EXAM 2 QUIZ ? Flashcards by Aliyah Gutierrez

Active transport ________.
A. utilizes energy
B. cannot transport molecules against a concentration gradient
C. requires cofactors
D. cannot reach a saturation point

utilizes energy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a function of integrins?
A. Allow diffusion to occur through the plasma membrane
B. Communicate between the intracellular and extracellular compartments
C. Establish cell polarity
D. Glue components of the matrix

Allow diffusion to occur through the plasma membrane

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What structures affect cell motility, adhesion, and proliferation?
A. Collagen IV
B. Integrins
C. Proteoglycans
D. Basal lamina

Integrins

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How much of the total body water content is in the intracellular compartment?
A. 80%
B. 67%
C. 50%
D. 33%

67%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A 0.1 Osm plasma sample would ________.

A. inhibit the release of antidiuretic hormone
B stimulate the action of osmoreceptors
C. be hypertonic to the cells
D. stimulate an increase in blood volume

inhibit the release of antidiuretic hormone

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A solution with an osmolality four times greater than plasma would freeze at ________.

A. −1.12°C
B. −0.56°C
C. −1.68°C
D. −2.24°C

−2.24°C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Osmotic pressure is a measure of the force needed to ________.

A. stop edema
B. stop osmosis
C. cause osmosis
D. open aquaporins

stop osmosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A cell placed in a 9% saline solution (molecular weight = 58.5g) would ________.

A. not change
B. crenate
C. swell
D. Lyse

crenate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The glucose carrier of skeletal muscle is designated as ________.

A. GLUT4
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT3
D. GLUT5

GLUT4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Facilitated diffusion of a molecule into a cell would be more rapid if the ________.

A. concentration of water in the cell decreased
B. concentration of the molecule in the cell increased
C. cell was isotonic
D. concentration of the molecule outside the cell increased

concentration of the molecule outside the cell increased

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What type of junctional complex will prohibit paracellular transport?

A. Adherens junctions
B. Gap junctions
C. Desmosomes
D. Tight junctions

Tight junctions

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a primary active transport pump?

A. Proton pump
B. GLUT4
C. Sodium/potassium pump
D. Calcium pump

GLUT4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The primary intracellular cation is ________.

A. Mg2+
B. Ca2+
C. K+
D. Na+

K+

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If the intracellular concentration of Ca2+ was 10mEq/L and the extracellular concentration was 150mEq/L, the Ca2+ equilibrium potential would be ________.
A. −35.9mV
B. −71.8mV
C. +71.8mV
D. +35.9mV

+35.9mV

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Most cells have a resting membrane potential between ________.
A. +65mV and +90mV
B. +60mV and −90mV
C. −65mV and −85mV
D. −60mV and −90mV

−65mV and −85mV

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The resting membrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential for ________.

A. calcium ions
B. sodium ions
C. potassium ions
D. chloride ions

potassium ions

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

To exert effects on its target cell, ________ would require a second messenger.

A. epinephrine and acetylcholine
B. acetylcholine
C. epinephrine
D. nitric oxide

epinephrine and acetylcholine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a G-protein?

A. Beta
B. Alpha
C. Gamma
D. Delta

Delta

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where is the receptor for a nonpolar, lipid-soluble regulatory molecule?
A.Embedded in the outer surface of the plasma membrane
B. Embedded in the inner surface of the plasma membrane
C. In the cytoplasm or nucleus of the cell
D. All of the choices are correct.

In the cytoplasm or nucleus of the cell

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What determines how a regulatory molecule influences its target cell?
A. All of the choices are correct.
B. Solubility
C. Polarity
D. Presence of receptor proteins for the regulatory molecule

All of the choices are correct.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Passive transport of water is known as ________.
A. osmosis
B. facilitated diffusion
C. filtration
D. a water pump

osmosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following types of transport does not require membrane proteins?
A. Bulk
B. Simple diffusion
C. Active
D. Facilitated diffusion

Simple diffusion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Matrix metalloproteinases ________
A. synthesize collagen in the extracellular matrix
B. may be active in invasive cancer cells
C. produce the basal lamina
D. synthesize proteoglycans in the extracellular matrix

may be active in invasive cancer cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Diffusion ________ the entropy of a solution.
A. increases
B. does not change
C. Decreases

increases

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The rate of diffusion is influenced by ________. A. the concentration gradient B. membrane permeability C. membrane surface area D. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices correct

How do small molecules like Na+ of K+ pass through the plasma membrane? A. Ion channels B. Gated channels C. Simple diffusion D. Carrier proteins

Ion channels

A solution consists of a ________ which dissolves the ________. A. solute; solvent B. solvent; solute C. solvent; solid D. liquid; solid

solvent; solute

The transport of amino acids across epithelial membranes requires the ________. A. facilitated diffusion B. Na+/H+ pump C. Ca2+ pump D. Na+/K+ pump

Na+/H+ pump

Which of the following is a function of the steep Na+/K+ gradient across the cell membrane? A. Provides energy for coupled transport B. Creates electrochemical gradient C. Maintains osmotic pressure D. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Where are GLUT carriers located in an unstimulated muscle fiber? A. In the plasma membrane facing the external environment B. Within cytoplasmic vesicles C. In the plasma membrane facing the internal environment D. There are no GLUT carriers present.

Within cytoplasmic vesicles

Why does adding glucose to oral rehydration therapy solutions result in more rapid recovery from dehydration? A. Adding glucuose causes secondary active transport of sodium across the epithelial membrane of the intestine. B. The presence of glucose increases the intestinal absorption of Na+ and water through an increased osmotic effect. C. Glucose is used to supply energy for the active transport of sodium and water across the epithelial membrane of the intestine. D. All of the choices are correct.

The presence of glucose increases the intestinal absorption of Na+ and water through an increased osmotic effect.

The Na+/K+ pump ________. A. is an example of secondary active transport B. establishes equal concentrations of sodium and potassium ions across the membrane C. contributes to the maintenance of the negative resting membrane potential D. exchanges three potassium for every two sodium molecules

contributes to the maintenance of the negative resting membrane potential

If the Na+/K+ pump did not function, the ________ of the cell would become more ________. A. resting membrane potential would be zero. B. interior; negatively-charged C. interior; positively-charged D. exterior; positively-charged

Interior; positively-charged

Which of the following is NOT true of cyclic AMP? A. It activates enzymes inside a cell to produce the desired effect. B. It is made from ATP. C. It is found on the outside of a plasma membrane. D. It is a second messenger for polar regulatory molecules.

It is found on the outside of a plasma membrane.

What structures are used for direct cell to cell signaling? A. Desmosomes B. Exocytosis vesicles C. Tight junctions D. Gap junctions

Gap junctions

Which of the following is NOT a general category of cell signaling molecules? A. Paracrine signaling B. Enzymatic signaling C. Synaptic signaling D. Endocrine signaling

Enzymatic signaling

Proteins that extend from the cytoskeleton within the cell, through the plasma membrane, and into the extracellular matrix are ________. A. integrin proteins B. transport proteins C. receptor proteins D. lysosomal proteins

integrin proteins

Which of the following is NOT true of a person who is dehydrated? A. ADH causes the kidneys to excrete water B. Hypothalamus stimulates release of ADH C. Plasma osmolality increases D. Increased osmolality causes thirst

ADH causes the kidneys to excrete water

Plasma freezes at ________. A. −0.56°C B. −1.86°C C. −1.00°C D. 0.00°C

−0.56°C

What cofactor do matrix metalloproteinases need to be functional? A. Calcium B. Chromium C. Copper D. Zinc

Zinc

The Na+/K+ pump transports ________ into the cell and ________ out of the cell per cycle. A. 2Na+;3K+ B. 2K+;3Na+ C. 3Na+;2K+ D. 3K+;2Na+

2K+;3Na+

How much of the extracellular fluid comes from blood plasma?

20%

Which of the following organs do NOT normally have many aquaporins in the plasma membranes of their cells? A. Skin B. Lungs C. Salivary glands D. Kidneys

Skin

The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly related to its ________ concentration. A. matrix B. solute C. solvent D. water

solute

Channels present in the membranes of some cells that allow rapid movement of water are called ________. A. aquaporins B. water tubes C. aqueducts D. streams

aquaporins

The transport maximum is related to the property known as ________. A. inhibition B. specificity C. saturation D. competition

saturation

A membrane that allows only certain molecules to pass through it is called ________. A. countertransport B. porous C. permeable D. selectively permeable

selectively permeable

The ATPase enzyme ________. A. hydrolyzes ATP into ADP and Pi B. powers endocytosis C. couples Na+ to glucose D. adds a Pi to ADP

hydrolyzes ATP into ADP and Pi

Protein carrier-mediated transport of molecules display ________ A. specificity B. competition C. saturation D. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Transport of materials through an epithelial cell is called ________. A. transcellular transport B. exocytosis C. bulk transport D. paracellular transport

transcellular transport

The sodium equilibrium potential using an extracellular Na+ concentration of 145 mEq/L and an intracellular concentration of 14 mEq/L would be approximately ________. A. +62mV B. +90mV C. −90mV D. −62mV

+62 mV

Hyperkalemia would ________ the resting membrane potential of the cell. A. reverse B. have no effect on C. increase D. decrease

decrease

What type of cell signaling uses neurotransmitters to innervate its target organ? A. Paracrine signaling B. Gap junctions C. Synaptic signaling D. Endocrine signaling

Synaptic signaling

Choose the correct description of the Na+/K+ pump. A. It generates a positive membrane potential. B. It actively transports 3 sodium ions into the cell. C. It is an example of primary active transport. D. It actively transports 2 potassium ions out of the cell.

It is an example of primary active transport.

A 0.5M glucose (molecular weight = 180g) contains ________ grams of glucose per liter. A. 180 B. 6.02 × 1023 C. 90 D. 360

Cerebral edema would be treated with a(an) ________ intravenous solution of mannitol. A. isotonic B. hypotonic C. hypertonic

hypertonic

What type of cell signaling occurs through the extracellular matrix to nearby target cells? A. Gap junctions B. Paracrine signaling C. Synaptic signaling D. Endocrine signaling

Paracrine signaling

Dialysis uses the process of ________. A. simple diffusion B. facilitated diffusion C. primary active transport D. secondary active transport

simple diffusion

Inhibition of receptor-mediated endocytosis could ________. A. prevent diabetes mellitus B. induce diabetes mellitus C. induce Hypercholesterolemia D. prevent Hypercholesterolemia

induce Hypercholesterolemia

Where is the G-protein complex when a regulatory molecule is not bound to its receptor? A. The alpha subunit is attached to the inner surface of the receptor. B. The beta and gamma subunits are attached to the inner surface of the receptor. C. The three subunits are together but not attached to the inner surface of the receptor. D. The three subunits are together AND attached to the inner surface of the receptor.

The three subunits are together AND attached to the inner surface of the receptor.

.What molecules pass information from the polar regulatory molecule receptor to activate the enzymes that produce cAMP? A. Paracrines B. G-proteins C. GTP D. None of the choices are correct.

G-proteins

Cells placed in hypotonic solutions will ________. A. decrease in volume B. lose water to the solution C. increase in volume D. increase intracellular solute concentration

increase in volume

Why are cells in body organs generally within 100 μm of a blood capillary? A. A larger distance maximizes entropy B. So that larger particles can diffuse more easily C. To increase mean diffusion time D. To decrease mean diffusion time

To decrease mean diffusion time

Active transport carriers are also called ________. A. vesicles B. channels C. receptors D. pumps

pumps

Glucose transported via the GLUT carrier is characterized as ________. A. active transport B. receptor-mediated endocytosis C. co-transport D. passive transport

passive transport

Which of the following is NOT true of cyclic AMP? A. It is made from ATP. B. It is found on the outside of a plasma membrane. C. It is a second messenger for polar regulatory molecules. D. It activates enzymes inside a cell to produce the desired effect.

It is found on the outside of a plasma membrane.

What structure, found surrounding PNS axons, is NOT found surrounding CNS axons? A. Plasma membrane B. Nodes of Ranvier C. Myelin sheath D. Neurilemma

Neurilemma

The term “white matter” refers to ________. A. nonmyelinated axons in the CNS B. myelinated axons in the PNS C. nonmyelinated cell bodies and dendrites in the CNS D. myelinated axons in the CNS

myelinated axons in the CNS

A bundle of axons in the CNS is called a ________. A. tract B. neuron C. bundle D. Nerve

tract

What is NOT true of the relative refractory period? A. K+ is moving out of the axon through its open channels B. Na+ channels are inactivated C. A strong stimulus could cause a depolarization D. Many Na+ channels are returning to a closed state

Na+ channels are inactivated

Conduction of an action potential in a myelinated axon is called ________. A. cable conduction B. saltatory conduction C. refractory conduction D. point to point conduction

saltatory conduction

How do neurons code for a greater response? A. Greater Na+ concentration gradient B. Greater amplitude of stimuli C. Increased frequency of stimuli D. More active Na+/K+ pump

Increased frequency of stimuli

Neurotransmitter action could be prevented, or disrupted, if a drug or other agent ________. A. blocked voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic membrane B. increased the expression of CAMs in the postsynaptic membrane C. decreased the concentration of SNARE complexes in the postsynaptic cell D. decreased the distance between the pre- and postsynaptic membranes

blocked voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic membrane

What action would produce an IPSP on the postsynaptic membrane? A. Outflow of K+ ions B. Opening of Ca2+ channels into the neuron C. Influx of Na+ ions D. Opening of Cl- channels into the neuron

Opening of Cl- channels into the neuron

Neurotransmitter release would be inhibited by ________. A. stimulating protein kinase activity B. blocking repolarization of the axon terminal C. blocking Ca2+ influx in the axon terminal D. stimulating repolarization of the axon terminal

blocking Ca2+ influx in the axon terminal

Curare is a competitive ACh antagonist at ________ ACh receptors. A. muscarinic B. nicotinic C. NMDA D. Kainate

nicotinic

What is the action of the binding of muscarine to its receptors in the digestive system? A. Beta-gamma subunits bind to K+ channels, open them, leading to hyperpolarization. B. Alpha subunits bind to K+ channels, close them, leading to depolarization. C. Alpha subunits bind to K+ channels, open them, leading to hyperpolarization. D. Beta-gamma subunits bind to K+ channels, close them, leading to depolarization.

Alpha subunits bind to K+ channels, close them, leading to depolarization.

Acetylcholine ________. A. is always an excitatory neurotransmitter B. can bind to nicotinic receptors C. is an inhibitory neurotransmitter released by motor neurons D. can bind to adrenergic receptors

can bind to nicotinic receptors

Neuroleptics, which are used to treat schizophrenia, are ________. A. glutamate agonists B. dopamine agonists C. dopamine antagonists D. ACh antagonists

dopamine antagonists

Which of the following is NOT classified as a catecholamine? A. Dopamine B. Epinephrine C. Histamine D. Norepinephrine

Histamine

Endocannabinoids are retrograde neurotransmitters, meaning they are ________. A. released from presynaptic neurons and diffuse to the postsynaptic neuron B. released from postsynaptic neurons and diffuse to the presynaptic neuron C. released from presynaptic neurons and diffuse back to the presynaptic cell body D. None of the choices are correct.

released from postsynaptic neurons and diffuse to the presynaptic neuron

Where is glycine released? A. from the motor neurons innervating skeletal muscles B. In the CNS C. In the PNS D. At the diaphragm

In the CNS

Excitatory postsynaptic potentials are produced in the brain primarily by ________. A. glutamate B. glycine C. benzodiazepines D. gamma-aminobutyric acid

glutamate

Which of the following is NOT true of long-term potentiation (LTP)? A. Repeated stimulation enhance excitability B. Associated with insertion of AMPA glutamate receptors C. Associated with the removal of AMPA glutamate receptors D. It is a form of synaptic plasticity

Associated with the removal of AMPA glutamate receptors

Temporal summation ________. A. occurs because of the convergence of many neurons on a single postsynaptic cell B. only involves inhibitory postsynaptic potentials C. occurs when a single neuron releases neurotransmitter rapidly D. only involves excitatory postsynaptic potentials

occurs when a single neuron releases neurotransmitter rapidly

Enhancing the excitability of a synapse so that transmission is favored along certain pathways is called ________. A. synaptic plasticity B. summation C. excitotoxicity D. long-term potentiation

long-term potentiation

Which type of cell lines the ventricles of the brain and help produce cerebrospinal fluid A. Microglia B. Oligodendrocytes C. Satellite cells D. Ependymal cells

ependymal cells

Choose the statement that correctly describes the structure or function of dendrites A. Are thin extensions of the axon B. Release neurotransmitters to initiate graded potentials in adjacent cells C. Transmit graded electrochemical impulses toward the cell body

Transmit graded electrochemical impulses toward the cell body

Which division of the nervous system innervates involuntary effectors? A. Somatic nervous system B. Autonomic Nervous system C. Central nervous system

Autonomic Nervous system

The membrane of resting nerve cells is more permeable to ______ ions than _____ ions. A. Potassium; sodium B. Chloride; potassium C. Calcium; potassium D. Sodium potassium

Potassium; sodium

What is needed to return a membrane to its resting membrane potential, with all ions in the current locations? A. Influx of negatively charged ions into the cell B. Outflow of Na+ ions via passive ion channels C. Outflow of K+ ions via passive ion channels D. Na+/K+ pump action

Na+/K+ pump action

Ion channels that open in response to depolarization are called A. Potential-gated channels B. Stimulation-gated channels C. Voltage-gated channels D. Ion-gated channels

Voltage-gated channels

The synapses which occur between axons of presynaptic cells and dendrites of postsynaptic cells are called A. Axodendritic B. Axoaxonic C. Myoneural D. axosomatic

Axodendritic

The myelin sheaths of PNS neurons are produced by ________. A. ependymal cells B. oligodendrocytes C. leukocytes D. Schwann cells

Schwann cells

Cells supporting neuron cell bodies in ganglia are termed ________ A. Schwann cells B. astrocytes C. satellite cells D. ependymal cells

satellite cells

The gap of exposed axon in the myelin sheath is the ________. A. White matter B. Sheath of schwann C. Node of Ranvier D. Neurilemma

Node of Ranvier

A drug that blocked ligand-gated ________ channels would prevent neuron ________. A. Na+; depolarization B. Na+; hyperpolarization C. K+; depolarization D. Ca2+; repolarization

Na+; depolarization

In order to prevent a patient from experiencing pain, local anesthetics must ________ in sensory neurons, which would prevent an action potential. A. bind to potassium channels B. inhibit the release of acetylcholine C. bind to sodium channels D. bind to calcium channels

bind to sodium channels

Botulism toxin prevents release of ACh, causing A. Flaccid paralysis B. Hemiplegia C. Spastic paralysis D. None of the choices are correct

Flaccid paralysis

Since the action potential “leaps” from node to node in a myelinated axon, ________. A. Na+ movement within the myelin sheath is possible B. Na+ channels are not present between the nodes C. action potentials move faster if the nodes are farther apart D. myelinated axons need far less Na+ channels than unmyelinated axons

Na+ channels are not present between the nodes

The myelin sheaths of CNS neurons are produced by___ A. ependymal cells B. Schwann cells C. Oligodendrocytes D. leukocytes

Oligodendrocytes

Chemical synapses ________. A. have a delayed impulse transmission B. utilize gap junctions C. do not require the release of neurotransmitters D. occur when two nerve cells are in direct contact with each other

have a delayed impulse transmission

Degeneration of spinal motor neurons in adults may be due to a lack of ________ factor. A. brain-derived neurotrophic (BDNF) B. nerve growth (NGF) C. glial-derived neurotrophic (GDNF) D. Neurotrophin-3

glial-derived neurotrophic (GDNF)

Neurotrophins are NOT responsible for ________. A. maintaining sympathetic ganglion B. sustaining neurons that use the neurotransmitter dopamine C. embryonic development of neurons D. regeneration of injured motor neurons

regeneration of injured motor neurons

Synaptic transmission using acetylcholine would be disrupted by ________. A. curare B. Both curare and botulinum toxin are correct. C. Strychnine D. Botulinum toxin

Both curare and botulinum toxin are correct

Action potentials would be conducted most rapidly by ________. A. a 40 mm diameter unmyelinated axon B. a 10 mm diameter myelinated axon C. a 10 mm diameter unmyelinated axon D. a 40 mm diameter myelinated axon

a 40 mm diameter myelinated axon

If the binding of muscarine to its receptor in the heart causes the beta-gamma complex of the G-protein to bind to a K+ channel, ________. A. the K+ channel will open, leading to hyperpolarization and inhibition B. the K+ channel will close, leading to depolarization C. the K+ channel will open, leading to depolarization D. the K+ channel will close, leading to hyperpolarization and inhibition

the K+ channel will open, leading to hyperpolarization and inhibition

The blood-brain barrier results mostly from the action of ________, a type of neuroglia. A. ependymal cells B. oligodendrocytes C. microglia D. astrocytes

astrocytes

What is NOT true of conduction through dendrites and cell bodies of neurons? A. It generates action potentials in the cell body. B. It creates graded potentials. C. EPSPs can summate to reach threshold. D. It creates EPSPs.

It generates action potentials in the cell body.

If a cell’s membrane is not excitable, this means that ________. A. the cell is a neuron B. the cell cannot vary the permeability of the membrane to specific ions C. the cell does not have a measurable voltage D. the cell exhibit irritability

the cell cannot vary the permeability of the membrane to specific ions

What do muscarine and nicotine have in common? A. They are both agonists for their respective receptors. B. They are both always excitatory. C. They both activate-protein coupled channels. D. They are both antagonists for their respective receptors.

They are both agonists for their respective receptors.

Hyperpolarization in the postsynaptic cell is caused by A. Both inhibitory postsynaptic potentials and B. movement of K+ out of the cell are correct. B. Movement of K+ out of the cell C. Excitatory postsynaptic potentials D. Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials

Both inhibitory postsynaptic potentials and movement of K+ out of the cell are correct.

During an action potential ________. A. Na+ influx causes depolarization B. K+ influx causes after-hyperpolarization C. Na+ efflux causes depolarization D. K+ influx causes repolarization

Na+ influx causes depolarization

Serotonin is synthesized from the amino acid ________. A. alanine B. glycine C. tryptophan D. serine

tryptophan

Axonal transport ________. A. is a passive process B. can only transport signals in a retrograde direction C. can occur in both an anterograde and retrograde direction D. has two fast and one slow components

can occur in both an anterograde and retrograde direction

What type of autonomic fibers release ACh at effectors? A. Sensory B. Parasympathetic C. Somatic D. Sympathetic

Parasympathetic

Which of the following is NOT an action needed for glutamate to open ion channels? A. NMDA receptor must bind to glycine. B. The membrane must be partially depolarized from the action of a different neurotransmitter. C. Mg2+ is released from NMDA channel to open it. D. Cl- must pass through the open channel.

Cl- must pass through the open channel.

Unlike chemical synapses, electrical synapses ________. A. provide adjacent cells with the ability to act in a coordinated fashion B. are not dependent on the movement of ions across a plasma membrane C. are the method of connection between adjacent neurons D. are the method of connection between adjacent neurons

provide adjacent cells with the ability to act in a coordinated fashion

The minimum depolarization needed to open Na+ gates is called the ________. A. threshold B. all-or-none law C. repolarization D. refractory period

threshold

Which of the following are natural analgesics? A. Endorphins B. Enkephalins C. Dynorphins D. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

The brain produces lipid neurotransmitters called ________. A. endocannabinoids B. enkephalins C. nitric oxide D. endorphins

endocannabinoids

Spatial summation ________. A. occurs because of the convergence of many neurons on a single postsynaptic cell B. occurs when a single neuron releases neurotransmitter rapidly C. only involves inhibitory postsynaptic potentials D. only involves excitatory postsynaptic potentials

occurs because of the convergence of many neurons on a single postsynaptic cell

Muscarinic ACh receptors act through ________ activation of K+ channels. A. ATP B. cGMP C. G-protein D. M-protein

G-protein

Excitotoxicity is caused by ________. A. excessive synaptic release of glutamate B. insufficient synaptic release of ACh C. insufficient synaptic release of glutamate D. GABA inhibition

excessive synaptic release of glutamate

Cholinergic fibers use ________ as the neurotransmitter. A. acetylcholine B. norepinephrine C. serotonin D. dopamine

acetylcholine

Cocaine is particularly dangerous for patients with cardiovascular disease, or hypertension, because ________. A. it inhibits the degradation of norepinephrine, causing coronary artery constriction B. it blocks the reuptake of serotonin and dopamine, causing excessive bouts of euphoria C. it blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine, causing increased heart rate D. it blocks membrane sodium channels, causing increased EPSPs

it blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine, causing increased heart rate

. What is the predominant effect of stimulation of nicotinic receptors that form ligand-gated channels? A. Inhibition due to influx of Cl- ions B. Inhibition due to outflow of K+ ions C. Stimulation due to influx of Na+ ions D. Stimulation due to outflow of K+ ions

Stimulation due to influx of Na+ ions

Acetylcholine usually induces an excitatory postsynaptic potential when binding to ________ receptors and can produce either an excitatory or an inhibitory postsynaptic potential when binding to some ________ receptors. A. NMDA, nicotinic B. muscarinic, nicotinic C. muscarinic, NMDA D. nicotinic, muscarinic

nicotinic, muscarinic

Inhibition of neuropeptide Y synthesis would ________. A. diminish appetite B. stimulate leptin secretion C. induce euphoria D. induce obesity

diminish appetite

As the intensity of a stimulus increases, more axons will become activated. This process is called ________. A. threshold B. refraction C. recruitment D. None of the choices are correct.

recruitment

Which poison inhibits glycine receptors? A. Strychnine B. Curare C. Tetrodotoxin D, All of the choices are correct.

Strychnine

What neurotransmitter is used by neurons with cell bodies in the raphe nuclei along the midline of the brainstem? A. Glycine B. GABA C. Serotonin D. Dopamine

Serotonin

Exogenous and endogenous opioids have both similar and varying effects. Choose the statement that correctly summarizes their differences. A. Like exogenous opioids like morphine, endogenous opioids cause strong feelings of euphoria. B. Exogenous, but not endogenous, can block transmissions of pain. C. Endogenous are found in the CNS, whereas exogenous are released from neurons in the PNS. D. Naloxone has been shown to block the proven actions of both exogenous and endogenous opioids.

Naloxone has been shown to block the proven actions of both exogenous and endogenous opioids.

From which amino acid are dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine all derived? A. Tryptophan B. Tyrosine C. Histidine D. Serine

Tyrosine

An axon will depolarize only if the membrane potential reaches between -70mV and -55mV. This follows the ________. A. all-or-none law B. graduated law C. recruitment law D. threshold law

all-or-none law

Catecholamines activate postsynaptic cells by ________. A. increased Ca2+ influx into the target cell B. inhibition of calmodulin C. inhibition of adenylate cyclase D. increased production of cyclic AMP

increased production of cyclic AMP

The ability of synapses to change how they respond to stimuli is known as _______. A. synaptic plasticity B. temporal summation C. EPSP D. spatial summation

synaptic plasticity

Relaxation of cerebral blood vessels would be stimulated by excessive ________ activity. A. Norepinephrine B. Acetylcholine C. nitric oxide D. glutamate

nitric oxide

Depolarization of an axon is a positive feedback mechanism because ________. A. as more sodium diffuses into the axon, the more voltage-gated potassium channels open B. as more sodium diffuses into the axon, the more voltage-gated sodium channels open C. as more sodium channels open, the membrane potential decreases D. as more potassium channels open, the membrane potential decreases

as more sodium diffuses into the axon, the more voltage-gated sodium channels open

What event(s) could cause presynaptic inhibition? A. Inactivation of Ca2+ channels B. A second neuron causes a reduction in neurotransmitter release from another neuron C, Removal of SNARE complexes D. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

The capacity of synapses for alteration at the molecular level is termed A. Synaptic plasticity B. Synaptic capacitance C. Synaptic modulation D. Synaptic alteration

Synaptic plasticity

Neurotransmitters ________. A. are released by endocytosis B. bind to voltage-gated channels C. bind to chemically-gated or ligand-gated channels D. are actively transported across the synaptic cleft

bind to chemically-gated or ligand-gated channels

What type of neural pathway involves one neuron forming synapses with several postsynaptic neurons A. Plastic B. Divergent C. Convergent D. Oscillating

Divergent

Acetylcholine can induce hyperpolarization by ________. A. binding to nicotinic receptors B. binding to β-adrenergic receptors C. binding to α-adrenergic receptors D. binding to muscarinic receptors

binding to muscarinic receptors

Muscarinic ACh receptors are found in all of the following locations EXCEPT ________. A. glands B. skeletal muscle C. smooth muscle D. cardiac muscle

skeletal muscle

Choose the incorrect statement about norepinephrine. A. It is released in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. B. It is released from adrenergic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system. C. Norepinephrine pathways are stimulated by amphetamines. D. It is released by sympathetic neurons to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands.

It is released from adrenergic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system.

What type of receptors will bind ATP and adenosine? A. Cotransmitter receptors B. Pyrimenergic receptors C. Purinergic receptors D. None of the choices are correct.

Purinergic receptors

How many grams of sucrose (mw= 342g) would need to be added to 1L of water to produce a 2.5 Osm solution? A. 342 B. 855 C. 2.5 D. 500

855

Regardless of solubility, a cell signaling molecule could not affect a target cell without A. Being attached to another cell B. A second messenger in the plasma membrane C. Specific receptor proteins within the cell or in the plasma membrane D. All of the choices are correct

Specific receptor proteins within the cell or in the plasma membrane

Ion channels thar can be opened by physiological stimuli are said to be ________. A. Hypertonic B. Polar C. Gated D. Aquaporins

Gated

Poisoning that disables the Na+/K+ pump would cause the volume of the cell to _______. A. Decrease B. Increase C. Remain the same

Increase

In secondary active transport, if the other substance is moved in the same direction as Na+, it is called _____. A. Antiport B. Symport C. Cotransport D. Cotransport and symport are both correct.

Cotransport and symport are both correct.

Secondary active transport___. A. always moves molecules in the same direction as sodium ions. B. requires the influx of sodium ions C. utilizes energy directly through the hydrolysis of ATP D. only occurs in the kidney

requires the influx of sodium ions

The class of glycoproteins which bond to components in the extracellular matrix, thereby acting as adhesion molecules between cells and the matrix are called ______. A. Glycocalyces B. Aquaporins C. Integrins D. Desmosomes

Integrins

The majority of water within the body is found in the ______. A. Extracellular compartment B. Interstitial fluid C. Intracellular compartment D. Blood plasma

Intracellular compartment

Which of the following is able to passively penetrate the plasma membrane (without a transport protein)? A. O2 B. Small charged particles C. Larger polar molecules D. All of the choices are correct

A six molar sucrose (molecular weight = 342g) solution would contain ___________. A. 342g sucrose per liter B. 2052g sucrose per liter C. 1026g sucrose per liter D. 57g sucrose per liter

2052g sucrose per liter

Poisoning that disables the Na+/K+ pump would ________. A. inhibit secondary active transport B. increase cellular permeability to Na+ C. increase cellular permeability to K+ D. generate a more negative membrane potential

inhibit secondary active transport

Glycosuria would occur if the ________ of the renal glucose transport protein is exceeded. A. Transport maximum B. Saturation level C. Transport maximum or saturation level D. Transport minimum

Transport maximum or saturation level

The most numerous of all cells of CNS nervous tissue are the _______. A. Astrocytes B. Microglia C. Schwann cells D. Neurons

Astrocytes

What type of proteins are present in gap junctions that form water-filled channels between neurons? A. Myelin B. Connexins C. Terminal boutons D. Cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)

Connexins

Choose the incorrect statement regarding EPSPs. A. They are graded responses. B. They are able to be summated. C. There are initiated by neurotransmitters D. They have a refractory period.

They have a refractory period.

Benzodiazepines act by increasing _________ activity. A. Ach B. Glutamate C. Enkephalin D. GABA

GABA

Both long-term potentiation and long-term depression require the release of ______ from the postsynaptic neuron membrane. A. Cl- B. Mg 2+ C. Ca 2+ D. K+

Ca 2+

Structural classifications of neurons do NOT include _____. A. Motor neurons B. Pseudounipolar neurons C. Multipolar neurons D. Bipolar neurons

Motor neurons

The average resting membrane potential of an axon is ______. A. +30mV B. -70mV C. 0 mV D. -85mV

-70mV

Chemicals that stimulate action potentials in postsynaptic cells are called ________. A. Neurotransmitters B. Neurotrophins C. Enzymes D. Hormones

Neurotransmitters

Synaptic vesicles are docked to the plasma membrane of the axon terminal by a protein complex called ________. A. Synaptotagmins B. Connexins C. SNARE D. Boutons

SNARE

Neostigmine, used to treat myasthenia gravis, blocks the enzyme that degrades ______. This helps treat the disease because _________. A. Nicotine; it destroys the anti bodies that block nictinic ACh receptors on the motor end plate. B. Acetylcholine; it increases the amount of acetylcholine available to bind to receptors on the motor end plate. C. Acetylcjoline; it destroys the antibodies that block nicotinic ACh receptors on the motor end plate. D. Norepinephrine; it increases the amount of acetylcholine available to bind to receptors on the motor end plate.

Acetylcholine; it increases the amount of acetylcholine available to bind to receptors on the motor end plate.

Synaptic plasticity involves structural changes in neurons, such as ________. A. formation of more axon terminals B. formation of dendritic spines C. formation of axillary branches D. mitosis of neurons

formation of dendritic spines

Mutation of the N-methly-D-asparate (NMDA) receptor would affect the ability of ________ to regulate neural function. A. Nitric oxide B. Epinephrine C. Acetylcholine D. Glutamate

Glutamate

Astrocytes are NOT involved in ________. uptake of neurotransmitter from a synapse A. stimulation or inhibition neurons B. formation the blood-brain barrier C. formation of synapses in the CNS D. breakdown and engulfment of foreign material in the CNS

breakdown and engulfment of foreign material in the CNS

A patient is prescribed an MAO inhibitor by their doctor. Knowing the actions of MAO inhibitors, this patient’s diagnosis may be ________. A. hypertension, since MAO inhibitors block the degradation of norepinephrine at the synapse B. depression, since MAO inhibitors block the binding of serotonin to postsynaptic cells C. hypertension, since MAO inhibitors block the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic axons D. depression, since MAO inhibitors block the degradation of serotonin at the synapse

depression, since MAO inhibitors block the degradation of serotonin at the synapse

ATP and adenosine can act as neurotransmitters ________. A. when no ACh is available B. when released by adrenergic neurons during sympathetic activation C. after being used for energy by the cell D. All of the choices are correct.

when released by adrenergic neurons during sympathetic activation

The transport of molecules out of the urinary filtrate and into the blood is called ________. A. absorption B. reabsorption C. countertransport D. symport

reabsorption

What type of intravenous fluid would be given to reduce edema? A. Hypertonic B. Hypotonic C. Isotonic

hypertonic

The midbrain forms from the ________. A. diencephalon B. mesencephalon C. telencephalon D. myelencephalon

D. mesencephalon

Riding a bicycle with ease after years of not riding is an example of ________ memory. A. episodic B. working C. procedural D. semantic

procedural

Impaired motor coordination in Parkinson's disease is often due to ________. A. degeneration of the mesolimbic system B. degeneration of the substantia nigra C. degeneration of the red nucleus D. damage to the caudate nucleus

B. degeneration of the substantia nigra

Damage to the ________ will cause a lack of motivation and sexual desire as well as deficient cognitive functions. A. amygdaloid body B. lateral prefrontal area C. medial temporal lobe D. hypothalamus

B. lateral prefrontal area

What is the function of CREB in long-term memory? A. Activates genes to make proteins such as dendritic spines B. Addition of AMPA receptors C. Opens Ca2+ channels D. Draws more glutamate into the neuron

A. Activates genes to make proteins such as dendritic spines

The basal nuclei include the ________. A. corpus striatum B. supraoptic nucleus C. reticular formation D. All of the choices are correct.

A. corpus striatum

What substance can act as a retrograde messenger to increase LPT by increasing the release of glutamate from presynaptic terminals? A. Ca2+ B. ACh C. NO D. Mg2+

C. NO

What substance can act as a retrograde messenger to suppress release of GABA to contribute to LTP? A. Norepinephrine B. Acetylcholine C. Carbon monoxide D. Endocannabinoid

D. Endocannabinoid

A dysfunction of ________ neurons would limit the ability to learn from and mimic the dance steps of an instructor. A. motor neurons B. mirror neurons C. sensory neurons D. interneurons

B. mirror neurons

Releasing and inhibiting hormones are produced in the ________. A. anterior pituitary gland B. posterior pituitary gland C. pineal gland D. hypothalamus

D. hypothalamus

The majority of sensory information is relayed to the cerebrum by the ________. A. medulla oblongata B. hypothalamus C. thalamus D. pons

C. thalamus

Neurons of the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus (VLPO) of the hypothalamus release ________ that promotes sleep. A. Histamine B. GABA C. Dopamine D. Acetylcholine

B. GABA

The medulla oblongata ________. A. contains the nuclei of three cranial nerves B. contains the glossopharyngeal nuclei C. acts only as a relay center D. is continuous with the midbrain

B. contains the glossopharyngeal nuclei

Which of the following is NOT required to coordinate movement? A. Cerebellum B. Hypothalamus C. Basal nuclei D. Motor cortex

B. Hypothalamus

The inability to reach out and touch an object with control and accuracy may result from damage to the ________. A. pons B. cerebellum C. midbrain D. cerebrum

B. cerebellum

A cranial nerve emerging from the pons is damaged. Which deficit in cranial nerve function may be present? A. Loss of vision B. Difficulty swallowing C. Inability to protrude of tongue D. Inability to chew

D. Inability to chew

Nerve fibers of the ________ tract decussate in the spinal cord and are involved in regulating fine motor movements. A. lateral corticospinal B. anterior spinothalamic C. lateral spinothalamic D. anterior corticospinal

A. lateral corticospinal

If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve were to be cut, the individual would ________. A. have no reflexes involving that nerve B. Both have no sensory perception from that nerve and have no reflexes involving that nerve are correct. C. have no sensory perception from that nerve D. have no motor responses for that nerve

B. Both have no sensory perception from that nerve and have no reflexes involving that nerve are correct.

What is the first structure of a reflex arc? A. Sensory neuron B. Receptor C. Effector (muscles or glands) D. Motor neuron

B. Receptor

Eye movements would be compromised by damage to the ________. A. vestibulocochlear nerve B. accessory nerve C. trochlear nerve D. vagus nerve

C. trochlear nerve

Cerebrospinal fluid is found ________. A. within the olfactory bulbs B. Both within the central canal and within the ventricles. C. within the ventricles of the brain D. within the central canal of the spinal cord

B. Both within the central canal and within the ventricles.

Chorea is most likely to result from damage to the ________. A. premotor cortex B. primary motor cortex C. caudate nucleus D. insula

C. caudate nucleus

The limbic system, especially the ________ and ________, are rich in "stress hormone" receptors. A. septal nuclei; hippocampus B. cingulated gyrus; amygdaloid body C. hippocampus; amygdaloid body D. caudate nucleus; hippocampus

C. hippocampus; amygdaloid body

REM sleep is unique from other stages in that ________. A. it causes ideal rest, without emotional activation B. learning from activities during the day occurs C. memory consolidation can occur D. breathing and heart rate mimic the patterns during waking hours

D. breathing and heart rate mimic the patterns during waking hours

An electroencephalogram obtained from an adult who is thinking would probably display many ________ waves. A. alpha B. delta C. beta D. theta

C. beta

Damage to the orbitofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex causes ________. A. severe impulsive/sociopathic behavior B. memory deficiencies C. cognitive deficiencies D. inhibited fear response

A. severe impulsive/sociopathic behavior

Choose the complete list of lobes of the cerebrum. A. Temporal, frontal, insula, cerebellum, occipital B. Insula, temporal, parietal, pons, and occipital C. Cerebrum, midbrain, thalamus, pons, medulla oblongata D. Frontal, parietal, temporal, insula, occipital

D. Frontal, parietal, temporal, insula, occipital

After an accident, a patient has difficulty moving the limbs on his right side. Damage was most likely sustained by the ________. A. left cerebral cortex B. right cerebral cortex C. left globus pallidus D. Cerebellum

A. left cerebral cortex

A "word salad" speaking pattern occurs when ________. A. Wernicke’s area is damaged B. the angular gyrus is damaged C. the motor speech area is damaged D. spinal nerves are damaged

A. Wernicke’s area is damaged

What structure separates the frontal and parietal lobes? A. Corpus callosum B. Central sulcus C. Lateral sulcus D. Longitudinal fissure

B. Central sulcus

A patient sustains a head injury. He cannot remember the words to a new song on the radio no matter how many times he hears it, but can recite a song he learned in his childhood. He most likely damaged his __________. A. occipital lobe B. frontal lobe C. medial temporal lobe D. inferior parietal lobe

C. medial temporal lobe

Based on experimental evidence, the ________ hypothalamus acts as the body's thermostat. A. lateral B. medial C. supraoptic D. preoptic-anterior

D. preoptic-anterior

In most most individuals, writing skills would be impaired if damage to the ________ occurred. A. left cerebral hemisphere B. None of the choices are correct. C. right cerebral hemisphere D. corpus callosum

A. left cerebral hemisphere

Which of the following is NOT a vital function of the medulla oblongata? A. Respiratory control B. Vasomotor control C. Cardiac control D. Thirst control

D. Thirst control

Visual reflexes would be impaired by damage to the ________. A. superior colliculi B. medial geniculate nuclei C. inferior colliculi D. red nucleus

A. superior colliculi

The ________ is a cerebral lobe that is involved in memory and integration of sensory information (mostly pain) with visceral responses. A. parietal B. temporal C. insula D. frontal

C. insula

What type of cerebellar cells provide communication to other brain areas? A. Reticular cells B. Pyramidal cells C. Purkinje cells D. Supraoptic cells

C. Purkinje cells

A spinal cord injury occurs to the posterior spinocerebellar tract on the right side. What deficits would be expected? A. Decreased sensory impulses to the cerebellum on the right side B. Decreased sensory impulses from the cerebellum on the left side C. Decreased sensory impulses to the both sides of the cerebellum D. Decreased sensory impulses from the cerebellum on the right side

A. Decreased sensory impulses to the cerebellum on the right side

The suprachiasmatic nuclei ________. A. are located in the anterior hypothalamus B. control melatonin secretion from the pineal gland C. contain "clock cells" that have patterns which repeat about every twenty-four hours D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

A cranial nerve with only sensory fibers is the ________. A. vagus nerve B. trigeminal nerve C. optic nerve D. hypoglossal nerve

C. optic nerve

Which cranial nerve is NOT involved with eye movements? A. Abducens B. Optic C. Trochlear D. Oculomotor

B. Optic

The hypothalamus does NOT ________. A. control body temperature B. control hunger and thirst C. controls the autonomic nervous system D. relay visual and auditory input to the cerebral cortex

D. relay visual and auditory input to the cerebral cortex

Damage to which cranial nerve would be associated with both sensory and motor deficits? A. VII B. II C. VIII D. I

A. VII

The right side of the brain controls motor activity on the left side of the body because nerve tracts decussate in the ________. A. medulla oblongata B. pons C. midbrain D. thalamus

A. medulla oblongata

Which brain structure contains two respiratory control centers? A. Midbrain B. Cerebellum C. Epithalamus D. Pons

D. Pons

Ataxia is often associated with damage to the ________. A. cerebellum B. occipital lobe C. motor cortex D. pyramidal tracts

A. cerebellum

.In the spinal cord, the gray matter is arranged into ________ and the white matter is arranged into ______ A. tracts; funiculi B. columns; horns C. horns; funiculi D. funiculi; tracts

C. horns; funiculi

The function of ________ is to link sensory stimuli with the appropriate motor responses. A. bipolar neurons B. motor neurons C. interneurons D. pseudounipolar neurons

C. interneurons

What is the function of the motor circuit in the brain? A. Inhibits excessive stimuli from reaching the cerebral cortex B. Allows for intended movements to occur, while controlling unwanted movement C. Helps in the maintenance of posture and balance during movement D. Activates the RAS

B. Allows for intended movements to occur, while controlling unwanted movement

Recognition of a friend's face is a function of ________ cerebral hemisphere(s) in most individuals. A. both B. the left C. the right

C. the right

What condition is caused by a sudden failure of the RAS? A. Narcolepsy B. Insomnia C. Parkinson's disease D. Alzheimer's disease

A. Narcolepsy

Which of the following RAS neurotransmitters stimulates the cerebral cortex for wakefulness? A. Norepinephrine B. Dopamine C. Both dopamine and norepinephrine are correct. D. GABA

C. Both dopamine and norepinephrine are correct.

The majority of the fibers of the pyramidal tracts decussate in the ________. A. medulla oblongata B. midbrain C. spinal cord D. basal nuclei

A. medulla oblongata

Nerves that supply the muscular and cutaneous innervation of the arm arise from the ________ plexus. A. brachial B. sacral C. cervical D. lumbar

A. brachial

The total percentage of blood flow to the body per minute that goes to the brain is A. 25 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30

B. 15

The famous patient “H.M.” could not remember events that occurred after his memory was damaged after he had brain surgery to treat his epilepsy. He retained his perceptual and motor skills, but lost his memory of new facts and events. Thus H.M’s deficit was in A. Declarative or implicit memory B. Nondeclarative or explicit memory C. Declarative or explicit memory D. Nondeclarative or implicit memory

C. Declarative or explicit memory

Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system A. Hippocampus B. Cingulate gyrus C. Angular gyrus D. Amygdaloid body

C. Angular gyrus

What ion is involved in stimulating genetic transcription needed for learning and memory A. NO B. Ca 2+ C. Na+ D. K+

B. Ca 2+

Brain metabolism may be best studied by ______. A. Magnetic resonance imaging B. Position-emission tomography C. Computed tomography D. electroencephalography

B. Position-emission tomography

The _____ is the dorsal diencephalon, containing the choroid plexus and the pineal gland A. Third ventricle B. Hypothalamus C. Epithalamus D. thalamus

C. Epithalamus

Interpretation of auditory inputs would be most affected by _____ A. Abiation of the lateral geniculate nuclei of the thalamus B. Abiation of the hypothalamus C. Abiation of the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus D. Abiation to the medical geniculate nuclei of the thalamus

D. Abiation to the medical geniculate nuclei of the thalamus

Which of the following spinal nerve groups is incorrect A. Thoracic - 12 B. Lumbar - 5 C. Sacral - 5 D. Cervical - 7

D. Cervical - 7

What specific area of the brain has shown to be involved in complex problem-solving? A. Frontal lobe B. Prefrontal cortex C. Amygdaloid body D. Hippocampus

B. Prefrontal cortex

The hypothalamus and the limbic system are involved in ________. A. aggression B. fear C. sex D. goal-directed behavior E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Aphasias are most often associated with damage to ________ and ________ areas. A. motor speech; Wernicke’s B. fornix; motor speech C. Wernicke’s area; the angular gyrus D. the angular gyrus; septal nuclei

A. motor speech; Wernicke’s

Nerves that innervate the muscles and skin of the leg arise from the ________. A. Both the sacral and lumbar plexuses are correct. B. brachial plexus C. lumbar plexus D. sacral plexus

A. Both the sacral and lumbar plexuses are correct.

Cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the ________ A. midbrain B. peripheral ganglia C. thoracic and sacral regions of the spinal cord D. thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord

D. thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord

Somatic motor neurons have a direct connection between the CNS and their effector organs, while ________ neurons must synapse on with a peripheral neuron before reaching their effectors. A. somatic sensory B. autonomic sensory C. autonomic motor D. Both somatic and autonomic are correct.

C. autonomic motor

What occurs when one sympathetic preganglionic neuron synapses on several postganglionic neurons? A. Convergence B. Cooperation C. All of the choices are correct. D. Divergence

D. Divergence

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system ________. A. has terminal ganglia embedded in the visceral effectors B. has relatively short preganglionic neurons C. has long postganglionic neurons D has a single neuron arising from the spinal cord

A. has terminal ganglia embedded in the visceral effectors

The splanchnic nerves synapse in the ________. A. gray rami communicantes B. collateral ganglia C. white rami communicantes D. paravertebral ganglia

B. collateral ganglia

The ________ are branches made from the preganglionic sympathetic axons that travel from the spinal nerves to sympathetic ganglia chain. A. gray rami communicantes B. dorsal rami C. ventral rami D. white rami communicantes

D. white rami communicantes

Damage to the thoracic portion of the spinal cord would probably have a greater effect on the ________ division of the autonomic nervous system. A. sensory B. somatic C. parasympathetic D. sympathetic

D. sympathetic

From where do parasympathetic preganglionic neurons originate? A. Brainstem B. Sacral region of the spinal cord C. Thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord D. Brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord

D. Brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord

Which of the following is NOT a collateral ganglion? A. Superior mesenteric B. Celiac C. Inferior mesenteric D. Hepatic

D. Hepatic

Ablation of the celiac ganglia would inhibit sympathetic regulation of the ________. A. adrenal glands B. Kidneys C. heart D. Bladder

B. Kidneys

Atropine blocks ________ receptors for ________. When administered, expected side effects may include ________. A. cholinergic; norepinephrine; increased visual sensitivity to light B. cholinergic; ACh; dryness in the mouth C. muscarinic; ACh; increased blood pressure D. muscarinic; norepinephrine; feelings of anxiety

C. muscarinic; ACh; increased blood pressure

The second messenger mediating the effects of norepinephrine on the heart would be ________. A. increased intracellular Ca2+ B. decreased Ca2+ C. decreased intracellular cyclic AMP D. increased cyclic AMP

D. increased cyclic AMP

In response to sympathetic stimulation, ________; this allows for ________ during fight-or-flight. A. blood vessels in skeletal muscles dilate; greater oxygen delivery to the muscle B. bronchioles vasodilate; heart rate to decrease C. intestinal motility increases; greater energy availability D. pupils constrict; more acute vision

A. blood vessels in skeletal muscles dilate; greater oxygen delivery to the muscle

The neurotransmitter released at terminal ganglia is ________. A. acetylcholine B. dopamine C. norepinephrine D. epinephrine

A. acetylcholine

A defect in nitric oxide synthetase gene may result in reduced ________ of cerebral arteries since nitric oxide production would be impaired. A. arterial pressure B. compliance C. vasodilation D. vasoconstriction

C. vasodilation

Postganglionic ________ neurons release acetylcholine A. somatic B. sensory C. sympathetic D. parasympathetic

D. parasympathetic

Which part of the brain helps to regulate the ANS actions from the medulla during motion sickness? A. Limbic system B. Hypothalamus C. Cerebrum D. Cerebellum

D. Cerebellum

The ________ has both a1 and b1 receptors and responds to sympathoadrenal stimulation with glycogenolysis and secretion of glucose. A. liver B. pancreas C. adrenal cortex D. skeletal muscle

A. liver

Goose bumps would occur in response to ________. A. a cholinergic agonist B. an adrenergic agonist C. a cholinergic antagonist D. an adrenergic antagonist

B. an adrenergic agonist

Visceral reactions which accompany emotional states are due to activation of the autonomic nervous system by the ________. A. cerebral cortex B. pons C. cerebellum D. limbic system

D. limbic system

Solutes that cannot freely pass through a membrane are said to be ________. A. osmotically active B. osmotically inactive C. hypertonic D. selectively permeable

A. osmotically active

What type of proteins are present at chemical synapses to ensure the close proximity of the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes? A. Cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) B. Connexins C. Terminal boutons D. Myelin

A. Cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)

Histamine is able to ________. A. act as a regulator in inflammation and allergies B. act as a neurotransmitter in the brain to cause drowsiness C. act as a hormone that inhibits gastric secretion D. act as a neurotransmitter to cause skeletal muscle contraction

A. act as a regulator in inflammation and allergies

The most abundant neuropeptide in the brain is ________. A. neuropeptide Z B. neuropeptide Y C. substance P D. CCK

B. neuropeptide Y

Which area of the brain contains neural stem cells that are apparently important in learning and memory? A. Temporal lobe B. Arcuate fasciculus C. Subgranular zone of the hippocampus D. Cerebral cortex

C. Subgranular zone of the hippocampus

The ________ is involved in the improvement of memory when the memory has an emotional content. A. caudate nucleus B. substantia nigra C. fornix D. amygdaloid body

D. amygdaloid body

Ablation of the amygdaloid body would primarily result in ________. A. decreased sex drive B. absence of fear C. loss of appetite D. loss of ability to detect olfactory inputs

B. absence of fear

What structure connects Wernicke’s area to the motor speech area? A. Arcuate fasciculus B. Corpus callosum C. Corpus striatum D. Angular gyrus

A. Arcuate fasciculus

In long-term potentiation dealing with memory, what regulatory protein do calcium ions bind to? A. CREB B. CaMKII C. Calmodulin D. Kinase

C. Calmodulin

Which cranial nerve is vital for the functioning of the visceral organs? A. Hypoglossal B. Abducens C. Abducens D. Vagus

D. Vagus

Which cranial nerve allows one to smile, controls secretion of tears? A. IX B. XII C. VII D. V

C. VII

The conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory would be inhibited by ablation of the ________. A. occipital lobe B. pons C. cerebral nuclei D. hippocampus

D. hippocampus

Individuals with aphasia ________. A. may not be able to write if the angular gyrus is damaged B. often have damage to spinal nerves C. often form nonsensical sentences if the motor speech area is damaged D. often speak slowly if Wernicke’s area is damaged

A. may not be able to write if the angular gyrus is damaged

Which neurotransmitter is NOT associated with basal nuclei function? A. GABA B. Glutamate C. All of the neurotransmitters play a major role in basal nuclei function. D. Dopamine

C. All of the neurotransmitters play a major role in basal nuclei function.

Individuals suffering from cystic fibrosis have defective ___ ion channels A. Chloride B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Calcium

A. Chloride

Action potential transmission in the PNS is decreased if which cells are damaged? A. Schwann cells B. Astrocytes C. Microglia D. Oligodendrocytes

A. Schwann cells

At what region of the neuron are action potentials first produced? A. Axon terminal B. Axon hillock C. Cell body D. dendrites

B. Axon hillock

Addictive drugs, as well as nicotine, activate dopamine release in the __ A. Corpus callosum B. Corpus striatum C. Basal nuclei D. Nucleus accumbens

D. Nucleus accumbens

Damage to the Papez circuit prevents communication between the limbic system and ___ A. Olfactory bulbs B. Hippocampus C. Diencephalon D. cerebrum

C. Diencephalon

Sensory impulses for fine touch, precise pressures, and body movement are carried by the ___ tracts. A. Fasciculi cuneatus and gracilis B. Anterior spinothalamic C. Posterior spinocerebellar D. Lateral spinothalamic

A. Fasciculi cuneatus and gracilis

Damage to the terminal ganglia would have the greatest effect on ________. A. sympathetic motor neurons B. somatic motor neurons C. parasympathetic motor neurons D. somatic reflex function

C. parasympathetic motor neurons

Neural crest cells form ________. A. the adrenal medulla B. preganglionic sympathetic neurons C. the hypothalamus D. preganglionic parasympathetic neurons

A. the adrenal medulla

The paravertebral and collateral ganglia are associated with the ________ division of the autonomic nervous system. A. somatic B. sympathetic C. parasympathetic D. sensory

B. sympathetic

The vagus nerve innervates all of the following EXCEPT the ________. A. heart B. liver C. iris D. Stomach

C. iris

Muscarinic antagonists would stimulate ________ pupillary diameter. A. no change in B. a decrease C. an increase

C. an increase

M2 receptors in the heart ________. A. increase heart rate B. decrease heart rate C. cause increased cytosolic Ca2+ in heart cells D. cause increased spontaneous depolarization in the heart

B. decrease heart rate

Choose the example of a parasympathetic response. A. Dilation of the pupils B. Increased intestinal motility C. Increased heart rate D. Increase in saliva production

B. Increased intestinal motility

Which of the following organs is dually innervated? A. Skeletal muscle B. Arrector pili muscles in the skin C. Adrenal medulla D. Urinary bladder

D. Urinary bladder

Intracellular Ca2+ is elevated if norepinephrine binds to a(n) ________ receptor. A. alpha-2 adrenergic B. alpha-1 adrenergic C. beta-1 adrenergic D. beta-2 adrenergic

B. alpha-1 adrenergic

The ________ can control autonomic function, such that under some emotional states, visceral reactions like blushing, fainting, etc., can occur. A. medulla oblongata B. reticular activating system C. cerebrum D. limbic system

D. limbic system

The medulla oblongata controls many autonomic activities through the ________. A. splanchnic nerves B. paravertebral ganglia C. vagus nerve D. collateral ganglia

C. vagus nerve

Which organ receives only sympathetic innervation? A. The adrenal medulla B. Arrector pili muscles in the skin C. Most blood vessels D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

Somatic motor reflexes may result in________. A. contraction of skeletal muscle B. inhibition of smooth muscle contraction C. vasoconstriction D. contraction of smooth muscle

A. contraction of skeletal muscle

Damage to a parasympathetic autonomic motor neuron could result in ________. A. decreased secretion from a gland B. spasticity of skeletal muscle C. increased skeletal muscle tone D. decreased heart rate

A. decreased secretion from a gland

Which ganglia are associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? A. Paravertebral B. Collateral C. Terminal

C. Terminal

Mass activation is an important ability of the sympathetic nervous system because ________. A. it allows for enhancement of sympathetic effects throughout the body during the “fight-or-flight” response. B. it allows for simultaneous increases and decreases in the activity of postganglionic sympathetic axons to maintain homeostasis. C. All of the choices are correct. D. it allows the parasympathetic nervous system to remain active during the “fight-or-fight” response.

A. it allows for enhancement of sympathetic effects throughout the body during the “fight-or-flight” response.

A patient’s history indicates damage to autonomic ganglia, and symptoms associated with digestive pain and dysfunction. The ganglia least likely to be damaged is ________. A. celiac B. sympathetic chain adjacent to T1 C. sympathetic chain adjacent to T8 D. superior mesenteric

B. sympathetic chain adjacent to T1

Which of the following selectively stimulates a2 receptors on neurons in the brain, thereby suppressing sympathoadrenal activation and lowering blood pressure? A. Bradykinin B. Clonidine C. Acetylcholine D. Atropine

B. Clonidine

Cocaine is a(an) ________ drug, meaning that it promotes sympathetic nerve effects. A. sympathomimetic B. adrenergic C .parasympathomimetic D .Cholinergic

A. sympathomimetic

Blood flow to skeletal muscle would be ________ in response to muscarinic antagonists. A. increased B. not changed C. decreased

C. decreased

Phenylephrine functions as a/an ________ because it promotes ________ in nasal mucosa. A. b1 agonist; vasodilation B. b1 antagonist; vasodilation C. a1 agonist; vasoconstriction D. a1 antagonist; vasoconstriction

C. a1 agonist; vasoconstriction

Neural stem cells in adult mammalian brains are found in the ________. A. Cerebral cortex B. Midbrain C. Subventricular zone D. Both the subventricular and subgranular zones E. Subgranular zone

D. Both the subventricular and subgranular zones

The conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory is called memory ________. A. Consolidation B. Recognition C. Ablation D. Translation

A. Consolidation

Choose the statement that characterizes the cerebral cortex. A. Sensations from the feet would be on the most inferior area of the somatesthetic cortex. B. The hands and feet have a similar density of receptors. C. Areas of the body with the greatest density of receptors will have larger areas on the somatesthetic cortex. D. Damage to the left side of the motor cortex could impair muscular control of the limbs on the left side of the body.

C. Areas of the body with the greatest density of receptors will have larger areas on the somatesthetic cortex.

Ablation of the ________ in the midbrain would impair the ability to respond to sounds. A. red nucleus B. medial colliculi C. inferior colliculi D. substantia nigra

C. inferior colliculi

There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves and ________ pairs of spinal nerves. A. 12; 31 B. 12; 25 C. 31; 12 D. 15; 31

A. 12; 31

Autonomic motor nerves do NOT innervate ________. A. Skeletal muscle B. Smooth muscle C. Cardiac muscle D. glands

A. Skeletal muscle

A patient in a car accident fractured a thoracic vertebrae and sustained damage to the spinal nerve leaving the intravertebral foramen at the same level. The autonomic structure(s) likely to be damaged by this injury is/are the ________. A. Preganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies B. White rami communicates C. Celiac ganglion D. Gray rami communicates

B. White rami communicates

The slowest rate of conduction would be measured in ________ neurons. A. Postganglion autonomic sympathetic B. Pregnaglionic autonomic sympathetic C. Somatic D. Pregnaglionic parasympathetic

A. Postganglion autonomic sympathetic

"Synapses en passant" refers to the fact that postganglionic autonomic neurons release neurotransmitter ________. A. From the axon terminal B. From the soma C. Only when receptors pass over the axon D. Along the length of the axon

D. Along the length of the axon

Which of the following is NOT an example of the cooperative effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS? A. Micrurition B. Sexual function C. Sweating D. Saliva production

C. Sweating

The majority of postganglionic sympathetic neurons release ________. A. Acetyllcholine B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. Epinephrine

B. Norepinephrine

Nonshivering thermogenesis is regulated by the ________ system. A. Sympathoadrenal B. Parasympathetic C. Somatic nervous D. Limbic

A. Sympathoadrenal

Cocaine acts as a sympathomimetic drug because it blocks the reuptake of ________. A. Norepinephrine B. Insulin C. Acetylcholine D. Glucose

A. Norepinephrine

Cutaneous effectors such as blood vessels, sweat glands, and erector pili muscles are innervated by ________. A. only parasympathetic nerves B. only sympathetic nerves C. both parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves D. both parasympathetic and somatic nerves

B. only sympathetic nerves

Epinephrine is a ________. A. Sympathetic neurotransmitter B. Parasympathetic neurotransmitter C. Sympathomimetic hormone D. All of the choices are correct

C. Sympathomimetic hormone

All adrenergic receptors act via ________. A. H-proteins B. G-proteins C. sodium-potassium pump D. ligand-gated channels

B. G-proteins

Which of the following is a catecholamine? A. Norepinephrine B. Acetylcholine C. Nitric Oxide D. All of the answer choices are correct.

A. Norepinephrine

Postganglionic axons which do not secrete either catecholamines or acetylcholine may secrete ________. A. ATP B. nitric oxide C. vasoactive intestinal peptide D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

Alpha 2-adrenergic receptors on presynaptic axon terminals, when stimulated, cause ____________. A. Decreased release of epinephrine B. Decreased release of norepinephrine C. Increased release of epinephrine D. Increased release of norepinephrine

B. Decreased release of norepinephrine

How can you distinguish the sympathetic from the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system A. Neurotransmitters release by the preganglionic neurons B. Presence of peripheral ganglia C. Origin of the preganglionic neurons D. Sympathetic can be both excitatory and inhibitory

C. Origin of the preganglionic neurons

Damage to the ______ nerve could inhibit saliva production A. Hypoglossal B. Facial C. Abducen D. Vagus

B. Facial

Bright light would stimulate a decrease in pupil diameter through ________ nerves. A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic C. Somatic D. Sensory

A. Parasympathetic

Damage to the temporal lobe of the cerebrum would have the greatest impact on ________. A. Vision B. Voluntary skeletal muscle C. Hearing D. Distinguishing between different somatic sensations

C. Hearing

Reflex arcs ______ A. Require input from the cerebral cortex B. May be mono- or polysynaptic C. Do not include somatic motor neurons D. Generally rely on the actions of the hypothalamus

B. May be mono- or polysynaptic

Retrograde transport __________. A. Moves substances toward the cell body B. Moves membranes, vesicles, and viruses C. Uses molecular motor proteins of dynein D. All of the choices are correct

D. All of the choices are correct

What type of neuron is found entirely in the CNS? A. Sensory neuron B. Interneuron C. Association neuron D. Both interneuron and association neuron are correct.

D. Both interneuron and association neuron are correct.

Blocking β2-adrenergic receptors prevents airway A. Constriction B. Dilation

B. Dilation

The collateral ganglia contain ________. A. Nicotinic receptors B. Muscarinic receptors C. α-adrenergic receptors D. β-adrenergic receptors

A. Nicotinic receptors

he parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system A. utilizes norepinephrine as a postganglionic neurotransmitter B. has a relatively short preganglionic neuron C. includes the adrenal medulla D. utilizes acetylcholine as a postganglionic neurotransmitter

D. utilizes acetylcholine as a postganglionic neurotransmitter

Compared to somatic motor neurons, autonomic motor neurons ________. A. utilize acetylcholine to affect target organs B. do not innervate muscle tissue C. control actions in multiple organ systems D. would be unaffected by a spinal cord injury

C. control actions in multiple organ systems

Which of the following organs would be affected by a drug that blocks muscarinic receptors? A. Arrector pili muscles B. Uterus C. Adrenal medulla D. iris

D. iris

Which autonomic division is dominant in an emergency situation? A. Sympathetic B. parasympathetic

A. Sympathetic

The major regulatory center of the autonomic nervous system is believed to be the ________ since this brain region has functions that require appropriate activation of sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers. A. Hypothalamus B. Midbrain C. Thalamus D. Cerebrum

A. Hypothalamus

Cholinergic receptors bind neurotransmitters released from ____. A. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons B. Adrenergic neurons C. The adrenal medulla D. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons

A. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons

Alpha-1-adrenergic receptors are mediated by ________. A. Ca2+ B. cAMP C. K+ D. Na+

A. Ca2+

Because they release norepinephrine, ________ are considered adrenergic neurons. A. postganglionic sympathetic neurons B. postganglionic parasympathetic C. somatic motor neurons D. preganglionic sympathetic neurons

A. postganglionic sympathetic neurons

The cerebellum forms from the ________. A. diencephalon B. myelencephalon C. metecephalon D. telencephalon

C. metecephalon