Exam 1 - Practice Problems Flashcards Preview

Immunology BLD 434 > Exam 1 - Practice Problems > Flashcards

Flashcards in Exam 1 - Practice Problems Deck (78):
1

A synonym for “epitope” is:
a. antigenic determinant
b. antibody class
c. antibody isotype

a. antigenic determinant

2

Which innate immune cells enter sites of infection in large numbers and form the majority of pus when they die?
a. Macrophages
b. Mast cells
c. Neutrophils

c. Neutrophils

3

A granulocyte found in the blood that usually has a bi-lobed nucleus and large dark purple/black colored granules that obscure the nucleus would be properly called a/an:
a. eosinophil
b. basophil
c. mast cell
d. neutrophil

b. basophil

4

Affinity maturation occurs in:
a. B cells only
b. T cells only
c. B and T cells

a. B cells only

5

Which of the following binds, degrades, and removes microbial proteases from solution?
a. α2-macroglobulins
b. Toll-like receptors
c. Defensins

a. α2-macroglobulins

6

Th cells express what surface proteins/markers?
a. CD3 and CD4
b. CD3 and CD8
c. CD3 and CD20
d. CD19 and CD20

a. CD3 and CD4

7

Where are most T cells located in the spleen?
a. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
b. Lymphoid follicles
c. Red pulp

a. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath

8

What is the function of an “M cell”?
a. Transfer microbes across a mucosal epithelial barrier into associated lymphoid tissue
b. Innate immune cell resident in all peripheral tissues, to initiate inflammation
c. Nurses hematopoietic stem cells to maintain the pool in the bone marrow

a. Transfer microbes across a mucosal epithelial barrier into associated lymphoid tissue

9

What is the best definition of polymorphonuclear?
a. Multinucleate cell created by fusion of multiple smaller cells
b. Multi-lobed nucleus
c. Many proteins created from 1 gene

b. Multi-lobed nucleus

10

Which effector T cell would kill a cell infected with a virus?
a. Th1
b. Th2
c. Tc

c. Tc

11

Which has the greatest variability in antigen recognition?
a. Innate immunity
b. Adaptive immunity
c. Neither (they are equal)

b. Adaptive immunity

12

Naive B lymphocytes can be indemnified by the surface expression of:
a. IgG and IgM
b. IgM and IgD
c. IgG and IgD

b. IgM and IgD

13

Antibody is secreted:
a. BCR
b. TCR
c. MHC

a. BCR

14

Which of the following is an enzyme that makes DNA double-stranded breaks to initiate V-D-J gene rearrangement?
a. RAG
b. TdT
c. CDR

a. RAG

15

How does antigen enter a lymph node?
a. Via blood vessels (i.e. vein)
b. Via afferent lymphatic vessels
c. Via efferent lymphatic vessels

b. Via afferent lymphatic vessels

16

Which antibody isotope is transported into mucus?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM

a. IgA

17

Complement opsonization aids:
a. antibody production
b. local inflammation
c. phagocytosis

c. phagocytosis

18

Which complement protein polymerizes to form the pore that can directly lyse a bacterium?
a. C1q
b. C5a
c. C5b
d. C9

d. C9

19

Process that creates variable coding regions of BCR and TCR:
a. Somatic hypermutation
b. Isotype switching
c. Somatic recombination

c. Somatic recombination

20

Invariant chain is important in controlling peptide loading into:
a. MHC class I
b. MHC class II
c. Both MHC class I and MHC class II

b. MHC class II

21

The TCRβ variable domain coding region is composed of:
a. V and J gene segments
b. V, D, and J gene segments
c. V, J, and C gene segments

b. V, D, and J gene segments

22

Spontaneous hydrolysis of C3 in body fluids initiates the ____ pathway of complement activation
a. alternative
b. classical
c. lectin

a. alternative

23

TNF-α and IL-1β cooperate to:
a. trigger acute phase protein release from liver hepatocytes
b. release more neutrophils from the bone marrow
c. activate local vascular endothelial cells at the site of infection

c. activate local vascular endothelial cells at the site of infection

24

What macrophage cytokine is responsible for septic shock if macrophages throughout the body all are activated to release it simultaneously?
a. IL-1β
b. IL-6
c. TNF-α

c. TNF-α

25

Organ/tissue where B & T lymphocytes are activated by antigen
a. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
b. Primary lymphoid tissue
c. Secondary lymphoid tissue

c. Secondary lymphoid tissue

26

What are the two light chain genes/proteins called?
a. CD19 and CD20
b. Igα and Igβ (alpha and beta)
c. 𝛋 and 𝛌 chains (kappa and lambda)

c. 𝛋 and 𝛌 chains (kappa and lambda)

27

Junction diversity occurs in:
a. BCR only
b. TCR only
c. Both BCR and TCR

c. Both BCR and TCR

28

Interferons play a major role in fighting _____ infections
a. bacterial
b. fungal/yeast
c. viral

c. viral

29

Which antibody isotype is the most abundant in serum and body fluids?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM

b. IgG

30

Which of the following describes the step where all complement pathways converge?
a. Cleavage of C3 to C3a and C3b
b. Cleavage of C5 to C5a and C5b
c. Polymerization of C9 to form the lytic pore in the target cell membrane

a. Cleavage of C3 to C3a and C3b

31

What do iC3bBb and C3bBb have in common?
a. They are not enzymatically active
b. They are C3 convertases of the alternative pathway of complement
c. They are C5 convertases of the alternative pathway of complement

b. They are C3 convertases of the alternative pathway of complement

32

MHC class II interacts with a TCR associated with which T cell co-receptor?
a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD5
d. CD8

b. CD4

33

CC and CXC are signature amino acid motifs of:
a. interferons
b. chemokines
c. defensins

b. chemokines

34

A natural killer cell arises from the:
a. common lymphoid progenitor
b. common erythroid megakaryocytic progenitor
c. common myeloid progenitor

a. common lymphoid progenitor

35

Which of the following processes remove lymphocytes that recognize self anitgens?
a. Clonal selection
b. Negative selection
c. Positive selection

b. Negative selection

36

Define the term “naive lymphocyte”

A mature lymphocyte that has never been stimulated by antigen

37

List the 3 professional antigen presenting cells.

1. B cells
2. Macrophages
3. Dendritic cells

38

List the two main ways in which complement pathway can be activated

1. Inhibit or degrade C3 convertase
2. Prevent assembly of the membrane attack complex

39

𝜁 (zeta) chains are a functional part of the ____ complex
a. BCR
b. TCR
c. MHC class I
d. MHC class II

b. TCR

40

Somatic hypermutation occurs at the RNA level
a. True
b. False

b. False

41

What occurs in primary lymphoid tissues?
a. Lymphocytes create their antigen receptors
b. Lymphocytes are activated by pathogen antigen

a. Lymphocytes create their antigen receptors

42

B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells are all:
a. adaptive immune cells
b. innate immune cells
c. professional antigen-presenting cells
d. immune killer cells

c. professional antigen-presenting cells

43

Which of the following results from B lymphocyte activation?
a. Cell-mediated immunity
b. Humoral immunity
c. Both cell-mediated and humoral immunity

b. Humoral immunity

44

Which polymorphonuclear leukocyte has large orange-pink cytoplasmic granules?
a. Basophils
b. Neutrophils
c. Eosinophils

c. Eosinophils

45

How does a naive lymphocyte enter a lymph node?
a. Afferent lymphatic vessel
b. Efferent lymphatic vessel
c. Blood vessel through HEV

c. Blood vessel through HEV

46

Binding of C3b to a pathogen surface can trigger activation of the ____ pathway of complement.
a. alternative
b. lectin
c. classical

a. alternative

47

The “CD” in CD3 and all other CD proteins stands for:
a. Clusters of differentiation
b. Chemotaxin Detector
c. Common defense

a. Clusters of differentiation

48

The TCR Vβ protein domain is composed of what gene segments?
a. V-J
b. V-D-J

b. V-D-J

49

Macrophages arise from the:
a. common lymphoid progenitor
b. common erythroid-megakaryocyte progenitor
c. common myeloid progenitor

c. common myeloid progenitor

50

Coexpression of multiple genes with the same function in/on the same cell is:
a. polygeny
b. polymorphism
c. allogeneic

a. polygeny

51

Changing the constant heavy chain of antibody is referred to as:
a. isotype switching
b. affinity maturation
c. junctional diversity

a. isotype switching

52

Which of the following is essential for protein peptide loading of MHC class II?
a. Invariant chain
b. Tapasin
c. Calnexin

a. Invariant chain

53

What function do antibody and complement share?
a. Anaphylatoxin
b. Chemoattractant
c. Opsonin

c. Opsonin

54

What size peptides fit into MHC class II peptide-binding grooves?
a. 1-5 amino acids
b. 8-10 amino acids
c. 13-25 amino acids

c. 13-25 amino acids

55

C4b2a3b is:
a. C3 convertase of the alternative pathway
b. C3 convertase of the classical and lectin pathways
c. C5 convertase of the alternative pathway
d. C5 convertase of the classical and lectin pathways

d. C5 convertase of the classical and lectin pathways

56

Removal of potentially harmful lymphocytes with self-reactive antigen receptors is:
a. positive selection
b. negative selection
c. clonal selection

b. negative selection

57

The most abundant class of antibody in serum.
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE

c. IgG

58

IFN-α and IFN-β cause:
a. increase in cell surface expression of MHC class I
b. increase in cell surface expression of MHC class II
c. decrease in cell surface expression of MHC class I
d. decrease in cell surface expression of MHC class II

a. increase in cell surface expression of MHC class I

59

HLA-A, HLA-B and HLA-C are genes coding for:
a. acute phase proteins produced by the liver
b. chaperone proteins for MHC class II peptide loading
c. classical MHC class I proteins

c. classical MHC class I proteins

60

What major cytokine secreted by macrophages triggers the acute phase response?
a. IL-1β
b. IL-6
c. TNF-α

b. IL-6

61

MHC class I interacts with which T cell receptor complex protein?
a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD8

c. CD8

62

P nucleotides and N nucleotides are related to:
a. combinatorial diversity
b. junctional diversity
c. MHC degenerate peptide binding

b. junctional diversity

63

What cells localize to the follicles in secondary lymphoid tissues?
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Both B and T cells

a. B cells

64

Somatic recombination occurs in:
a. B cells only
b. T cells only
c. Both B and T cells

c. Both B and T cells

65

The proteasome is necessary for providing peptides for:
a. MHC class I
b. MHC class II

a. MHC class I

66

This enzyme performs double-stranded DNA cuts/breaks to initiate somatic recombination.
a. CDR
b. RSS
c. RAG
d. TdT

c. RAG

67

Which of the following is most highly polymorphic?
a. HLA-DRα
b. HLA-DRβ
c. HLA-E

b. HLA-DRβ

68

VL +CL would form:
a. antigen-binding domain of antibody
b. antibody light chain
c. antibody heavy chain

b. antibody light chain

69

CRP, C1qrs, C4, and C2 binding/cleavage initiates which complement pathway?
a. Alternative
b. Lectin
c. Classical

c. Classical

70

Affinity maturation occurs in:
a. B cells only
b. T cells only
c. Both B and T cells

a. B cells only

71

The main function of ___ is to “help” macrophages
a. Tc
b. Th1
c. Th2

b. Th1

72

CD3 is found on:
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Both B and T cells

b. T cells

73

Antibody that can be produced as a monomer or dimer, depending upon location where it is made.
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE

a. IgA

74

What term do we use in immunology to refer to a “cell that eats”?

Phagocyte

75

Define: Lymph.

Tissue fluids that originates by squeezing out of blood vessels and drains out of the tissue via lymphatic vessels

76

List the two types of light chains that can be used in humans.

Kappa and lambda

77

Besides acute phase protein production by the liver, what other main effect (body symptom) is accomplished by an acute phase reaction to fight an infection?

Fever
Neutrophil

78

CC and CXC are the signature amino acid motifs of what protein family?

Chemokine