Exam 2: Lecture 12: Adjunct drugs and reactions Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

What are adjunct drugs to anesthesia and
analgesia?

A

Drugs that may or may not be common for clinical use, but
play a supportive role by the benefit that they provide the
patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Balanced anesthesia

A

simultaneous use of multiple drugs &
techniques to produce anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define Multimodal analgesia

A

using 2 or more different drugs
or techniques to manage pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which drug is a neurokinin-1 receptor
antagonist, often used for motion sickness

A

Maropitant AKA Cerenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Maropitant (trade name: Cerenia) is a neurokinin-1 receptor
antagonist, often used for motion sickness. Benefits in perioperative
period include:

A
  1. Reduced incidence of vomiting from certain premedication drugs
  2. Improvement in recovery quality and a faster return to feeding
  3. Potential MAC lowering effects (when administered as a CRI)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an important clinical note for Maropitant

A

mportant clinical note – does not prevent gastroesophageal reflux (GER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which drug is FDA approved for use in dogs for motion sickness and acute vomiting

  • Common side effects of higher doses of _____ is excessive drooling
A

Maropitant AKA cerenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is vomiting passive or active?

A

active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is regurgitation passive or active?

A

Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Does the following describe Vomiting or regurgitation?

  • Forceful ejection of stomach and upper intestinal contents
  • Can contain yellow bile or partially digested dog food
  • Usually smells sour and involves heaving
A

vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does the following describe Vomiting or regurgitation?

  • Mild ejection of undigested food from the esophagus
  • Does not involve abdominal heaving
  • Tends to happen just after eating
A

Regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which drug is a 5HT3 receptor antagonist?

A

Ondansetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which drug is antimetric that works at the level of the vomiting center in the brain, particullary useful for prevention of vomiting due to chemotherapy drugs or from anesthetic drugs that induce vomiting

A

Ondansetron

  • Less effective than maropitant in prevention of vomiting, but
    oral administration can reduce incidence of nausea.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is Ondansetron available?

A

Available in tablet form, oral solution and injectable solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which drug Blocks dopamine D2 receptors in chemoreceptor trigger
zone and also blocks serotonin receptors to contribute to
antiemetic effects

A

Metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which drug has prokinetic effects reduce amount of gastric fluid (via
increasing the rate of gastric emptying) and increase lower
esophageal sphincter tone

A

Metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drug fits the following description:

❖May increase CNS depressant effects of anesthetic
drugs
❖Do NOT give if GI obstruction suspected, history of
seizures or pheochromocytoma is present

A

Metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which drug class can be Given to decrease acid production in the stomach (H2 antagonists
such as famotidine or ranitidine)

A

Histamine receptor antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which drug is commonly given prior to mast cell tumor removal
to competitively counter the effects of histamine (H1 antagonist)

A

Diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An eight year olf female spayed boston terrier is presented with a solitary well circumscribed mass two cm in diameter on the left hip area. The owner reports that the mass occasionally appears inflamed and the dog has a history of allergies
- A fine need aspirate of the mass stained with Diff Quick is also shown
- What pre-operative treatment is indicated?

A

H1 histamine receptor antagonist - corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drug Decreases gastric acid production by
irreversibly blocking H+/K+ ATPase

A

Proton pump inhibitor

Omeprazole and pantoprazole most
commonly used. Long-acting drugs

ACVIM consensus statement: judicious use of
acid suppressants warranted for long-term
administration. Routine use for treatment of
acute, nonerosive gastritis not
recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Prefer to give _______ postoperatively in case hypovolemia or
hypotension occurs during anesthetic period, leading to decreased
renal blood flow. But many practitioners give them before surgery.

A

NSAID’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the MAC spraing effect for Carprofen?

A

decreased MAC of Sevo to 2.10% in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the MAC sparing effect of meloxicam?

A

decreased MAC of Sevo to 2.06% in dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
NEVER give _______ concurrently with NSAIDs
Glucocorticoids
26
_______ is Used for anti-inflammatory, analgesic, immunosuppressive, and for physiologic support of Addisonian patients
Glucocorticoids
27
give Cefazolin _______ IV
Slowly - over 5 minutes
28
give Unasyn (Ampicillin/Sulbactam) _______ IV
slowely - over 15-30 minutes
29
You can give gentamicin if......
Given IV - administer slowely
30
give K-pin ______
slowly through IV
31
T/F: You can give PPG both IV and IM
FALSE!!!!! never give IV
32
Which antibiotic is used in food animals - Genatmicin - K - pen - PPG - Naxcel
Naxcel
33
How do you administer Aminocaproic acid?
Oral and injectable formulations available. Give slowly IV (over 30 minutes) after diluting in saline to prevent CV effects.
34
Which drug is an Anti-fibrinolytic agent
Aminocaproic acid
35
Define anti-fibrinolytic agent Aminocaproic acid
– Can be given to Greyhounds to decrease postoperative bleeding by enhancing clot formation and increasing clot strength (2012 studies by Marin et al) – Greyhounds typically have higher than normal rates of bleeding 24-48hrs post op → see bruising around surgical site
36
Which Hormone given to temporarily increase von Willebrand factor in dogs with a deficiency prior to surgery. Promotes vWf secretion from endothelium storage sites.
Desmopressin
37
_________ is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin → hormone that reduces urine production
Desmopressin
38
How is desmopressin typically available?
Available as a nasal spray typically - Expensive! Usually have the owner purchase at human pharmacy.
39
Which drug is a Peripherally acting muscle relaxant – Works on skeletal muscle, but cardiac depression reported at higher doses
Dantrolene
40
MOA of Dantrolene
ryanodine receptor antagonism → reducing Ca2+ release from the SR into the cytoplasm
41
Which drug is used for the treatment and prevention of malignant hyperthermia and exertional rhabdomyolysis
Dantrolene – Pigs, humans, dogs, horses – Injectable solution and oral capsules available – Dose is species dependent (dogs, cats, pigs: 1-3 mg/kg IV for treatment and 5 mg/kg PO once daily for prophylaxis)
42
T/F: Doxapram is a CNS stimulant
true
43
Which drug cases arousal from sedation/anesthesia (this use is controversial), stimulation of respiration in neonates, and assessment of laryngeal function (dogs & horses)
Doxapram
44
What is the MOA for Doxapram
likely due to both central and peripheral effects → increased activity of the respiratory nuclei of the medulla. But full understanding of MOA is not clear. – Significant increase in minute ventilation through an increase in RR and tidal volume
45
Which drug can cause Increased dosages can lead to convulsions due to cortical stimulation. Dosages cause differing effects among species. – Avoid in epileptic patients
Doxapram
46
Which drug is Central acting muscle relaxant with sedative properties – Unknown MOA, but likely works both in the brain and spinal cord
Guaifenesin - GG
47
Which drug can be Co-administered with IV anesthetics (e.g. ketamine) in horses and ruminants – To induce anesthesia – To maintain anesthesia
Guaifenesin - GG
48
Which drug fits these characteristics › No known analgesic properties › Wide therapeutic margin, with mild cardiorespiratory effects when given at therapeutic doses › Commonly prepared in 5-15% solution with 0.9% saline or 5% dextrose solution. – Perivascular injection may cause necrosis
Guaifenesin - GG
49
_______ is an amide local anesthetic drug used to provide locoregional analgesia and also used systemically to treat ventricular arrhythmias.
Lidocaine
50
Which drug shows Body of evidence in many species (humans, dogs, horses) that shows MAC sparing, anti-inflammatory, and analgesic effects. Also has prokinetic effects on the GI tract by stimulating intestinal motility
Lidocaine
51
T/F: Lidocaine is typically not used in cats
true!!! Not typically used in cats as a CRI due to potential for toxicity!
52
Lidocaine us used in equine for the treatment of?
– Ileus → stimulates intestinal muscle contraction (in vitro) + analgesia – Impactions – Duodenitis-jejunitis – Inflammation → preserves microvascular integrity, prevents neutrophil migration, and inhibits cytokine production – Laminitis – Post-operative pain Often given for 1 to 3 days, but must be carefully monitored
53
What are the signs of lidocaine toxicity?
– Muscle fasciculations, weakness, recumbency – Discontinue lidocaine immediately → signs should quickly disappear
54
Which drug is a NMDA receptor antagonist given as an intraoperative CRI binds at the CNS receptors and prevents “wind up”
Ketamine
55
Which drug is Best used to manage neuropathic types of pain → especially if the pain is chronic and the patient has not responded well to other analgesic options
Ketamine
56
Always combine _______ with an opioid and/or lidocaine infusion
Ketamine
57
Provide some examples of opioids that can be used as a CRI?
– Fentanyl – Remifentanil – Morphine – Hydromorphone – Butorphanol – Buprenorphine
58
T/F: opioids are Typically a loading dose is given first, followed by CRI
True
59
Why give a loading dose?
Get the drug into the theraputic windown and stay there rapidly - Best way to prevent pain
60
What is a MLK CRI
Morphine - Lidocaine - Ketamine (MLK) CRI - found morphine, lidocaine, ketamine, and MLK significantly lowered isoflurane MAC by 48, 29, 25, and 45%, respectively. Not associated with adverse CV effects. - found infusion of dexmedetomidine, MLK, and DMLK decreased the MAC of isoflurane from baseline by 30%, 55%, and 90%, respectively.
61
What should you add to an MLK bag after you add the drugs?
Label Date Initials
62
Define Drug Interactions
› Some are harmful, some are beneficial › Can occur in vitro (in syringe or vial) vs. in vivo (in patient) › In vitro (pharmaceutical interactions) → drug precipitate, toxic product, or inactivate one of the drugs – Acid-base interactions – Chemical incompatibilities › In vivo → PK and PD can be affected – Absorption – ABCB1 – Hepatic clearance – Drug protein binding
63
What is a MDR1 gene mutation (AKA ABCB 1 mutation)
Some herding-breed dogs have a single mutation in a gene coding for a protein (P-glycoprotein) that drastically affects absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
64
____________ is an important part of the blood-brain barrier → protects body from toxic accumulations of substances
P-glycoprotein
65
Anesthesia drugs affected by MDR1 gene mutations are?
- Butorphanol - acepromazine
66
MDR1 gene mutation - why does this matter???
– Dog with this mutation may have more serious side effects, such as CNS and/or respiratory depression, from certain anesthetic drugs. – Recovery may take longer and patient may still appear sedate long after the drugs should have normally worn off. – Generally recommend reducing normal dose by 25-50% in dogs that are homozygous for the mutation.
67
___________ – precipitation will occur with aqueous solutions and significant absorption into soft plastic (i.e. fluid bags or tubing) within 24 hours. Also incompatible with heparin flush
Diazepam
68
Epinephrine, dobutamine, and dopamine are incompatible with _______ solutions
Alkaline
69
Which drug precipitates with aqueous solutions
Phenylbutazone
70
Which drugs do not mix with solutions that contain calcium (ex. LRS) because precipitation may occur
Sodium bicarbonate
71
Define Addition
simple additivity of fractional doses of two or more drugs
72
Define synergism
response to fractional doses is greater than the response to the sum of the fractional doses
73
Define Potentiation
enhancement of action of one drug by a second drug that has no detectable action of its own
74
Define Antagonism
opposing action of one drug toward another. Can be competitive (drugs compete for same receptor site) or noncompetitive ( drugs act via different receptors)
75
What is defined as when you can give lower amount of each drug
Synergism
76
What is defined as the higher amounts of each drug because they are antagonizing each other
Antagonism
77
What is an Isobologram
Shows the connection when you give two drugs together and how they effect one another