
B. Dopamine
C. Epinephrine
D. Norepinphrine

A. Atropine

42

Which of the following would not be described as direct acting?

A. Propantheline
B. Atropine
C. Bethanechol
D. Neostigmine

D. Neostigmine

43

Which of the following drugs is NOT a muscarinic antagonist?

A. Glycopyrrolate
B. Oxybutynin
C. Edrophonium
D. Propantheline

C. Edrophonium

44

Which of the following is not an animal related factor that effects drug disposition?

A. Whether the animal has taken the drug before
B. The age of the animal
C. The dose of the drug the animal takes
D. The breed of the animal
E. Whether the animal has any pre-existing conditions

C. The dose of the drug the animal takes

45

Which of the following is an example of an idiosyncratic drug reaction?

A. Collie having a reaction to ivermectin
B. A dog having a reaction to a toxically high dose of glucocorticoids
C. A cat with liver damage the first time it is given a low dose of griseofulvin
D. A cat whose glaucoma worsens on administration of atropine
E. A young animal with yellowing of the teeth after treatment with tetracyclines

C. A cat with liver damage the first time it is given a low dose of griseofulvin

46

Which type of antagonism is present when one drug alters the ADME process of another drug and reduces its effect?

A. Chemical antagonist
B. Receptor antagonist
C. Pharmacological antagonism
D. Pharmacokinetic antagonism
E. Physiological antagonism

D. Pharmaokinetic antagonism

47

Would you expect this acidic drug to be absorbed from this environment? (Drug pKa = 4.5; ph = 2.5)

A. Yes
B. No

A. Yes

48

A drug has a pKa of 8.5 and is highly ionized in the stomach. Would you expect this drug to be absorbed from an acidic or basic environment?

A. Acidic
B. Basic

B. Basic

49

With which of the following routes of administration would you be most concerned about first-pas metabolism?

A. IV
B. IM
C. SC
D. PO

D. PO

50

Which of the following is not true?

A. The presence of scar tissue of fibrosis can slow absorption across a tissue
B. Enteroheptic circulation is more likely to occur with drugs that are highly water soluble
C. The stratum corneum is the rate-limiting barrier in transdermal absorption
D. Drugs given sublingually bypass the portal vein and go directly into systemic circulation
E. The site of the majority of enteral drug absorption is the small intestine

B. Enteroheptic circulation is more likely to occur with drugs that are highly water soluble

51

Which of the following routes of administration has the fastest rate of absorption?

A. IV
B. IM
C. SC
D. PO

B. IM

52

Which of the following is not true about parenteral drug administration?

A. There is less of a barrier to absorption than there is with drugs given enterally
B. It is invasive process
C. First pass metabolism can cause metabolism of the drug before it reaches systemic circulation
D. Caution needs to be taken when giving IM drugs to food animals
E. Changes in the local environment can affect absorption

C. First pass metabolism can cause metabolism of the drug before it reaches systemic circulation

53

Which of the following does not affect the distribution of a drug int he body?

A. Physiochemical properties of the drug
B. Concentration gradient between blood and tissues
C. Dose of the drug that is given
D. Ratio of blood flow to tissue mass
E. Affinity of the drugs for tissue contituents

C. Dose of the drug that is given

54

Which of the following is not true about plasma protein binding?

A. One drug may displace another form its binding spot on a plasma protein
B. It is saturable process
C. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are in their activated state
D. It is generally a reversible process
E. There may be species differences in the way plasma protein binding occurs

C. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are in their activated state

55

Which of the following is not true about species differences affecting liver metabolism?

A. Birds are the only species that use ornithine as a conjugating agent
B. Pigs lack sulphate enzymes
C. Cats lack glucuronyl transferase
D. Horses lack oxidative enzymes
E. Dogs lack coenzyme A

D. Horses lack oxidative enzymes

56

Which of the following is not matched up correctly?

A. Bioactivation – Prednisone is converted
to its active form prednisolone
B. Lethal synthesis – Ethylene glycol is
harmless until it reaches the liver and is
converted to its more harmful
metabolites
C. Bioactivation– Morphine is an active
drug and is converted to the active
metabolite morphine-6-gluronide
D. Lethal synthesis – Cefpodoxine exerts no
effect until it is converted to its active
form cefpodoxime
E. Bioactivation– Lidocaine is 99%
metabolized on its first pass through the
liver

D. Lethal synthesis – Cefpodoxine exerts no
effect until it is converted to its active
form cefpodoxime

57

Which of the following would not
affect the rate of renal drug excretion?

A. Increased cardiac output
B. Urine pH
C. Liver disease
D. Degree of protein binding
E. Blood pH

E. Blood pH

58

Which of the following is not true about excretion?

A. Certain drugs may be excreted
relatively unchanged
B. Withholding times are necessary
for certain food animals because
some drugs may be excreted in
eggs or milk
C. Exhalation can be considered a
form of excretion
D. Very lipophilic drugs that are
excreted in the bile are highly
likely to undergo first pass
metabolism
E. Renal excretion is influenced by
GFR

D. Very lipophilic drugs that are
excreted in the bile are highly
likely to undergo first pass
metabolism

59

Drug A is a weak base with a pKa of 8.5. It makes its way into
the small intes6ne where the pH is 7.5. Would you expect a
higher percentage of this drug to be ionized or nonionized?

A. Ionized
B. Non-ionized

A. Ionized

60

Drug A is a weak base with a pKa of 8.5. It makes its way
into the small intestine where the pH is 7.5. Would you
expect the drug to be absorbed in this environment?

A. Yes
B. No

B. No

61

Which of the following would not
decrease the effect of Drug A?

A. Drug B preferentially binds
to the same receptor as
Drug A
B. Drug B displaces Drug A
from plasma proteins
C. Drug B induces liver
enzymes that metabolize
Drug A
D. Drug B slows the
absorption of Drug A into
the blood stream

B. Drug B displaces Drug A
from plasma proteins

62

Which of the following tends to be the rate limiting
step of absorption with drugs given enterally?

A. Suspension
B. Dispersion
C. Dissolution
D. Disintegration
E. Metabolism

C. Dissolution

63

Which of the following will not make it easier for
drugs to diffuse across membranes?

A. Drug is nonionized
B. Drug is protein bound
C. Drug particle size is small
D. Drug is lipophilic
E. Drug is moving down its
concentration gradient

B. Drug is protein bound

64

Which of the following is not true?

A. Organs with greater blood flow tend
to have a higher drug distribution
B. A more lipid soluble drug is more
likely to cross a specialized
membrane like the blood brain
barrier
C. Changes in metabolism and
excretion can have an effect on drug
distribution
D. A plasma bound drug is more likely
to cross a specialized membrane like
the blood brain barrier
E. Sterochemistry of a drug can affect
the way it is distributed in the body

D. A plasma bound drug is more likely
to cross a specialized membrane like
the blood brain barrier

65

Which of the following is a hepatic
enzyme inducer?

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Cimetidine
C. Kale
D. Grapefruit juice
E. Atropine

C. Kale

66

What is the most common type of synthetic
reaction in hepatic metabolism?

A. Oxidative
B. Reductive
C. Hydrolytic
D. Ionic
E. Conjugative

A. Oxidative

67

Which of the following is true?

A. Most of the drugs used in
veterinary medicine follow zero
order kinetics
B. IV drugs have the fastest
absorption
C. Two drugs with a similar Cmax and
Tmax can be considered to be
bioequivalent
D. Half-life can be measured in drugs
following either first order or zero
order kinetics
E. Bioavailability is higher with drugs
given PO than with drugs given IM

C. Two drugs with a similar Cmax and
Tmax can be considered to be
bioequivalent

68

A drug has a half-life of 10 hours. When will this
drug have effectively reached steady state?

A. 5 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 25 hours
D. 50 hours
E. 75 hours

D. 50 hours

69

Which of the following will not affect the
bioavailability of a drug?

A. Route of administration
B. How quickly the drug is
absorbed
C. First pass metabolism
D. The formulation of the
drug
E. Number of time a day the
drug is given

E. Number of time a day the
drug is given

70

Ampicillin has a Vd of 0.6L/kg in the dog. If 40mg/kg is given
IV what would be the plasma concentra@on of Ampicillin
shortly after injection?

A. 667mg/L
B. 66.7mg/L
C. 6.7mg/L
D. 67mg/L

B. 66.7mg/L

71

Drug A and Drug B both have the same volume of distribution. Drug A
has a clearance rate of 3mL/kg/min and Drug B has a clearance rate of
8mL/kg/min. What can we tell about the half life of the two drugs?

A. Drug A has a longer half-life
B. Drug B has a longer half-life
C. The half-life of the two drugs is
the same
D. There is not enough information
to tell us anything about the
half-life of the drugs

A. Drug A has a longer half-life

72

Total body clearance of an antibiotic in a dog is 80 mL/min and the apparent volume of
distribution is 40 L. If you wish to give the dog a loading dose to achieve the
therapeutic drug concentration of 4 mg/L rapidly, how much should be given?

A. 0.1mg
B. 10mg
C. 115mg
D. 160mg

D. 160 mg

73

You prescribe a drug for a 4kg dog that has a dose band of 1 10mg tablet for
1-10kg and 2 10mg tablets for 11-20kg. The client is supposed to give the dog
one tablet in the morning and one at night but accidentally gave both doses of
the drug at once. They call to tell you what happened. What do you tell them?

A. Bring the dog in immediately to induce vomiting
B. Keep a close eye on the dog to see if anything happens and bring it
in if it seems to have a reaction
C. Come in to pick up another tablet to give the dog another dose that
night
D. Do nothing and do not give the dog another dose of the drug that
night
E. Bring the dog in for close monitoring to make sure it does not have
an adverse reaction

C) Come in to pick up another tablet to give the dog another dose that
night

74

Which of the following is true?

A. All veterinary drugs must be
>90% effective to be approved
B. A vaccine is an example of a
veterinary drug
C. Veterinary drugs are regulated
by either the USDA or the FDA
depending on their indication
D. A drug to treat osteoarthritis
can be considered effective even
if the patient is still lame after
taking it
E. A veterinary drug must have an
efficacy claim for all indications,
including those not listed on the
label

D. A drug to treat osteoarthritis
can be considered effective even
if the patient is still lame after
taking it

75

What is the maximum safe dose and the
minimum effective dose of a drug with the
dose bands 2mg for 1-5kg and 4mg for 6-10kg?
A. Max safe: 1, Min effective: 1
B. Max safe: 1, Min effective: .2
C. Max safe: 2, Min effective: .5
D. Max safe: 2, Min effective: .4
E. Max safe: 3, Min effective: .4

D. Max safe: 2, Min effective: .4

76

Which type of receptors are G-protein coupled and
transduce an extracellular signal to an intracellular
one?

A. Ionotropic receptors
B. Metabotropic receptors
C. Kinase coupled receptors
D. Nuclear receptors

B. Metabotropic receptors

77

Compared to a full agonist, a partial agonist can
generally be assumed to have which of the
following?

A. A lower efficacy compared to a
full agonist
B. A lower potency compared to a
full agonist
C. An ability to act as an inverse
agonist
D. A tendency to cause receptor
down-regulation

A. A lower efficacy compared to a
full agonist

78

Which of the following is true if Drug A is more
potent than Drug B?

A. Drug A has a stronger maximum
effect than Drug B
B. Drug A requires a smaller
concentration to reach its
maximum effect than Drug B
C. Drug A has a higher EC50 than
Drug B
D. Drug A and Drug B have the
same maximum effect

B. Drug A requires a smaller
concentration to reach its
maximum effect than Drug B

79

A 4 year old MN labrador present to your clinic after being hit by a car. The dog is lame in its back legs. During examination you note lack of reflexes and lack of pain in the back legs and determine there are LMN signs. You localize the lesion to L3-S3. Which drug could help in this situation?

A. Atropine
B. Bethanecol
C. Neostigmine
D. Aminopentamide
E. Edrophonium

B. Bethanecol

80

Which of the following drugs can be used to distinguish between cholinergic and myasthenic crisis?

A. Neostigmine
B. Bethanechol
C. Edrophronium
D. Pyridostigmine
E. Atropine

C. Edrophronium

81

Which of the following is true?

A. Both atropine and glycopyrrolate cross the blood­‐brain-barrier
B. Glycopyrrolate has a slower onset of action and
longer duration of action than atropine
C. Atropine is direct acting while
glycopyrrolate is indirect
D. Atropine can be given IV but glycopyrrolate can only be given SC
E. Both atropine and glycopyrrolate are indicated for treatment of glaucoma

B. Glycopyrrolate has a slower onset of action and
longer duration of action than atropine
C. Atropine is direct acting while

82

You are monitoring a horse under general anesthesia. While keeping an eye on the monitor your notice the horse's heart rate drops and it becomes bradycardic. This is not life threatening at this point but you would like to correct it. Which drug do you think would be the best choice?

A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Dopamine
E. Dobutamine

E. Dobutamine

83

Which of these drugs is least likely to cause an inotropic effect at normal dose?

A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Isoproteranol
E. Dobutamine

B. Norepinephrine

84

Which of the following can be used to reverse organophosphate toxicity?

A. Neostigmine
B. Suggammadex
C. Atropine
D. Glycopyrrolate
E. Bethanecol

C. Atropine

85

What is the PO AUC of a drug with a bioavailability of 33.3% and an IV AUC of 1500?

A. 100
B. 250
C. 500
D. 750
E. 1000

C. 500

86

If the volume of distribution of a drug is 5L, what would you predict the initial plasma drug concentration to be after a dose of 50 mg is given IV?

A. 0.001 mg/mL
B. 0.01 mg/mL
C. 0.1 mg/mL
D. 10 mg/mL
E. 100 mg/mL

B. 0.01 mg/mL

87

Which of the following is not true about volume distribution?

A. Giving a higher dose of a drug will increase the volume of distribution
B. A larger volume of distribution suggests that the drug is distributed to other compartments outside of the blood stream
C. Volume of distribution is the volume a drug would occupy if it was evenly distributed throughout a compartment at the same concentration as in plasma
D. A drug with a larger volume of distribution will have a longer half-life
E. A drug with a faster clearance will have a larger volume of distribution.

E. A drug with a faster clearance will have a larger volume of distribution.

88

Which type of receptors result in the production of a completely new protein when they are activated?

A. Ionotropic
B. Metabotropic
C. Ligand
gated
D. Nuclear
E. Kinase
coupled

D. Nuclear

89

Which of the following values corresponds to the concentration of drug required to reach the desired effect in 50% of the population?

A. Emax
B. Therapeutic
index
C. Potency
D. EC50
E. ED50

E. ED50

90

All of the following are cautions with atropine except?

A. Cycloplegia can cause horses to panic
B. Decreased secretions can cause sticky saliva in cows
C. Can cause hypersalivation in cats
D. Rabbits metabolize it slowly and this can lead to overdose
E. All of the above are cautions with atropine

D. Rabbits metabolize it slowly and this can lead to overdose

91

Which of the following drugs is best indicated for a dog with GI spasms?

A. Aminopentamide
B. Oxybutynin
C. Neostigmine
D. Bethanechol
E. Edrophonium

A. Aminopentamide

92

All of the following drugs are involved in the treatment of myasthenia gravis except?

A. Neostigmine
B. Edrophonium
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Physostigmine

D. Physostigmine

93

Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for use in a severe anaphylactic reaction?

A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Dopamine
E. Dobutamine

A. Epinephrine