Exam 3 - GU packrat Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following in examination of urinary sediment indicates contamination?
A. Granular casts
B. Leukocyte casts
C. Squamous epithelial cells 
D. Transitional epithelial cells
A

(c) C. The urinalysis should be repeated if squamous epithelial cells are found in the specimen as this indicates contamination.

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2
Q
A 62 year-old male presents with hematuria associated with flank pain. Review of a recent abdominal CT scan revealed the presence of 5 cm solid mass in the right kidney. Chest x-ray and bone scan are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiation therapy
C. Radical nephrectomy
D. Cell-based tumor vaccine
A

(c) C. Presence of a solid renal mass is renal cell cancer until proven otherwise which is also supported by the symptoms of hematuria and flank pain. Since there is no evidence of metastasis, localized renal cell cancer is treated by radical nephrectomy.

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3
Q
A 53 year-old male presents with complaints of frequency, urgency and dysuria associated with fever andchills. He also notes some discomfort in his back. Physical examination reveals a febrile patient with minimal suprapubic tenderness and moderate costovertebral angle tenderness. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute cystitis
B. Acute prostatitis
C. Acute epididymitis 
D. Acute pyelonephritis
A

(c) D. Acute pyelonephritis is supported by the irritative voiding symptoms associated with fever, flank pain and CVA tenderness.

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4
Q

A 28 year-old G1P0 in her third trimester presents complaining of dysuria, frequency and urgency for the past 2 days. She denies any back pain or fever. Physical examination is essentially unremarkable except for some mild suprapubic tenderness. Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria and pyuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
A. Cephalexin (Keflex)
B. Doxycycline (Doryx)
C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

A

(c) A. First generation cephalosporins, such as cephalexin, are one of the antibiotics of choice to treat a pregnant female with acute cystitis.
(h) B. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, are contraindicated in pregnancy due to fetal tooth and bone development.
(h) C. Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, are contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenic effects.
(u) D. Sulfa drugs, such as trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, may be used in the first two trimesters to treat cystitis in pregnant females; however its use is contraindicated in the third trimester due to potential problems with neonatal hyperbilirubinemia.

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5
Q
A patient presents with acute onset of scrotal pain. Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of testicular torsion?
A. Prehn's sign
B. High-riding testicle
C. Transilluminating mass 
D. Blue dot sign
A

(c) B. High-riding testicle is noted in testicular torsion due to shortening and twisting of the spermatic cord.

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6
Q
A 42 year-old male presents complaining of a sudden onset of a severe intermittent pain originating in the flank and radiating into the right testicle. He also complains of nausea and vomiting. On examination the patient is afebrile, but restless. Examination of the abdomen reveals tenderness to palpation along the right flank with no rebound or direct testicular tenderness. Urinalysis reveals a pH of 5.4 and microscopic hematuria, but is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bladder cancer
B. Nephrolithiasis
C. Acute appendicitis 
D. Acute epididymitis
A

(c) B. A sudden onset of severe colicky flank pain associated with nausea and vomiting as well as the absence of rebound or direct testicular tenderness makes nephrolithiasis the most likely diagnosis. This is further supported by the presence of hematuria on the urinalysis.

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7
Q

Which of the following is the most consistent physical examination finding associated with a hydrocele?
A. Tender and swollen testicle
B. Palpable painless mass on the testicle
C. Nontender scrotal mass that transilluminates
D. Inability to get exam finger above scrotal mass

A

(c) C. A hydrocele is a fluid-filled mass that is nontender to palpation. Diagnosis is readily made by transillumination, however evaluation is still warranted as 10% of testicular tumors may have an associated hydrocele.

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8
Q

An inpatient currently is receiving IV antibiotic treatment for acute pyelonephritis. Which of the following is an acceptable criterion for switching from IV to oral antibiotic therapy?
A. After 48-72 hours of IV therapy
B. If the patient is failing to respond
C. Until urine cultures become negative
D. 24 hours after patient becomes afebrile

A

(c) D. IV antibiotic treatment is continued for 24 hours after a patient becomes afebrile. Oral antibiotics are then started to complete a 7-day course of therapy.

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9
Q
When performing a rectal examination, prostatic massage is contraindicated in
A. acute bacterial prostatitis. 
B. chronic bacterial prostatitis. 
C. nonbacterial prostatitis.
D. prostatodynia.
A

(c) A. Vigorous manipulation of the prostate during rectal examination may result in septicemia. This is contraindicated in the presence of fever, irritative voiding symptoms, and perineal/sacral pain.

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10
Q

A patient with prostate cancer has a nonpalpable, focal lesion, and the patient is reluctant to have surgery at this time. Which of the following would best monitor disease progression?
A. Periodic rectal exams
B. Transrectal ultrasonography
C. Measurements of serum acid phosphatase
D. Measurements of prostate-specific antigen

A

(c) D. PSA measurement correlates well with volume and stage of disease and is the recommended examination for monitoring disease progression.

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11
Q
Which of the following increases the risk of developing testicular cancer?
A. Low socioeconomic status
B. History of cryptorchidism
C. Multiple episodes of epididymitis 
D. Being of African-American ethnicity
A

(c) B. The major predisposing risk factor is cryptorchidism unrepaired until after age two.

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12
Q

When the diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis is confirmed, which of the following is the treatment of choice?
A. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
B. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
C. Penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin LA)
D. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

A

(c) A. Ceftriaxone is recommended therapy for gonococcal urethritis.

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13
Q
Which of the following can be used to treat chronic bacterial prostatitis?
A. Penicillin
B. Cephalexin (Keflex)
C. Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) 
D. Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
A

(c) D. Chronic bacterial prostatitis (Type II prostatitis) can be difficult to treat and requires the use of fluoroquinolones or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, both of which penetrate the prostate.

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14
Q
Which of the following is most frequently associated with bladder cancer?
A. Hematuria 
B. Dysuria
C. Urgency 
D. Frequency
A

(c) A. Significant persistent hematuria >3 RBC/HPF on three urinalyses, a single urinalysis with >100 RBC, or gross hematuria, identifies significant renal or urologic lesions. Bladder cancer usually presents with painless hematuria.

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15
Q

A 35 year-old pregnant patient presents with fever, chills, and left-sided flank pain. On physical examination left-sided CVA tenderness is noted. Urinalysis reveals numerous white blood cells and white blood cell casts. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Oral ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B. Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
C. IV gentamicin (Garamycin)
D. IV ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

A

(c) D. IV cephalosporins are first line treatment of pyelonephritis in a pregnant patient, followed by oral step-down therapy.

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16
Q

The most definitive treatment for primary enuresis is
A. oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan).
B. imipramine (Tofranil).
C. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim).
D. desmopressin (DDAVP).

A

(c) D. Intranasal desmopressin is effective in 50% of patients treated and is the treatment of choice.

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17
Q
A male patient complains of chronic dysuria, frequency, and urgency with associated perineal pain. The most likely diagnosis is
A. cystitis.
B. gonococcal urethritis. 
C. epididymitis.
D. prostatitis.
A

(c) D. Some patients are asymptomatic, but low back or perineal pain, fever, chills, and irritative urinary symptoms
are common in prostatitis.

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18
Q

A 40 year-old female G5P5 complains of small quantities of urine leaking when she coughs, sneezes, or laughs. Her genitourinary examination is unremarkable and her urinalysis is normal. At this time, which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
A. Refer for a cystoscopy.
B. Recommend Kegel exercises.
C. Refer for surgical correction.
D. Recommend hormone replacement therapy.

A

(c) B. Strengthening the pelvic muscles by Kegel exercises and emptying the bladder frequently may resolve the problem.

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19
Q
Which of the following diagnostic findings in the urinary sediment is specific for a diagnosis of chronic renal failure? 
A. Hematuria
B. Proteinuria
C. Broad waxy casts
D. Hyaline casts
A

(c) C. Broad waxy casts in urinary sediment are a specific finding in chronic renal failure.

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20
Q

Which of the following is the most likely physical examination finding in a patient with Peyronie’s disease?
A. inflammation of the glans of the penis
B. foreskin that cannot be retracted
C. chancre on the shaft of the penis
D. fibrous band on lateral portion of the penis

A

(c) D. Peyronie disease typically presents with fibrotic areas under the penile skin along with a history of penile curvature during erection.

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21
Q
A male patient presents with hematuria. Upon further questioning the patient states that the hematuria occurs at the end of his urinary stream. Which of the following is the most likely source of blood?
A. renal pelvis
B. bladder neck 
C. anterior urethra 
D. ureter
A

(c) B. Terminal hematuria, blood at the end of the urinary stream, suggests a bladder neck or prostatic urethral source.

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22
Q

A 20 year-old male presents with a hard mass on the testicle. There has been no previous infection or trauma to the area. Which of the following is the initial diagnostic evaluation to pursue?
A. serum alpha fetoprotein levels
B. serum human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
C. CT scan of the pelvis
D. ultrasound of the testicles

A

(c) D. An ultrasound of the testes will enable the clinician to discriminate between testicular tumors and epididymitis, orchitis, hematomas, hydroceles, and infiltrative diseases of the testes.

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23
Q
A 34 year-old male presents with symptoms of painful urethral discharge. History reveals recent (7 days ago) intercourse with a new partner. A Gram stain is negative for intracellular diplococci. Assuming no allergies, which of the following is the antibiotic of choice?
A. doxycycline
B. penicillin G
C. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 
D. cephalexin (Keflex)
A

(c) A. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, are drugs of first choice for Chlamydia.

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24
Q

The most effective preventive strategy to prevent recurrence of renal lithiasis is which of the following?
A. increase in hydration
B. early treatment of urinary tract infection
C. limitation of calcium intake
D. use of probenecid

A

(c) A. Keeping the urine dilute is the most effective strategy to prevent crystal accumulation in the urine and the development of urinary stones.

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25
Q

A urinalysis performed during a routine physical examination on a 43 year-old male reveals 1-2 hyaline casts/HPF. The remainder of the UA is normal. Based upon these results, the physician assistant should
A. collect a urine for culture and sensitivity.
B. do nothing, since these casts are considered normal.
C. refer the patient to a nephrologist.
D. schedule the patient for a CT scan.

A

c) B. Hyaline casts are not indicative of renal disease. They can be found following strenuous exercise and with concentrated urine or during a febrile illness.

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26
Q
Which of the following is the most common composition of kidney stones?
A. calcium oxalate
B. uric acid
C. struvite
D. calcium phosphate
A

(c) A. Approximately three fourths of all kidney stones are comprised of calcium oxalate.

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27
Q
When treating a patient with BPH who complains of increased frequency, urgency, decreased force of stream and hesitancy with an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent, the patient should be warned of what possible side effect?
A. hypertensive crisis
B. postural hypotension
C. development of prostate cancer 
D. development of testicular cancer
A

(c) B. This class of medications can cause postural hypotension as a result of the decrease in peripheral vascular resistance and lower arterial blood pressure by causing relaxation of the arterial and venous smooth muscle.

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28
Q
A 7 year-old boy wets the bed nearly every night. Which of the following is the best pharmaceutical agent to use in treating this patient?
A. desmopressin (DDAVP) 
B. paroxetine (Paxil)
C. lorazepam (Ativan)
D. hyoscyamine (Levsin)
A

(c) A. Desmopressin, while not curative, will relieve symptoms.

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29
Q

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for a nursing home patient who has asymptomatic bacteriuria with no history of diabetes or structural abnormalities of the genitourinary tract?
A. ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B. sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim) C. cephalexin (Keflex)
D. no treatment is needed

A

(c) D. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is commonly seen in the geriatric population and no treatment is needed as long as the patient is not diabetic or has no structural abnormalities of the genitourinary tract.

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30
Q
A 7 year-old boy wets the bed on most nights. Which of the following is the preferred pharmacological agent to decrease the incidence of bed wetting episodes?
A. Imipramine (Tofranil) 
B. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C. Pramipexole (Mirapex) 
D. Hyoscyamine (Urised)
A

(c) A. Imipramine is an anti-cholinergic and when given before bedtime has been shown to decrease the incidence of bed wetting.

31
Q
Which of the following is used to monitor possible recurrence of prostate cancer?
A. Prostate specific antigen 
B. Acid phosphatase
C. Transrectal ultrasound 
D. Bone scan
A

(c) A. Increasing levels of prostate specific antigen are consistent with progression of disease.

32
Q
Which of the following signs and symptoms is typically noted in patients with acute cystitis?
A. Fever and chills
B. CVA tenderness
C. Flank pain
D. Frequency and dysuria
A

(c) D. Irritative voiding symptoms, such as frequency and dysuria, are common in acute cystitis.

33
Q
A 35 year-old male presents with fever, perineal pain, and dysuria. On physical examination, the patient is toxic- appearing, febrile, and his prostate is very tender to palpation. Laboratory testing reveals leukocytosis, pyuria, and bacteriuria. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient?
A. Ampicillin and gentamicin
B. Ceftriaxone and doxycline
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole 
D. Nitrofurantoin
A

(c) A. Acute prostatitis is best treated acutely with parenteral antibiotics, such as ampicillin and gentamicin.

34
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of acute epididymitis in men under the age of 40?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Ureaplasma urealyticum
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Escherichia coli

A

(c) A. In men under the age of 40, acute epididymitis is typically caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

35
Q
A 60 year-old male presents with difficulty voiding and having to get up twice a night to urinate. On physical examination, the prostate is firm, smooth, and enlarged. Prostate specific antigen level is normal. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient?
A. Leuprolide (Lupron) 
B. Terazosin (Hytrin)
C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 
D. Naproxen (Naprosyn)
A

(c) B. Terazosin is an alpha-blocker and used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia.

36
Q
A 25 year-old female presents with right lower quadrant pain, right flank pain, nausea, and vomiting. Her temperature is 39.6 degrees C. There is right CVA tenderness and RLQ tenderness. Pelvic exam is unremarkable. Urinalysis reveals pH 7.0, trace protein, negative glucose, negative ketones, positive blood, and positive nitrates. Specific gravity is 1.022. Microscopic shows 102 RBCs/HPF, 50-75 WBCs/HPF, rare epithelial cells, and WBC casts. The most likely diagnosis is
A. acute salpingitis.
B. nephrolithiasis.
C. acute pyelonephritis. 
D. appendicitis.
A

(c) C. Acute pyelonephritis presents with flank pain, fever, and generalized muscle tenderness. Urinalysis shows pyuria with leukocyte casts.

37
Q
A 40 year-old patient with a history of recurrent kidney stones presents with acute onset of right flank pain and hematuria. The patient is afebrile and pain is poorly controlled on oral medications. On CT scan a 1 cm stone is noted in the renal pelvis. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?
A. Antibiotics
B. Shock wave lithotripsy 
C. Ureterolithotomy
D. Fluid hydration
A

(c) B. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is indicated in patients with stones greater than 6 mm in size or intractable pain.

38
Q

A 21 year-old female presents with dysuria. On examination of the urine, many squamous epithelial cells are noted. Which of the following is the next best step in the evaluation or treatment of this patient?
A. Order urine culture and sensitivity
B. Obtain renal ultrasound
C. Repeat urinalysis with a clean catch sample
D. Refer to a nephrologist

A

(c) C. The presence of many squamous epithelial cells indicates contamination with vaginal flora. The test should be repeated with a clean catch specimen.

39
Q
Which of the following agents can be used as a urinary analgesic?
A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) 
B. Oxybutynin (Ditropan)
C. Finasteride (Proscar)
D. Imipramine (Tofranil)
A

(c) A. Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic used in the treatment of urinary tract discomfort.

40
Q

A 48 year-old female presents to the clinic complaining of hematuria. The patient states that she was found to have hematuria during an insurance physical examination. The patient denies dysuria or frequency. She also denies pain in the abdomen, flank or meatus. She denies any history of previous nephrolithiasis. Urinalysis reveals the urine to be yellow and slightly hazy with a positive dipstick for hemoglobin. Microscopic reveals 5-7 RBCs/HPF without WBCs, bacteria, casts, or crystals. What is the next diagnostic study this patient should undergo?
A. CT urography
B. Intravenous pyelogram
C. Abdominal ultrasound D. Cystoscopy

A

(c) A. CT urography with and without contrast should be done to evaluate the upper and lower urinary tract for neoplasms, and benign conditions such as urolithiasis. This has replaced IVP for imaging of the upper tracts. Abdominal ultrasound will not help in this scenario and the role of renal ultrasound in evaluation of hematuria is unclear. Cystoscopy will help to assess the bladder and urethra but will not help with evaluation of the upper urinary tract.

41
Q
A 66 year-old male patient has both hypertension and benign prostatic hypertrophy. Which of the following medications would most likely benefit both conditions?
A. Finasteride (Propecia)
B. Verapamil (Calan)
C. Propanolol (Inderal)
D. Prazosin (Minipress)
A

(c) D. This drug has antihypertensive properties as well as properties to relieve the symptoms of BPH.

42
Q
A newborn male infant is seen by the PA prior to discharge home. On examination it is noted that the meatal opening is on the dorsal surface of the penile shaft just behind the coronal sulcus. The testicles are descended bilaterally. This physical examination finding is called which of the following?
A. Penile epispadias
B. Penile hypospadias
C. Glandular epispadias 
D. Glandular hypospadias
A

(c) A. This is a penile epispadias which can develop anywhere along the penile shaft to the pubic bone. It is caused by displacement of urethra/meatal opening on the dorsal surface of the penis. If the opening occurs in the glans penis then it would be a glandular epispadias. If this abnormality occurs on the ventral surface of the penis or glans penis then it is known as a hypospadias.

43
Q
A 22 year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of scrotal pain that radiates into the groin. Patient admits to being a weightlifter and was lifting 24 hours prior to this pain developing into the scrotum. The patient admits to being sexually active with only his male partner. Examination reveals a reddened scrotum and it is difficult to distinguish the epididymis from the testes on the right side. Elevation of the right testicle brings relief of the pain. This is known as a positive
A. Prehn's sign.
B. Cullen's sign.
C. Rovsing's sign.
D. Murphy's sign.
A

(c) A. Prehn’s sign is seen in epididymitis when elevation of the scrotum with the affected epididymis to the level of the symphysis pubis brings relief from the pain.

44
Q

A 23 year-old male being treated for an acute bacterial prostatitis has been taking antibiotics for less than 24 hours. He presents to the emergency room today with acute urinary retention for 12 hours. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Insert a Foley catheter.
B. Initiate diuretic therapy.
C. Schedule for cystoscopy.
D. Insert a percutaneous suprapubic tube.

A

(c) D. Inserting a percutaneous suprapubic tube is the treatment of choice in a patient with acute bacterial prostatitis who develops acute urinary retention.

45
Q
A 23 year-old male presents with symptoms of irritative urethral discharge. History reveals recent unprotected intercourse with a new partner. A Gram stain of the urethral discharge is negative for intracellular diplococci. Assuming no allergies, which of the following is the drug of choice?
A. Doxycycline
B. Penicillin G
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Amoxicillin
A

(c) A. Doxycycline 100 mg orally for 7 days is indicated for the treatment of non-gonococcal urethritis.

46
Q
A 29 year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle crash. On the secondary survey it is noted that there is blood at the meatus and the patient is suspected of having a pelvic fracture. The patient is otherwise stable. Which of the following tests should be done to evaluate the urinary system?
A. Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)
B. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
C. Urethrogram
D. Renalarteriography
A

(c) C. A urethrogram is the only procedure that should be done to evaluate this type of injury as urethral integrity may have been compromised secondary to the pelvic fracture. Blood at the meatus is the most important finding of suspected urethral injury.

47
Q
A 26 year-old sexually active woman has a 3-day history of dysuria, frequency, and urgency. She has a fever of 102 degrees F orally with shaking chills and right-sided costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis reveals 10-20 RBCs/HPF, 30 WBCs in clumps/HPF, 3-4 WBC casts and 3+ bacteria. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for outpatient management?
A. Ciprofloxacin 
B. Erythromycin 
C. Doxycycline 
D. Amoxicillin
A

(c) A. Treatment with a quinolone is first line treatment of pyelonephritis on an outpatient basis. If the patient were admitted then empiric treatment with Ampicillin and an aminoglycoside IV would be initiated until culture and sensitivity results were obtained.

48
Q
A 48 year-old male with a recent episode of nephrolithiasis comes to the office to discuss prevention of further urinary stone disease. Which of the following dietary recommendations can reduce recurrence of nephrolithiasis?
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Decrease dietary fiber
C. Increase salt intake
D. Decrease calcium intake
A

(c) A. To prevent stone recurrence, the recommendations are to double previous fluid intake.

49
Q
A 19 year-old man comes to the office because he has had a fever, frequent urination, urgency, dysuria and scrotal pain for the past 2 days. On physical examination, he has a temperature of 101 degrees F, scrotal swelling, and purulent urethral discharge is visible on penile examination. Gram stain of the discharge shows gram negative intracellular diplococci. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?
A. Ampicillin (Principen)
B. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
D. Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)
A

(c) C. Ceftriaxone is an effective treatment for acute epididymitis caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

50
Q
A 34 year-old man comes to the urgent care with fever of 102 degrees F, chills, and perineal pain for the past 2 days. In addition, he has difficulty voiding, dysuria, frequency, urgency, and nocturia. Which of the following physical examination findings are consistent with this history?
A. Mild suprapubic tenderness
B. Scrotal swelling and tenderness
C. Prostate tender, warm, swollen
D. Costovertebral angle tenderness
A

(c) C. The diagnosis of acute prostatitis is supported by fever, irritative voiding symptoms, perineal pain and exquisite tenderness of the prostate on rectal exam.

51
Q
A 63 year-old man comes to the office to discuss treatment for erectile dysfunction. He is interested in learning more about the medication sildenafil (Viagra). He has a history of coronary artery disease, asthma and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following medications is contraindicated (category X) with Viagra due to the potential drug interaction?
A. Enalapril (Vasotec) 
B. Albuterol
C. Finasteride (Proscar) 
D. Nitroglycerin
A

(c) D. The additive effect of sildenafil on nitrates can amplify cardiac preload reduction and hypotension. Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates.

52
Q
A 15 year-old man comes to the office with acute onset of nausea, severe pain and swelling within the right testis. He has no fever or irritative voiding symptoms. Which of the following scrotal physical examination findings would you expect in this patient?
A. Nodular mass within the testis
B. High-lying testis
C. Transilluminated fluid mass
D. Palpation of a soft bag of worms
A

(c) B. Testicular torsion occurs in the 10-20 year age group, and is characterized by acute onset of severe pain and swelling of the testis. Physical examination will reveal a tender high-riding testis.

53
Q
A 54 year-old man comes to the urgent care because he was awoken suddenly from his sleep this morning with severe left flank pain radiating to his left testicle with associated nausea and vomiting. He is afebrile and vital signs are normal. He is constantly moving to find a comfortable position. On physical examination, left flank tenderness is noted with no direct testicular tenderness. Urinalysis reveals a pH of 5.5 and microscopic hematuria, but is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? 
A. Acute epididymitis
B. Appendicitis
C. Diverticulitis
D. Nephrolithiasis
A

(c) D. Nephrolithiasis usually presents as a sudden onset of colicky flank pain with associated nausea and vomiting. Urinalysis often reveals gross or microscopic hematuria.

54
Q
A 28 year-old female comes to the office with fever, flank pain, and dysuria for the past two days. Which of the following urinalysis results are suggestive of acute pyelonephritis?
A. Hyaline casts
B. Red cell casts
C. White cell casts
D. Granular casts
A

(c) C. White cell casts are indicative of renal infection or inflammation as seen in pyelonephritis or interstitial nephritis.

55
Q
A 28 year-old man comes to the office for his yearly follow up of testicular cancer. He was successfully treated with an orchiectomy two years ago. Which of the following tumor markers can be used to identify early relapse in testicular cancer?
A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
B. Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
C. CA 125 glycoprotein
D. Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
A

(c) D. Periodic surveillance of alpha fetoprotein is a sensitive method for detecting early relapse of testicular cancer.

56
Q

A 68 year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of urinary incontinence. For the past few months, she has had an intense urgency to urinate, followed by leakage of urine. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?
A. Intravaginal estrogen cream (Premarin cream)
B. Terazosin (Hytrin)
C. Oxybutynin (Ditropan)
D. Intravaginal miconazole cream (Monistat cream)

A

(c) C. Urge incontinence is caused by detrusor overactivity that causes urinary leakage. Antimuscarinics, such as oxybutynin, are prescribed to relax the pelvic muscles.

57
Q
A 26 year-old woman comes to the office for her first prenatal visit at 9 weeks gestation. During evaluation, her urinalysis reveals asymptomatic bacteriuria. Which of the following antibiotics is the preferred treatment in this patient?
A. Doxycycline (Vibromycin)
B. Trimethoprim (Monotrim)
C. Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)
D. Erythromycin (Ery-tab)
A

(c) C. Nitrofurantoin is an effective treatment of asymptomatic bacturia in the pregnant woman.

58
Q
A 22 year-old male presents for a physical. On examination you palpate a painless mass that cannot be separated from the right testicle. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Spermatocele
B. Varicocele
C. Testicular cancer
D. Epididymitis
A

(c) C. Testicular cancer is the most common neoplasm in men 20-35 years of age. It commonly presents as a painless mass which cannot be separated away from the testicle. Any nodule within the testes warrants evaluation for malignancy.

59
Q
A 58 year-old male with hypertension, hyperlipidemia, occasional gastritis, and mild osteoarthritis needs to be started on tamsulosin (Flomax) for symptomatic prostatic hypertrophy. Which of the following medications may result in an adverse reaction in this patient?
A. Amlodipine (Norvasc)
B. Simvastatin (Zocor)
C. Famotadine (Pepcid)
D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
A

(c) A. Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin, are treatment for prostatic hyperplasia, but also used for hypertension. You would in essence be increasing his antihypertensive therapy, and since he is currently well controlled, he may develop orthostatic hypotension as the result of your actions.

60
Q
A 28 year-old female is seen for her fourth documented case of uncomplicated cystitis this year. You recommend prophylaxis with nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) 100 mg at bedtime, however, she would prefer not to take a daily medication. What alternative single-dose schedule can you recommend?
A. Day 1 of menstrual cycle
B. Following intercourse
C. Aftereachbowelmovement 
D. WeeklyeverySunday
A

(c) B. Women who have more than three episodes of cystitis per year are considered candidates for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent recurrence after treatment for UTI. Single dosing at bedtime or at the time of intercourse is the recommended schedule.

61
Q
Which of the following types of kidney stones occur secondary to infections due to urease-producing bacteria? 
A. Struvite
B. Uric acid
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Cystine
A

(c) A. Struvite stones are synonymous with magnesium-ammonium-phosphate stones and are commonly seen in women with recurrent urinary tract infections recalcitrant to appropriate antibiotics. These stones form secondary to urease-producing organisms including Proteus, Pseudomonas, and Providencia, although not E coli.

62
Q
A 25 year-old female presents with acute right knee pain with associated dysuria, urgency, and body aches. She admits to an episode of unprotected sex 2 weeks ago. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be found on joint aspiration?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Neisseria gonorrhea
D. Human immunodeficiency virus
A

(c) C. Gonococcal arthritis usually occurs in otherwise healthy individuals - women more commonly than men, although men who have sex with men are at higher risk. Dysuria and frequency are common with gonococcal infection and low grade fevers and migratory joint pain can follow. Skin lesions may be noted over the knee on physical exam. Analysis of joint fluid is needed to diagnose the disease, which is caused by gram-negative diplococci - Neisseria gonorrhea.

63
Q
A 65 year-old male smoker presents with a new onset of hematuria. Which of the following studies would be the most definitive diagnostic study in this patient?
A. Ultrasound
B. Cystoscopy
C. KUB radiograph
D. CT of the pelvis
A

(c) B. Hematuria is the presenting symptom in 85-90% of patients with bladder cancer. Bladder cancer is the second most common urologic cancer and occurs more commonly in men than women. Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in over 60% of patients. The diagnosis and staging of bladder cancer are made by cystoscopy followed by transurethral resection of the bladder tumor.

64
Q
Your practice routinely screens its male patients for prostate cancer according to US Preventive Services Task Force guidelines. A 71 year-old Caucasian male presents with a 50 pack-year history of tobacco use, previous treatment for prostatitis, and a paternal uncle with prostate cancer at age 65. He currently is sexually active with multiple female partners, eats a high fat diet, and is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following factors increases his risk of developing prostate cancer?
A. Tobacco use
B. Prior prostatitis
C. Current BPH
D. High-fat diet
A

(c) D. A high-fat diet has been implicated in the development of prostate cancer in some studies. This patient already carries the risk factors of age and family history.

65
Q
A 6 year-old boy is evaluated for nocturnal enuresis. You offer behavioral education and write a prescription for the treatment of choice. Because of that drug's potential side effect, you remind the parents that the boy should eat plenty of foods containing which of the following?
A. Salt
B. Potassium
C. Sugar
D. Magnesium
A

(c) A. Desmopressin nasalspray has become the pharmacologic treatment of choice for nocturnal enuresis. Evenin nasal spray formulation the drug has the potential to cause hyponatremia.

66
Q
Which of the following is often described as feeling like a "bag of worms" on testicular exam? 
A. Varicocele
B. Testicular torsion
C. Epididymal cyst
D. Hydrocele
A

(c) A. A collection of varicosed veins of the spermatic cord is known as a varicocele. The varicosities feel like a bag of worms when palpated on physical examination.

67
Q
When performing a rectal examination, prostatic massage is contraindicated in
Answers
A. prostatodynia.
B. non-bacterial prostatitis.
C. chronic bacterial prostatitis. 
D. acute bacterial prostatitis.
A

(c) D. Vigorous manipulation of the prostate during rectal examination may result in septicemia. This is contraindicated in the presence of fever, irritative voiding symptoms, and perineal/sacral pain.

68
Q
A 38 year-old female presents with right flank pain for several days, shaking chills, fever to 102°F, and general malaise. The flank pain has been intermittently severe, and she has a history of kidney stones. Urinalysis reveals 3+ red blood cells, 3+ leukocyte esterase, trace protein and negative glucose. Which of the following findings would most likely be seen on a renal ultrasound?
Answers
A. Small echogenic kidneys 
B. Cysts
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Capsular hemorrhage
A

(c) C. Hydronephrosis, dilation of the collecting ducts, may be present due to a stone or other source of obstruction.

69
Q
A 65 year-old male with a 60 pack-year smoking history presents with painless hematuria for two days. He also complains of frequency and dysuria. He denies a history of recent upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answers
A. Bladder cancer
B. Wegener's granulomatosis 
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
A

(c) A. Bladder cancer is associated with smoking and presents with painless hematuria.

70
Q

Patients with recurrent urinary stone disease should be educated to maintain a diet restricted in
Answers
A. sodium and protein. B. carbohydrates and fat.
C. bran.
D. fluids.

A

(c) A. Increased sodium intake will increase sodium and calcium excretion and increase monosodium urate saturation. Protein also increases calcium, oxalate and uric acid excretion. All these factors can lead to stone formation.

71
Q

A 32 year-old female patient presents with renal colic and hematuria. The patient has a long-standing history of unresponsive treatment for urinary tract infections with documented Proteus species. Urinalysis reveals crystals resembling coffin lids. KUB reveals a staghorn calculus in the right kidney. Which of the following is the best clinical intervention?
Answers
A. High fluid intake with a low salt diet
B. A low purine diet
C. Laser lithotripsy
D. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy

A

(c) D. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy is currently the primary surgical intervention of choice for struvite stones.

72
Q
Counseling a patient with erectile dysfunction who is taking sildenafil (Viagra) should include warning of
Answers
A. developing hypotension. 
B. urinary retention.
C. development of constipation.
D. an increased risk of prostate cancer.
A

(c) A. Sildenafil is a vasodilator, which can result in a decrease in preload leading to hypotension.

73
Q
A 34 year-old male presents with symptoms of painful urethral discharge. History reveals recent (7 days ago) intercourse with a new partner. A Gram stain is negative for intracellular diplococci. Assuming no allergies, which of the following is the antibiotic of choice?
Answers
A. Doxycycline
B. Penicillin G
C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 
D. Cephalexin (Keflex)
A

(c) A. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, are drugs of first choice for Chlamydia.

74
Q
A male patient presents with hematuria. Upon further questioning the patient states that the hematuria occurs at the end of his urinary stream. Which of the following is the most likely source of blood?
Answers
A. Renal pelvis
B. Bladder neck 
C. Anterior urethra 
D. Ureter
A

(c) B. Terminal hematuria, blood at the end of the urinary stream, suggests a bladder neck or prostatic urethral source.