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Flashcards in Exam 2 Deck (168):
1

Which of the following local anesthetics is most likely to cause cardiovascular collapse?

a. Lidocaine
b. Bupivicaine
c. Epinephrine
d. Propofol

b. Bupivicaine

2

Which of the following treatments would be most appropriate for local anesthetic toxicity?

a. Lidocaine
b. Propanolol
c. Lipid emulsion
d. Vasopressin

c. Lipid emulsion

3

All of the following are colloids except:

a. Hetastarch
b. Dextrans
c. Dextrose
d. Plasma

c. Dextrose

4

A 30kg dog lost 200mL of fluid. How much Hypertonic saline would you use to replace this loss?

a. 200mL
b. 600 mL
c. 900 mL
d. 230 mL

b. 600 mL

5

Which of the following fluids can you not give with blood because it contains calcium and will cause it to clot?

a. Normal saline
b. LRS
c. Normosol R
d. Plasmalyte A

b. LRS

6

Which of the following is true regarding fluid therapy in a hypotensive patient?

a. 2/3 of crystalloids remain after diffusing into the intravascular space after 30 minutes
b. Balance electrolyte solutions are used for large volume replacements
c. Colloids (hetastarch) are used peri-operatively
d. Blood transfusions are done to replace electrolyte loss

b. Balance electrolyte solutions are used for large volume replacements

7

True/False: If <10% blood volume is lost you need to give 3x the amount of colloids for the blood loss and the exact amount of crystalloids as the blood loss.

False

** 3x crystalloids for the blood loss and the exact amount of colloids for the blood lost

8

Which of the following is not a replacement crystalloid?

a. Ringer's
b. Plasmalyte M
c. LRS
d. Plasmalyte R

b. Plasmalyte M


**maintenance solution

9

Which of the following is used to increase cardiovascular function and treat cerebral edema?

a. Dextrose 5%
b. Hetastarch
c. 0.9% NaCl (physiologic saline)
d. 7.5% NaCl (hypertonic saline)

d. 7.5% NaCl (hypertonic saline)

10

Which of the following is used to treat hyperkalemic and hyponatremic patients with Addison's disease?

a. Dextrose 5%
b. Hetastarch
c. 0.9% NaCl (physiologic saline)
d. 7.5% NaCl (hypertonic saline)

c. 0.9% NaCl (physiologic saline)

11

Which of the following is not a transfussion trigger?

a. Chronic blood loss with PCV <30%
b. Acute anemia with PCV <20%
c. 10-15% blood volume lost intra-op
c. Hemorrhage >20% blood volume lost

a. Chronic blood loss with PCV <30%

**PCV <15% for chronic anemia

12

Which of the following is fresh up to 8 hours and used in hypovolemic patients secondary to a bleed?

a. Whole blood
b. Packed RBC's
c. Platelet rich plasma
d. Pure plasma

a. Whole blood

13

Which of the following contains all proteins and clotting factors except platelets?

a. Whole blood
b. Packed RBC's
c. Platelet rich plasma
d. Pure plasma

d. Pure plasma

14

Which of the following would be used with a severe bleed in a thrombocytopenic patient?

a. Whole blood
b. Packed RBC's
c. Platelet rich plasma
d. Pure plasma

c. Platelet rich plasma

15

In major cross matching you want to add the ___ plasma/serum to the ____ RBC.

donor to recipient

16

True/False. If you have agglutination with a minor cross match you don't want to tranfuse the patient.

False

**this is for major cross matching

17

You notice that your patient goes into anaphylactic shock after a blood transfusion. What do you want to do next for this patient?

Give them CPR, Epinephrine and Dexamethasone

18

What can you do to treat a patient who became hyperkalemic after a blood transfusion?

Give saline, dextrose and insulin

19

Which of the following breeds are more likely to have a long recovery with thiobarbiturates?

a. Boxers
b. Dobermans
c. Sighthounds
d. German Shepards

c. Sighthounds

20

Which of the following can cause Heinz body anemia in cats?

a. Alfaxalone
b. Etomidate
c. Ketamine
d. Propofol

d. Propofol

21

Which opioids can be given as a premedication to small animals if we suspect chances of vomiting?

Fentanyl and Methadone

22

Which of the following works on the NK1 receptor and works to decrease the risk of vomiting if given 30 mins before an opioid?

a. Fentanyl
b. Methadone
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Cerenia

d. Cerenia

23

Which of the following can be given with IM premeds when removing a mast cell tumor becasue of its release of histamine?

a. Fentanyl
b. Methadone
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Cerenia

c. Diphenhydramine

24

A cat ends up blind after a dental. What can you implement in your practice in the future to prevent this from happening again?

a. Use lidocaine when intubating
b. Discontinue the use of mouth gags
c. Don't give propofol as an induction drug
d. None of the above

b. Discontinue the use of mouth gags

25

All of the following can be used in combination with an alpha 2 and opioid for an aggressive dog except:

a. Telazol
b. Ketamine
c. Atropine
d. Alfaloxone

c. Atropine

26

True/False: All opioids can cause post-operative hyperthermia in cats.

True

27

Which two opioids are preferred in cats over morphine and hydromorphone becasue they decrease excitement?

Methadone and Oxymorphone

28

Which agents make up "kitty magic"?

Ketamine, alpha 2 and an opioid

29

What can you use in cats when intubating them to decreases the chances of damaging the larynx and casuing laryngopsams?

Lidocaine

30

Which of the following is an effective drug to use in a hypotensive cat?

a. Ketamine
b. Propofol
c. Dopamine
d. Dobutamine

c. Dopamine

31

Which of the following is an appropriate drug for equine induction?

a. Ketamine
b. Alfaxalone
c. Etomidate
d. Propofol

a. Ketamine

32

Which agents make up "Triple Drip" in horses?

Ketamine
GGE
Xylazine/Romifidine

33

True/False: Mechanical ventilation is required in equine procedures that are more than 45 minutes.

True

34

Which of the following is not known to casue malignant hyperthermia?

a. Halothane
b. Isoflurane
c. Propofol
d. NMBD

c. Propofol

35

Which drug is the treatment of choice for malignant hyperthermia?

Dantrolene

36

An aggressive dog is given Ketamine, Telazol, and Alfaxalone and suddenly collapses. His HR was 45 and RR was 6 bpm. What is the next thing that you should do?

a. Reverse with Naloxone
b. Intubate and give 100% O2
c. Perform CPR
d. Panic becuase you don't know what to do

b. Intubate and give 100% O2

37

After performing a cranial cruciate repaire in a dog you notice that he is becoming more distressed after surgery even after giving him more opioids. What do you want to do for this patient?

a. He is dysphoric you want to give more opioids
b. He is in pain you want to reverse or decrease the opioid dose
c. He is dysphoric you want to give him Butorphanol to reverse opioid effects
d. He is in pain and you want to increase the opioid dose

c. He is dysphoric you want to give him Butorphanol

38

What is the first line of treatment for large volume replacement fluids?

Balanced electrolyte solutions

39

Which of the following is true about transfusions?

a. Cats can have a fatal reaction even with the first transfusion
b. You don't need to crossmatch cats before a transfusion
c. DEA 1.2 is the universal donor for dogs
d. If you see agglutination its ok to transfuse

a. Cats can have a fatal reaction even with the first transfusion

40

What is the normal blood volume in a canine patient?

a. 60 mL/kg
b. 70 mL/kg
c. 80 mL/kg
d. 90 mL/kg

d. 90 mL/kg

41

What do you want to do for a dog whose EtCO2 is 50mmHg?

a. Give more Opioid
b. Increase your inhalant anesthetic
c. Delay extubation and continue IPPV
d. Nothing this is within normal ranges

c. Delay extubation and continue IPPV

42

Which of the following is not a proper way to treat a dog who is hypoxemic while under anesthesia?

a. Perform IPPV and turn up O2
b. Put them in lateral recumbency with the good lung up
c. Warm them with a bair hugger
d. Address the underlying cause

b. Put them in lateral recumbency with the good lung up

**sternal recumbency

43

True/False. Ruminants will try to stand on their own when they're not really ready during the recovery phase.

False

**true for equine

44

Which of the following is not a common recovery complication in horses?

a. Hypoxemia
b. Hyperventilation
c. Hypothermia
d. Hypoperfusion

b. Hyperventilation


**HYPOventilation

45

If your total ear canal ablation (TECA) patient woke up vocalizing and struggling, what would be an appropriate response?

a. Give naloxone
b. Give hydromorphone
c. Give buprenorphine
d. Give dexmedetomidine
e. B or D

e. B or D

46

Which of the following is not a consequence of hypothermia?

a. Discomfort, pain and poor healing
b. Rapid recovery
c. Increased O2 demand
d. None of the above are consequences

b. Rapid recovery

47

What would be some differentials for a prolonged recovery in a horse?

a. Hypothermia
b. Anemia
c. Myopathy
d. Hypocalcemia
e. All the above

e. All the above

48

Which of the following tells you a horse is too deep in anesthesia?

a. Tachycardic and Hypotensive
b. Blinking and apnea
c. Nystagmus and lacrimation
d. Dry cornea/ no corneal reflex

d. Dry cornea/ no corneal reflex

49

What do you want to be aware of when extubating swine?

Laryngospasms

50

Which of the following is used to anesthetize amphibians and fish?

a. Succinylcholine
b. MS-222
c. Gallamine
d. Ketamine

b. MS-222

51

Which animal has a palatine ostium making it hard to intubate them?

a. Rats
b. Snakes
c. Guinea pigs
d. Mice

c. Guinea pigs

52

Which of the following drugs can't be use to immobilize crocodiles?

a. Gallamine
b. Succinylchoine
c. Neostigmine
d. Atropine

c. Neostigmine

53

True/False. It takes longer to induce chelonians because they hold their breathe with gas anesthetics.

True

54

Which of the following is false regarding the anatomy and physiology of ectotherms?

a. They have a three chambered heart and only 1 ventricle
b. They have dual supply to the kidney so you want to avoid IM injections
c. They don't have a diaphram and breathe with intercostal pectoral and abdominal muscles
d. They have incomplete cartilaginous rings

d. They have incomplete cartilaginous rings

**they're complete

55

Which of the following immobilization drugs is best to use for wild carnivores?

a. Cyclohexamines
b. Alpha 2 agonists
c. Opioids
d. Benzydiazepines

a. Cyclohexamines

56

Which of the follwoing has the greatest effect on dart impact trauma?

a. Size fo the animal
b. Size of the dart
c. Velocity of the dart
d. None of the above

c. Velocity of the dart

57

Which of the following immobilization drugs is best to use for mega herbivores?

a. Cyclohexamines
b. Alpha 2 agonists
c. Opioids
d. Benzydiazepines

c. Opioids

58

What is the range of a blow pipe?

a. 4 meters
b. 50 meters
c. 25 meters
d. 15 meters

d. 15 meters

59

Which protein contributes most to colloid oncotic pressure?

Albumin

60

Which of the following do you worry about most when giving a local anesthetic to avians because of the dive response?

a. Increased heart rate makes it absorb faster
b. It takes longer for the drug to work because they hold their breath
c. They have a faster induction and recovery with Isoflurane
d. They will have a tachycardia with the dive response

b. It takes longer for the drug to work because they hold their breath

61

Which of the following bones is used for intraosseus injections in birds?

a. Ulna
b. Humerus
c. Radius
d. None of the above

a. Ulna

62

Which of the following is true regarding avian respiratory system?

a. Their epiglottis and vocal cords are easily visualized due to the incomplete tracheal rings
b. Their air sacs are used for oxygen exchange
c. They have an expandable air sac system that is responsible for ventilation and rigid lungs for gas exchange
d. Ventilation and gas exchange occur in the same compartment

c. They have an expandable air sac system that is responsible for ventilation and rigid lungs for gas exchange

63

Where does gas exchange occur in avian species?

a. Parabronchial lung
b. Primary bronchi
c. Secondary bronchi
d. Primary alveoli

a. Parabronchial lung

64

What procedures are NMBD's indicated for in veterinary medicine?

a. Rib fractures
b. Lung transplants
c. Corneal and intraocular
d. None of the above

c. Corneal and intraocular

65

Which of the following increases the effects of NMBD's?

a. Hypothermia
b. Decreased electrolytes
c. Inhalant anesthesia
d. All the above

d. All the above

66

Which of the following is true regarding NMBD's

a. Causes paralysis of striated muscles
b. Work at the spinal cord
c. Provide analgesia
d. Causes unconsciousness

a. Causes paralysis of striated muscles

67

What is the most important equipment to have when using NMBD's?

Mechanical ventilation

68

Which of the following is the correct order of blockage for NMBD's?

a. Face, diaphragm, abdominal muscles, distal limbs
b. Neck, intercostals, proximal limbs, distal limbs
c. Eyes, Distal limbs, Intercostals, Abdominal muscles
d. Face, diaphragm, distal limbs, proximal limb, abdominal muscles, intercostals

d. Face, diaphragm, distal limbs, proximal limb, abdominal muscles, intercostals

69

Which of the following receptors do NMBD's act on?

a. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
b. Nicotonic acetylcholine receptors
c. Muscarinic antagonists
d. Beta agonists

b. Nicotonic acetylcholine receptors

70

Which of the following is not used in dairy cattle to avoid residues in milk that are toxic to people?

a. Phenylbutazone
b. Ketoprofen
c. Flunixin Meglamine
d. Galliprant

a. Phenylbutazone

71

Which of the following is contraindicated in cats because it causes methemoglobinemia?

a. Meloxicam
b. Carpofen
c. Acetominophen
d. Robenacoxib

c. Acetominophen

72

What are you concerened most about with a patient under anesthesia on NSAID's?

a. Hypotension and Renal damage
b. Cardiovascular damage
c. Increased effects of inflammation
d. Decreased CV load

a. Hypotension and Renal damage

73

What is the mechanism of action of dobutamine?

a. Beta antagonist
b. Beta agonism
c. Alpha agonist
d. Dopamine antagonist

b. Beta agonism

74

Which of the following describes the side effects of phenylephrine, a potent alpha 1 agonist?

a. Tachycardia and vasoconstriction
b. Vasodilation and bradycardia
c. Decrease cardiac output and perfusion
d. Bronchodilation and increased cardiac output

c. Decrease cardiac output and perfusion

75

What do you give a patient that is experiencing asystole?

a. Lidocaine
b. Defibrillation
c. Epinephrine
d. Norepinephrine

c. Epinephrine

**you can also use vasopressor

76

There is an apneic unresponsive cat in the recovery room, all rates are normal. What do you want to do next?

a. Chest compressions at 100-120 per minute
b. Monitor with a doppler
c. Give dopamine
d. Cardiac massage

a. Chest compressions at 100-120 per minute

77

Which of the following drugs doesn't cause vasoconstriction?

a. Ephedrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Dobutamine
d. Vasopressin

c. Dobutamine

78

All of the following work on beta receptors except:

a. Dobutamine
b. Isoproterenol
c. Phenylephrine
d. Epinephrine

c. Phenylephrine

79

Which of the following increases inotropy and has minimal effects on chronotropy?

a. Dobutamine
b. Isoproterenol
c. Phenylephrine
d. Epinephrine

a. Dobutamine

80

A beagle is presented for OHE surgery you note that her BP is 75 mmHg, HR is 45 bpm, RR = 12 bpm. What is the appropriate treatment for this case?

a. Acepromazine
b. Butorphanol
c. Atropine
d. Morphine

c. Atropine

**Patient is hypotensive secondary to bradycardia

81

Which of the following is useful topically for nasal edema in horses?

a. Dobutamine
b. Isoproterenol
c. Phenylephrine
d. Epinephrine

c. Phenylephrine

82

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for ventricular arrhythmias?

a. Esmolol
b. Dopamine
c. Ephedrine
d. Lidocaine

d. Lidocaine

83

Which of the following is not used in a canine ovariohistorectomy?

a. Hydromorphone
b. Morphine
c. Butorphanol
d. Methadone

c. Butorphanol

84

Which of the following is not an effect of hypothermia?

a. Decreased MAC
b. Increased MAC
c. Increased O2 demand
d. Decreased recovery rate

b. Increased MAC

85

Which of the following is false regarding chest compressions?

a. For an apneic paitnet you want to assess them first for 6-10 minutes before starting your 2 minute uninterrupted cycles
b. You want the animal in lateral recumbency
c. You want to use the heel of your hands with your elbows locked perpendicular to patient
d. 120-200 per minute at 1/3 -1/2 thorax width is what you want to achieve

d. 120-200 per minute at 1/3 -1/2 thorax width is what you want to achieve

**100-120

86

Which theory is used in your narrow deep chested dogs and is directly compressing the ventricles?

Cardiac pump theory

87

True/False: Doxopram is the drug of choice for your animals that are in cardiopulmonary arrest.

False

**NO doxopram

88

Which of the following is true regarding cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

a. The animal should be placed in sternal recumbency when ventilating
b. You want to intubate the animal immediately when you stop giving compressions
c. Use the ambu bag/ anesthesia machine to administer 10 breaths/minute with 100% O2
d. EtCO2 indicates adequacy of cardiac compressions and should be >30-45 mmHg

c. Use the ambu bag/ anesthesia machine to administer 10 breaths/minute with 100% O2

89

The ____ theory increases intrathoracic pressure and is used in round chest animals.

Thoracic pump theory

90

What are the two most common arrest rhythms seen in veterinary medicine?

Aystole and Pulseless Electrical Activity

91

What should you do immediately for a shockable rhythm like ventricular fibrillation/ tachycardia?

Defibrillation

92

True/False: When defibrillating a patient with vfib they should be in lateral recumbency.

False

**dorsal recumbency

93

Which of the following is matched incorrectly based on the reversal agents for drug groups?

a. Naloxone: opioids
b. Benzo's: Flumazenil
c. Alpha 2: Sarmazenil
d. All the above are correctly matched

c. Alpha 2: Sarmazenil


**Atipemazole

94

Which of the following is true about local anesthetics?

a. Acidic tissue inreases ionized form which is active
b. Local anesthetics work by blocking sodium channels
c. They have a slower onset and long duration of action
d. It will make depolarization faster so you have more action potentials

b. Local anesthetics work by blocking sodium channels

95

Which of the following is a characteristic of equine pain behaviors?

a. Praying position
b. Flared nostrils and tense muzzle
c. Braxium and decreased appetite
d. Head tilt and squinting eyes

b. Flared nostrils and tense muzzle

96

Which of the following nerves should be blocekd for a procedure involving the stifle?

a. Sciatic and femoral nerves
b. Digital and Femoral nerves
c. Sciatic and Digital Nerves
d. Femoral and Radial nerve

a. Sciatic and femoral nerves

97

Which of the following cannot be used for a flank laparotomy?

a. Proximal paravertebral block
b. Inverted L block
c. Lumbosacral epidural
d. Distal paravertebral block

c. Lumbosacral epidural


**the other one that CAN be used is the Line block

98

Which of the following is used for the placement of a sub-palpebral lavage catheter in equine?

a. Infraorbital nerve block
b. Auriculopalpebral nerve block
c. Retrobulbar nerve block
d. Supraorbital nerve block

d. Supraorbital nerve block

99

True/False: Pre-emptive analgesia prevents wind up and central sensitization.

True

100

Which of the following is true regarding epidurals in small animal medicine?

a. All opioid injections can cause hypotension
b. Morphine and Lidocaine combo are most commonly used
c. Local anesthetic injections can cause hypotension
d. Morphine is less lipid soluble than other opioids so you will have more of a caudal spread

c. Local anesthetic injections can cause hypotension

101

What is the term commonly used to describe an exaggerated response to normal pain?

a. Allodynia
b. Hypoalgeisa
c. Hyperalgesia
d. Wind up pain

c. Hyperalgesia

102

Which of the following is it appropriate to use Bupivicaine in small animals?

a. Intravenously for opthalamic procedures
b. Sprayed on the arytenoids of cats for intubation
c. Lumbosacral epidural for hindlimb procedures
d. Its commonly used intra-articular to treat arthritis

c. Lumbosacral epidural for hindlimb procedures

103

All of the following are amides except:

a. Lidocaine
b. Proparacaine
c. Bupivacaine
d. Mepivacaine

b. Proparacaine

104

True/False: Esters accumulate more than amides.

False

**Amides accumulate more than esters

105

Which of the following drugs decreases MAC/MAC sparing?

a. Bupivacaine
b. Mepivacaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Proparacaine

c. Lidocaine

106

What are the four common toxicities associated with local anesthetics?

Methemoglobinemia
Neurotoxicity
Chondrotoxicity
Systemic

107

Which of the following is false?

a. The Amide metabolite, PABA, may cause subsequent allergic reactions
b. Amides are metabolized by microsomal liver enzymes
c. Esters are hydrolized by plasma cholinesterase's
d. Amides are more likely to accumulate than esters

a. The Amide metabolite, PABA, may cause subsequent allergic reactions

**should be ester metabolite

108

Which of the following is the only local anesthetic that may be given IV or used for intravenous regional anesthesia?

a. Lidocaine
b. Bupivacaine
c. Mepivacaine
d. Prilocaine

a. Lidocaine

109

True/False: Smaller diameter fibers and those with less myelination are blocked first except with a brachial plexus block.

True

**motor fibers are first

110

Which fibers are the first ones to be blocked with nerve blocks?

B fibers (preganglionic sympathetic)

111

What are the epidural contraindications (CHINAS)?

Coagulopathy
Hypovolemia
Infection at injection site
Neoplsia at injection site
Anatomy (inability to palpate landmarks)
Sepsis

112

Which of the following would prevent peripheral sensitization?

a. Systemic NSAID's to prevent PG's at the site of injury
b. Local block of the sciatic nerve
c. Topical lidocaine on the arytenoids
d. None of the above

a. Systemic NSAID's to prevent PG's at the site of injury

113

Which compartment has the most water?

a. Interstitium
b. ECF
c. ICF
d. Vasculature

c. ICF

114

Which of the following is true about NMDA antagonists?

a. Ketamine can be used as an adjunct analgesic CRI
b. Ketamine can be used to provide adequate analgesia for light surgical procedures
c. Amantadine can not be used with NSAID's
d. All the above are true

a. Ketamine can be used as an adjunct analgesic CRI

115

Wound soaker catheter would be a good choice in which surgery?

a. Lumbosacral epidural
b. Ophthalamic procedure
c. Cranial cruciate ligament repair
d. Total ear canal ablation

d. Total ear canal ablation

116

Which of the following is most likely to cause hemodynamic changes?

a. Carprofen
b. Meloxicam
c. Robenacoxib
d. Aspirin

d. Aspirin

117

Which of the following is a shockable rhythm?

a. Vfib
b. Asystole
c. Electrical firing with no contraction
d. None of the above

a. Vfib

118

True/False: Ileus is a consequence of unmanaged pain.

True

119

Which of the following are the msot common drugs used for topical anesthesia in ophthalmic procedures?

a. Tetracycline and Procaine
b. Lidocaine and Morphine
c. Tetracaine and Procaine
d. Morphine and Tetracaine

c. Tetracaine and Procaine

120

Which of the following is used for distal limb procdures that are less than 90 minutes?

a. Brachial plexus block
b. RUMM block
c. Bier block
d. Brachial plexus block

c. Bier block

121

Which local anesthetic is injected into a catheter for an IVRA procedure?

a. Morphine
b. Lidocaine
c. Tetracaine
d. Butorphanol

b. Lidocaine

122

True/False: Its not safe to leave the tourniquet placed on your patient for more than 60-90 minutes.

True

123

Which of the following affects cranial nerves III, IV, V, VI, and the ciliary ganglion?

a. Retrobulbar block
b. Maxillary n. block
c. Infraorbital n. block
d. Inferior alveolar n. block

a. Retrobulbar block

124

True/False: The inferior temproal palpebral technique is the best one to use for an inferior alveolar nerve block.

Flase

**Retrobulbar block

125

Which of the following provides anesthesia for the 3rd premolar and rostal teeth and maxilla and soft tissues?

a. Retrobulbar block
b. Maxillary n. block
c. Infraorbital n. block
d. Inferior alveolar n. block

c. Infraorbital n. block

126

What approach is preferred in cats when doing an infraorbital nerve block?

Extraoral

127

Which of the following provides anesthesia for mandibular teeth, rostral lower lip and intermandibular space?

a. Mental n. block
b. Maxillary n. block
c. Infraorbital n. block
d. Inferior alveolar n. block

d. Inferior alveolar n. block

128

Which of the following provides anesthesia for the rostral lower lip only?

a. Mental n. block
b. Maxillary n. block
c. Infraorbital n. block
d. Inferior alveolar n. block

a. Mental n. block

129

Which of the following provides anesthesia for the thoracic limb distal to the elbow?

a. Cervical paravertebral block
b. Brachial plexus block
c. RUMM block
d. "Declaw" block

b. Brachial plexus block

130

Which of the following provides anesthesia for the distal thoracic limb including the carpus?

a. Cervical paravertebral block
b. Brachial plexus block
c. RUMM block
d. "Declaw" block

c. RUMM block

131

Which of the following provides anesthesia for the entire thoracic limb including the scapula and shoulder joint?

a. Cervical paravertebral block
b. Brachial plexus block
c. RUMM block
d. "Declaw" block

a. Cervical paravertebral block

132

True/False: Its safe to do intravascular or intraneural injections with the brachial plexus block but not intramuscular.

False

**avoid intravascular or intraneural injections

133

Which nerves are being blocked in a RUMM block?

Radial, ulnar, median and musculocutaneous

134

Which of the following is used in blocks for declaws?

a. Lidocaine with saline
b. Bupivicaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Bupivicaine with saline

d. Bupivicaine with saline

135

How many blocks in total are there when performing an intercostal nerve block?

5 total: block at the incision space, and 2 spaces cranial and caudal

136

Which of the following is false regarding epidurals?

a. It is most commonly performed at the lumbosacral space in small animals
b. Requires heavy sedation or anesthesia
c. The animals must be in either sternal or lateral recumbency
d. Single injection cranial to the umbilicus is generally the most common technique

d. Single injection cranial to the umbilicus is generally the most common technique

**caudal to umbilicus

137

True/False: A higher injection volume means that the drug is going to spread more cranially.

True

138

Which combo of drugs is most commonly used in small animal epidurals?

a. Morphine and lidocaine
b. Morphine and Bupivicaine
c. Lidocaine and Bupivicaine
d. None of the above

b. Morphine and Bupivicaine

139

Which of the following is going to only block the motor portion of the equine eye and prevent blinking during an ophthalmic exam?

a. Auriculopalpebral n. block
b. Retrobulbar n. block
c. Supraorbital n. block
d. None of the above

a. Auriculopalpebral n. block

140

Which of the following is used for enucleation of the equine eye?

a. Auriculopalpebral n. block
b. Retrobulbar n. block
c. Supraorbital n. block
d. None of the above

b. Retrobulbar n. block

141

True/False: Caudal epidurals are commonly performed in equine medicine.

True

**we don't want to lose hindlimb motor function

142

Which of the following blocks sensory innervation to the middle 2/3 of the upper eyelid and palpebral motor in equine patients?

a. Auriculopalpebral n. block
b. Retrobulbar n. block
c. Supraorbital n. block
d. None of the above

c. Supraorbital n. block

143

Which of the following is false regarding equine epidural anesthesia?

a. They're placed in the first coccygeal space (Co1 - Co2)
b. We want them to travel caudally to avoid loss of hindlimb motor function
c. Bupivacaine is the local anesthetic used to avoid hind limb weakness
d. Xylazine, detomidine are commonly used to cause local analgesia and systemic effects

c. Bupivacaine is the local anesthetic used to avoid hind limb weakness

**Don't use local anesthetics they cause motor blocks

144

True/False: Morphine doesn't cause potential risk of weakness or motor blockades in equine epidurals but can cause severe laminitis.

True

145

Which two drugs can provide excellent analgesia for hindlimb pain in equine epidurals?

a. Detomidine and morphine
b. Morphine and lidocaine
c. Bupivicaine and morphine
d. Bupivicaine and lidocaine

a. Detomidine and morphine

146

Which of the following can be used as an adjunct analgesia to decrease general anesthesia doses for castrations in equine anesthesia?

a. Morphine
b. Bupivicaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Detomidine

c. Lidocaine

147

Which of the following is used for enucleation or squamous cell carcinoma surgery in the ruminant eye?

a. Auriculopalpebral n. block
b. Retrobulbar n. block
c. Supraorbital n. block
d. Peterson block

b. Retrobulbar n. block

148

Which is true regarding the Peterson and retrobulbar block in ruminants?

a. They provide a short block so there is no need to apply sterile ophthalmic lubricant
b. The retrobulbar blocks the three branches of the trigeminal nerve as they exit the foramen orbitorotundum
c. It prevents blinking for several hours so you want to keep them out of the sun and dust
d. None of the above are true

c. It prevents blinking for several hours so you want to keep them out of the sun and dust

149

True/False: Dorsal and ventral to the transverse processes of L1, L2 and L4 are the landmarks for a proximal paravertebral thoracolumbar.

False

**Distal paravertebral thoracolumbar

150

Where are injections for a caudal epidural in ruminants placed?

S5-Co1 or Co1-Co2 space

151

True/False: C fibers are myelinated and we have fast transmission of acute pain.

False

**alpha-delta fibers

152

Which is the correct order of the pain pathway?

a. Transmission, Transduction, Modulation, Projection, Perception
b. Transduction, Transmission, Projection, Perception, Modulation
c. Transmission, Transduction, Projection, Perception, Modulation
d. Transduction, Transmission, Modulation, Projection, Perception

d. Transduction, Transmission, Modulation, Projection, Perception

153

What are the major excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters involved with pain transmission?

Excitatory: Substance P, Glutamate
Inhibitory: GABA

154

Which of the following is false regarding peripheral sensitization?

a. Its responsible for the activation of "silent" nociceptors
b. Clinically results in primary hyperalgesia
c. The low threshold of alpha-delta and C fibers increases sensitivity
d. It occurs in the peripheral nerve terminals by increasing intracellular calcium

c. The low threshold of alpha-delta and C fibers increases sensitivity

**high threshold increases sensitivity

155

Which of the following is not a result of central sensitization?

a. Hyperalgesia and Allodynia
b. Spontaneous pain
c. Pain memory
d. They're all results of central sensitization

d. They're all results of central sensitization

156

___ is the term used to describe the loss of sensitivity to pain.

Analgesia

157

What is the term used to describe the administration of drugs before any painful stimulus has occurred?

Pre- emptive analgesia

158

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

a. Borken bone: Referred pain
b. Brachial plexus avulsion: Neuropathic pain
c. GDV: Visceral pain
d. Hip dysplasia: Chronic inflammatory and somatic pain

a. Borken bone: Referred pain


**Acute somatic pain

159

Which of the following is not a common sign of pain presented in ruminants?

a. Braxum
b. Decreased appetite
c. Decreased salivation
d. Decreased milk production

c. Decreased salivation


**increased salivation

160

True/False: Peripheral and central sensitization are not prevented by general anesthesia.

True

161

Which of the following is false regarding the Glasgow composite pain scale?

a. Used to assess post-op pain in dogs
b. The max score is 24 if a patient is ambulatory and 20 if non-ambulatory
c. This is considered the long form with 8 behavioral categories
d. Analgesics recommended if the score is more than 6/24 or 5/20

c. This is considered the long form with 8 behavioral categories

**short form, 7 behavioral categories

162

Which of the following is not a common sign of pain presented in canine patients?

a. Head tilt
b. Squinting and low ears
c. Lameness
d. Praying position

b. Squinting and low ears

163

Which is the most commonly used oral opioid in dogs and cats that shouldn't be used alone in moderate-severe pain?

a. Buprenorphine
b. Tramadol
c. Butorphanol
d. Methadone

b. Tramadol

164

Which of the following is not recommended in small animals?

a. Dexmedetomidine
b. Xylazine
c. Tramadol
d. Ketamine

b. Xylazine

165

Which of the following can be given pre-emptively to help with neropathic and chronic pain?

a. Tramadol
b. Amantadine
c. Ketamine
d. Gabapentin

d. Gabapentin

166

Which of the following is not recommended in a feline spay?

a. Methadone
b. Buprenorphine with premed
c. Hydromorphone
d. Morphine

d. Morphine

167

Which of the following is false regarding dental extractions?

a. Buprenorphine may be adequate to use in cats without the pre-med
b. Butorphanol is used with local blocks because of the long acting effects
c. Tramadol PO can be given to those that can't take NSAID's
d. NSAID's and transmucosal buprenorphine should be given to cats if possible

b. Butorphanol is used with local blocks because of the long acting effects

**Bupivacaine

168

What can you give to a human who accidentally gets nicked with a full mu agonist opioid used to immobilize an elephant?

Give them naloxone to reverse effects