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Flashcards in exam 1 drugs Deck (176):
1

what is the most cardiotoxic local anesthetic

Bupivicaine

2

what is a drug toxic to dogs

Naproxen

3

causes heinz body anemia in cats

Benzocaine

4

3 drugs toxic to kittens

benzocaine
apomorphine
acetominophen

5

2 drugs that relax the detrusor muscle

oxybutynin
propantheline

6

contracts the detrusor muscle

bethanechol

7

contracts the internal urethral sphincter

PPA (with estrogen) -- alpha 1 agonist

8

relaxes the internal urethral sphincter

phenoxybenzamine
prazosin

**alpha 1 antagonists

9

non selective Beta agonists for feed efficiency and weight gain

zilpaterol and ractopamine

10

selective beta agonists are primarily used as _____ and for treatment of ______ disease

bronchodilators

lower respiratory diseases

11

the most B2 selective agonist

Albuterol

12

drug commonly put into inhalers

albuterol -- a selective beta 2 agonist sympathomimetic

13

least B2 selective agonist

Clenbuterol - not for food animals

14

contraindications for using selective beta agonists

patients with cardiovascular disease -- may cause cardiac stimulation and tachycardia

15

used to treat rumen atony

Neostigmine

16

T/F
Neostigmine is an indirect parasympatholytic drug

FALSE -- indirect parasympathoMIMETIC

also it is reversible

17

Direct acting parasympathomimetic drug used to stimulate detrusor muscle contractions

bethanecol

18

which has a longer duration: Neostigmine or pryidostigmine

pyridostigmine (8-12 hours)

19

used for long term MG maintenance in dogs

Pyridostigmine

20

used as a tensilon test for MG in dogs

Edrophonium

21

T/F
Neostigmine, Pyridostigmine, and Edrophonium are all indirect acting parasympathomimetics and are all reversible

TRUE

22

Parasympathomimetic that can cause severe cholinergic crisis

edrophonium

23

used to treat organophosphate toxicity

atropine

24

T/F
you can give a rabbit atropine effectively

FALSE

25

What does atropine treat

bradycardia
cardiac arrest
cholinergic crisis

26

T/F
it is common to see a drop in HR before the rise when injected with atropine

TRUE

27

What are the contraindications of atropine

gluacoma
MG
tachycardia

28

T/F
atropine can cross the BBB

TRUE

29

list 4 indirect acting parasympatholytic drugs

1. atropine
2. glycopyrrolate
3. oxybutynin
4. propantheline

30

What 2 parasympatholytic drugs DO NOT cross the BBB

glycopyrrolate
propantheline

31

what 2 drugs are useful for relaxing the detrusor muscle and refilling the bladder if it is hyperactive

oxybutynin
propantheline

32

You have a dog with ileus, tachycardia, and gluacoma what 2 drugs do you not want to use

oxybutynin
propantheline

33

this causes the MOST vasocontriction to the kidneys

norepinephrine

34

this is a potent vasodilator

Nitric oxide

35

the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS

GABA

36

drug that acts like atropine but will cause less CNS effects

glycopyrrolate

37

2 drugs used to treat urinary retention due to hypertonicity

phenoxybenzamine
prazosin

38

can treat feline idiopathic cystitis

prazosin

39

which one has a faster onset
phenoxybenzamine
prazosin

prazosin

40

T/F
phenoxybenzamine is a reversible sympatholytic

FALSE -- irreversible

41

T/F
prazosin can treat congestive heart failure

true

42

This drug can treat feline hyperthyroidism

propanolol

43

T/F
propanolol can cross the BBB

TRUE

44

used for stall rest in equines

reserpine

45

mode of action of Reserpine

blocks NE uptake into vesicles which reduces storage of NE and leads to mediator depletion

46

is reserpine direct or indirect sympatholytic

INDIRECT

47

2 indirect sypatholytics that can treat hypertension in humans

alpha methyl dopa

guanethidine

48

an ultra short acting Beta 1 antagonist that is used for IV control of supreventricular arrhythmias

esmolol

49

non selective beta antagonoist

propanolol

50

beta 1 selective antagonist with a longer half life than propanolol

atenolol

51

what form is atenolol given as

PO only

52

Five direct acting sympathomimetics

epinephrine
norepinephrine
isoproterenol
dopamin
dobutamine

53

has competitive agonism at all adrenergic receptors

epinephrine

54

treat cardiopulmonary arrest and anaphylaxis

EPINEPHRINE

55

T/F
epinephrine should be given orally and can be used as an every day drug

FALSE -- emergency only / not oral

56

drug with alpha 1 agonism and no beta 2 activity

norepinephrine

57

a vasopressor than can also treat septic shock

norepinephrine

58

has a strong baroreceptor response

norepinephrine

59

What must be done to an IV infusion of isoproterenol

titrated

60

dopamine at a high dose acts on what receptors

alpha 1 agonism

61

dopamine at a medium dose acts on what receptors

beta 1 agonism

62

dopamine at a low dose acts on what receptors

dopamine agonism

63

what drug:
IV infusion has the potential for necrosis if extravasation occurs

dopamine

64

T/F
dopamine directly stimulates NE release

FALSE -- indirectly

65

potent non specific beta agonist with no alpha receptor activity

isoproterenol

66

can treat bronchial asthma and bronchodilation

isoproterenol

67

used to maintain cardiac output and perfusion to tissues

dobutamine

68

synthetic beta 1 agonist

dobutamine

69

used to treat small animal urinary incontinence

phenylpropanolamine PPA

70

CRI to maintain BP during anesthesia

ephedrine

**mixed sympathomimetic

71

used to increase feed efficiency and weight gain

Ractopamine and zilpaterol

72

T/F
ractopamine and zilpaterol have synergism with estrogen

TRUE

73

this direct acting, non-catecholamine sympathomimetic does not have any B2 activity so it can cause severe bradycardia if given

phenylephrine

74

can be used topically to treat hemorrhages

phenylephrine

75

can be used to reverse non-depolarizing NMBs

edrophonium

76

needs a good pre-existing vagal tone to give this cholinesterase

pryidostigmine

77

what nociception pathways does local anesthetics targer

transduction
transmission
modulation

78

what nociception pathways does NSAIDS target

tranduction
modulation

79

what nociception pathways do opioids target

transduction
modulation
perception

80

modulation is in the ________ of the spinal cord

dorsal horn

81

exaggerated perception of pain

hyperalgesia

82

thinking something that isnt painful is painful

allodynia

83

another name for modulation

central pain sensitization

84

local anesthetic with the fastest onset of action

lidocaine

85

between amides and esters which has the longer half life

amides

86

between amides and esters which is metabolized in the liver and which is hydrolyzed by plasma esterases

liver = amides

plasma esterases = esters

87

antagonist at the prostaglandin E2 EP4 receptor

Grapiprant

88

what pathway of nociception does grapirant target

modulation

89

T/F
Grapiprant is a cox inhibiting analgesic

FALSE

90

blocks pain without reducing PGE2 production so there are less adverse effects

Grapiprant

91

neural steroid used in dogs, cats, horses as an anti-hyperalgesic

Gabapentin

**renal excreted so beware in renal failure kitty

92

can treat neuropathic pain, dorsal horn wind up, and is a good adjunct for chronic pain

amantadine

93

anti-viral drug with NMDA receptor antagonist properties

amantadine

94

most common vet anesthetic

lidocaine

95

T/F
local anesthetics can cross the lipid membrane to the cytoplasm

TRUE -- block propagation of AP by inhibiting the NA influx channels in the cell

96

can be in thoracostomy tubes or wound soaker catheters

bupivicaine

97

risk of phrenic nerve paralysis with this local anesthetic

bupivicaine

98

used in horse nerve blocks and to localize lameness

mepivicaine

99

topical/ophthalmic dropper drug

proparacaine

100

has a rapid onset and a short duration and can have toxic effects to the cornea over time

proparacaine

101

not used as a local anesthetic but is in some penicillin preparations

procaine

102

what can happen if you give procaine IV

CNS stimulant -- seizures

103

very toxic local anesthetic ester for cats

benzocaine

104

T/F
NSAIDS are weak bases

FALSE -- weak acids

105

what should you never use with NSAIDS

steroids

106

where are NSAIDS metabolized

liver - hepatic metabolism

107

T/F
NSAIDS can cross the BBB

TRUE

108

what is the Vd for NSAIDS

LOW

109

why is the Vd so low for NSAIDS

because they are highly protein bound

110

what are the best methods for giving NSAIDS

PO of IM -- not IV

111

list 6 selective COX 2 inhibitors

carprofen
deracoxib
rebenocoxib
firocoxib
meloxicam
piroxicam

112

antineoplastic drug

piroxicam

113

single dose injection for USA cats

meloxicam

114

selective Cox-1 inhibtior

aspirin

115

how does aspirin work

irreversible thromboxane A2 inhibition -- blood can clot

116

non selective cox inhibitors

phenylbutazone
flunixin meglumine

117

common to treat musculoskeletal pain in horses

phenylbutazone -- also called bute

banned in dairy cattle

118

can cause muscle necrosis if given IM in horses

flunixin meglumine

119

T/F
if it a good idea to give a dog flunixin meglumine

false

120

intracarotid injections of flunixin meglumine will cause...

seizures

121

analgesic for visceral pain in cattle, acute pulmonary emphysema, and colin in horses

flunixin meglumine

122

how is flunixin meglumine usually given

PO

123

how is bute typically given

PO or IV

124

adverse effect of using BUTE in dogs

bleeding and bone marrow suppression

125

NSAIDS are a good post operative analgesia??

NO -- could cause hypotension

126

T/F
NSAIDS may be distributed in milk

TRUE

127

which is more potent
glucocorticoids or NSaIDS

glucocorticoids

128

T/F
NSAIDS only provide analgesia when inflammation is present

FALSE -- can do it with or without inflammation

129

T/F
biliary excreation and recirculation may be seen with NSAIDS

TRUW

130

T/F
NSAIDS reduce fever, hyperthermia and body temp

FALSE -- only reduce fever

131

most toxic outcome of acetominophen

methemoglobulinemia -- blood disorder

132

what are some of the toxic effects of acetominophen

hepatic necrosis
hemolysis
icterus
anemia
heinz body -- cats !!
facial swelling and edema

133

T/F
acetominophen inhibits COX

FALSE - interferes with the conversion of endoperoxidases to other PGS and Txs

134

T/F
acetominophen has no significant anti-platelet effects

TRUE

135

where are opioid receptors located and what are they

the dorsal horn of the spinal cord and the brain

kappa and mu

136

mu opioid receptors

most common
in the brain, spinal cord, joint capsule
surpraspinal analgesia
euphoria
sedation
GI motility
physical dependence

137

kappa opiod reeotors

dysphoria!!!

138

partial mu antagonist -- has a ceiling effect

Buprenorphine

139

full mu antagonist

naloxone

140

mixed k agonist and mu antagonist

butorphanol

141

what does oral absorption do to opioids

reduces the bioavailability -- high first pass effect

142

T/F
opioids cross the BBB and placenta

TRUE

143

does morphine have a high or low lipid solubility

low

144

most potent full u agonist

fentanyl

**transdermal patch

145

very potent u agonist used in wildlife

carfentanil and etorphine

146

which has more histamine release hydormorphone or morphine

morphine

147

how does opioid tolerance happen

if the Ca channels remain open despite the presence of an opioid

148

how are opioids mainly metabolized

by conjugation to glucuronic acid

**cats are deficient so they will metabolize slower

149

T/F
opioids are for visceral analgesia

TRUE

150

what does loperamide do

anti-diarrheal

151

2 antitussive opioids

butorphanol and hydrocodone

152

T/F
methylnaltrexone crosses the BBB

FALSE

153

what drug will reverse the effects of carfentanil and etorphine

Naltrexone

154

a competitive opioid antagonist that will reverse opioid induced adverse effects

Naloxone

**rapid onset and short duration

155

opioid that inhibits seratonin and NE reuptake

Tramadol -- oral analgesic

156

T/F
opioids can cause hyperthermia in cats

TRUEEEE

157

acts on the Dopamine 2 receptors to induce vomiting

apomorphine -- toxic to kitty

158

effects of opioids on the respiratory system

dose dependent depression -- hypovolemia

**risk factors:
critically ill
upper airway obstruction
severe acidemia

159

Why would you choose to use atenolol over propanolol

Atenolol doesn’t have beta-2 effects so would be better if bronchoconstriction is a concern

160

What is a pheochromocytoma and which drug is used to treat it

It is a functional adrenal gland tumor and you would use phenoxybenzamine

161

glutamate receptors???

Increases in glutamate is able to activate normally closed NMDA receptors

It is rapidly removed from the synaptic cleft by glutamate transporters

Important and powerful excitatory NT

162

What would you want to do if you wanted to increase the potency of a local anesthetic

Add carbon molecules to your aromatic ring

163

how do local anesthetics work?

Prevent depolarization and block the propagation of an AP by inhibiting the influx of Na+ through voltage-gated Na+ channels

164

where do you administer local anesthetics

directly to the site of action -- topical or injection

165

what is blocked BEFORE motor transmission

Pain & autonomic transmission

166

T/F
local anesthetics are cardiovascular stimulants

FALSE -- cardiovascular depressants

167

T/F
You want to select COX-1 inhibition over COX-2 inhibition when looking at a particular NSAIDs

FALSE -- – if something is more selective for COX-2 – PICK THESE, they deal with the inflammatory side of things

168

T/F
NSAIDS have antipyretic effects

TRUE

169

T/F
Dogs that express CYP2D15 enzyme metabolize certain NSAIDs (celecoxib) 3X slower than dogs who do not…

FALSE ---- they do it faster

170

T/F
Phenylbutazone (“Bute”) can be given IM/SQ

FALSE !!!

can give IV

171

catecholamine that causes the least amount of vasodilation

norepinephrine

172

drug of choice for bronchial asthma

albuterol -- inhaler

173

used to treat methylxanthine toxicity

propanolol

174

which nociception process is least affected by local anesthetics

perception

175

longest duration amide local anesthetic

bupivicaine

176

probably dont give this drug directly into the thoracic cavity after a patient has had pericardectomy surgery

bupivicaine --- CARDIOTOXIC