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Immunology BLD 434 > Exam 3 - Practice Problems > Flashcards

Flashcards in Exam 3 - Practice Problems Deck (81):
1

Which of the following is used to monitor patient progression from “HIV positive” diagnosis to “AIDS” diagnosis?

a. Quantitative HIV viral RNA assay
b. CD4 T lymphocyte concentration in whole blood
c. Drop in HIV-specific Tc concentration in whole blood

b. CD4 T lymphocyte concentration in whole blood

2

What does HIV reverse transcriptase do?

a. It creates a cDNA copy of the RNA genome
b. It creates a mRNA copy of the DNA genome
c. It inserts the viral cDNA into the host chromosome

a. It creates a cDNA copy of the RNA genome

3

Which Th2 cytokine is responsible for recruiting, activating, and causing eosinophil proliferation?
a. IL-4
b. IL-5
c. IL-13

b. IL-5

4

Heterophile antibodies are the basis of screening tests for:
a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. German measles
c. Chicken pox

a. Infectious mononucleosis

5

B cells would be expected to be severely decreased in number in the peripheral blood of patients diagnosed with:

a. Type II Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome
b. Hyper IgM Syndrome
c. X-linked Agammaglobulinemia

c. X-linked Agammaglobulinemia

6

What two antibody isotopes do babies normally receive from their mother?
a. IgA and IgM
b. IgA and IgG
c. IgM and IgG

b. IgA and IgG

7

An activated lymphocyte has CCR4 and α4β1 receptors on its cell surface. Where will that lymphocyte likely be located in the body?
a. Skin
b. Gut epithelial layer
c. Gut lamina propria

a. Skin

8

What is the best surface marker to use to identify human NK cells?
a. CD3
b. CD8
c. CD28
d. CD56

d. CD56

9

Which antibody isotype(s) can initiate complement fixation?
a. IgA only
b. IgM only
c. IgM and IgG
d. IgA and IgM

c. IgM and IgG

10

Which of the following was a limitation of the first generation screening test for HIV that is not a limitation of the current fourth generation screening tests for HIV?

a. The test could not be used to test newborns/infants for HIV infection
b. The test required a confirmatory test even if it was repeatedly positive
c. The test had significant false positive results due to human cell contaminants

c. The test had significant false positive results due to human cell contaminants

11

The only receptor that trigger granule exocytosis:
a. FcαRI
b. Fc𝛄RI
c. Fc𝜺RI

c. Fc𝜺RI

12

A positive test for which of the following would indicate disease convalescence in a patient previous diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis?
a. Anti-EBNA
b. IgM anti-VCA
c. IgG anti-VCA

a. Anti-EBNA

13

During the Acute HIV Syndrome, an individual infected with HIV is:
a. not infectious to others
b. rarely infectious to others
c. highly infectious to others

c. highly infectious to others

14

Which of the following is passaged by fecal-oral route?
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV

a. HAV

15

IEL are:
a. located in germinal centers
b. CD4+ T helper cells
c. a mix of αβ and 𝛄δ T cells

c. a mix of αβ and 𝛄δ T cells

IELs are mostly CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

16

A high blood level of HBsAg in combination with a positive IgM anti-HBc, a negative IgG anti-abc, and a negative anti-HBs indicates _____ Hepatitis B infection
a. Acute
b. Chronic

a. Acute

17

NKT cells are activated by antigen presented in:
a. Classical MHC class I proteins
b. CD1a, CD1b, or CD1c proteins
c. CD1d proteins

c. CD1d proteins

18

In SCID patients:

a. B and T lymphocytes are essentially absent
b. there is selective susceptibility to extracellular bacterial infection
c. there is an absence of MHC class I expression

a. B and T lymphocytes are essentially absent

19

A patient with the autoimmune disease Systemic Lupus Erythematous can sometimes test positive in certain assays for Symphilis, even though they truly do not have Syphilis. This type of testing error would be a:
a. false negative test restful
b. false positive test result
c. an indeterminate test result

b. false positive test result

20

Which of the following paired serum sites on samples drawn 5 days apart would indicate acute Rubella infection in a pregnant mother with a rash disease?
a. Sample 1 = 1:4; sample 2 = 1:8
b. Sample 1 = 1:4; sample 2 = 1:32
c. Sample 1 = 1:32; sample 2 = 1:64

b. Sample 1 = 1:4; sample 2 = 1:32

21

Which of the following tests for Herpes Simplex Virus can distinguish between HSV-1 and HSV-2?
a. Latex agglutination test
b. PCR for viral DNA
c. Shell viral culture with immunofluorescent staining

b. PCR for viral DNA

22

What do V𝛄:Vδ1 T cells do?
a. Kill cells lacking HLA-E expression
b. Kill damaged or infected gut epithelial cells expressing MIC-A or MIC-B
c. Kill cells expressing novel pathogen phospho-antigens

b. Kill damaged or infected gut epithelial cells expressing MIC-A or MIC-B

23

Serum IgA levels are severely reduced or absent in both Hyper IgM Syndrome and X-linked Agammaglobulinemia
a. True
b. False

a. True

24

The total number of people infected with HIV worldwide:
a. has leveled off
b. has declined in recent years
c. is still increasing

c. is still increasing

25

Which of the following means the same as “parenteral” in regards to route of infection?
a. Fecal-oral route
b. Blood/body fluids route

b. Blood/body fluids route

26

IL-10 causes an activated B lymphocyte to isotype switch to:
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgE

a. IgA

27

What percent of persons infected with HCV progress to chronic infection?
a. 5-10%
b. 30-60%
c. 85%

c. 85%

28

The Complement Activation Enzyme Immunoassay tests the function of the ____ pathway
a. alternative
b. lectin
c. classical

c. classical

29

Which of the following viruses causes Shingles?
a. Varicella-Zoster virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Rubella virus

a. Varicella-Zoster virus

30

What is the function of gp120 for HIV?
a. It is the reverse transcriptase
b. It is a protease enzyme that cleaves full-length precursor proteins
c. It is a surface protein used for docking to the host cell

c. It is a surface protein used for docking to the host cell

31

CD1a, CD1b, and CD1c present ____ antigens to αβ T cells
a. peptide
b. lipid
c. carbohydrate

b. lipid

32

An HIV positive patient is started on drug therapy for HIV. A month later, the patient’s HIV viral load is lower compared to prior to drug therapy. This result indicates that:
a. The patient’s HIV is resistant to the drug therapy and a different therapy should be initiated
b. The patient’s HIV is sensitive to the drug therapy and the patient should be continued on it
c. The patient’s immune system is failing and they have progressed to AIDS diagnosis

b. The patient’s HIV is sensitive to the drug therapy and the patient should be continued on it

33

The chronic/recurrent infections seen in patients with LAD (Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency_ do not respond well to antibiotic treatment.
a. True
b. False

a. True

34

What protein carried IgG across blood vessel endothelial cells?
a. PolyIg receptor
b. FcRn
c. Fc𝛄RI

b. FcRn

35

What does the acronym “RIBA” stand for?

Recombinant Immunoblot Assay

36

Describe the normal interaction between NK cells and self-MHC class I

NK cells are inhibited by binding self-MHC class I

37

What is the function of “M cells” in Peyer’s Patches?

Transfer/sample gut antigens and transfer them from the gut lumen to underlying immune cells

38

Describe how red blood cells play a role in removing immune complexes from plasma.

CR1 on rbc bind to C3d-coated immune complexes, “sponging” them up, and deliver them to macrophages in spleen and liver.

39

What are the two main analytes the can be measured in serological tests for infectious disease?

Antigen or antibody

40

List two reasons why it is difficult to create a vaccine against HIV.

1. Reverse transcriptase causes very rapid mutation
2. Must create both mucosal IgA and Tc protective immunity
3. HIV can remain latent as a provirus in resting CD4+ T cells

41

Which two hepatitis infections are passaged by fecal/oral route?
a. HAV and HBV
b. HAV and HEV
c. HBV and HCV
d. HBV and HDV

b. HAV and HEV

42

False positive test results lower assay _____
a. sensitivity
b. specificity

b. specificity

43

MIC-A and MIC-B are activated ligands for:
a. CD94:NKG2A receptors
b. NKG2D
c. V𝛄9:Vδ2 T cells

b. NKG2D

44

Chicken pox is caused by:
a. cytomegalovirus
b. herpes simplex virus-2
c. varicella-zoster virus

c. varicella-zoster virus

45

Which HIV enzyme is responsible for HIV’s rapid mutation rate?
a. protease
b. integrase
c. reverse transcriptase

c. reverse transcriptase

46

Tc can kill cells by:
a. releasing cytolytic granules to induce apoptosis
b. using FasL to bind Fas on target cell to induce apoptosis
c. both a and b are correct

c. both a and b are correct

47

Complement factor deficiencies are associated with which infectious disease susceptibility?
a. Extracellular pyogenic bacteria
b. All viruses
c. Herpesviridae family viruses only
d. All infectious agents (bacteria, viruses, fungi, etc.)

a. Extracellular pyogenic bacteria

48

B lymphocytes are not present in circulation in X-linked agammaglobulinemia
a. True
b. False

a. True

49

In general, NK cells are activated by:
a. lipid antigens presented in CD1 proteins
b. peptide antigen presented in MHC class I proteins
c. loss of MHC class I proteins

c. loss of MHC class I proteins

50

This hepatitis B virus protein cannot ever be measured in patient blood
a. HBcAg
b. HBeAg
c. HBsAg

a. HBcAg

51

What cell type is activated by lipid antigen presented in CD1a, CD1b, and CD1c?
a. V𝛄Vδ1 T cells
b. NKT cells
c. CD4+ or CD8+ T cells expressing αβ TCR

c. CD4+ or CD8+ T cells expressing αβ TCR

52

Which laboratory test for infectious mononucleosis indicates convalescence once it turns positive in a patient?
a. anti-EBNA
b. IgM anti-VCA
c. IgG anti-VCA

a. anti-EBNA

53

What laboratory test is used as one criterion for monitoring patient HIV+ to AIDS profession?
a. HIV viral load
b. Anti-HIV antibody titer
c. CD4+ T lymphocyte count in whole blood

c. CD4+ T lymphocyte count in whole blood

54

Which infectious disease causes grave concern in the case of in utero as grave for immunocompromised individuals?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Rubella
c. Epstein-Barr virus

b. Rubella

55

In X-linked Hyper-IgM Syndrome, IgA isotype of antibody is ___ in patient serum
a. reduced
b. at normal levels
c. elevated

a. reduced

56

Which hepatitis infection leads to chronic disease in 85% of infected individuals?
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HDV
e. HEV

c. HCV

57

DiGeorge Syndrome impacts:
a. cell-mediated immunity
b. humoral immunity
c. both cell-mediated and humoral immunity

c. both cell-mediated and humoral immunity

58

Which HIV enzyme splices viral cDNA into host cell chromosomal DNA?
a. Integrase
b. Protease
c. Reverse transcriptase

a. Integrase

59

The liquid portion of blood obtained after blood clots (or coagulates) is called:
a. serum
b. plasma
c. whole blood

a. serum

60

Epstein-Barr virus infects:
a. myeloid cells
b. B lymphocytes
c. dorsal root ganglion nerve cells

b. B lymphocytes

61

Genital herpes is usually associated with infection with:
a. HSV-1
b. HSV-2

b. HSV-2

62

The complement activation enzyme immunoassay tests the function of the ____ pathway
a. alternative
b. classical
c. lectin

b. classical

63

Why do CD4+ T cell numbers in circulation rebound at the end of the acute infection stage?
a. The HIV-specific CD4+ T cells are proliferating
b. New naive CD4+ T cells are released from the thymus
c. HIV-infected CD4+ T cells proliferate

b. New naive CD4+ T cells are released from the thymus

64

During the wind period of an infectious disease, a serological assay is more likely to yield a false ____ result.
a. negative
b. positive

a. negative

65

Type I Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome causes infectious disease susceptibility to:
a. extracellular bacteria only
b. all viruses
c. herpesviridae family viruses only
d. all infectious agents (bacteria, viruses, fungi, etc.)

b. all viruses

66

Infection with this hepatitis virus is usually confirmed by RIBA testing
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HDV
e. HEV

c. HCV

67

The HIV Western Blot detects
a. patient antibody to individual HIV proteins separated by size
b. free p120 particles in patient whole blood
c. HIV antigens present in patient serum or plasma

a. patient antibody to individual HIV proteins separated by size

No longer current technology

68

A health care worker with unknown vaccination history has a needle-stick injury from a dialysis patient known to be infected with Hepatitis B. The health care worker is immediately tested for Hepatitis B and yield the following baseline results:

HBsAg = negative; IgM anti-HBc = negative; IgG anti-HBc = positive; IgG anti-HBS = positive

The appropriate interpretation of these baseline results is:

a. The health care worker was infected with Hepatitis B from this needle-stick injury
b. The health care worker was vaccinated for Hepatitis B and should be immune
c. The health care worker was previously infected with Hepatitis B and is immune

c. The health care worker was previously infected with Hepatitis B and is immune

69

Shell vial culture and testing for HSV can distinguish between HSV-1 and HSV-2
a. True
b. False

b. False

70

For infectious disease testing in which a screening test and confirmatory test are employed in diagnosis, which of the assays is most specific?
a. Screening test
b. Confirmatory test

b. Confirmatory test

71

In flow cytometry, what signal is detected?
a. Production of a colored product
b. Fluorescence emission
c. Light detracted by immune complexes in solution

b. Fluorescence emission

72

Which hepatitis virus infection can cause isolated outbreaks in the US when spread by food service workers who do not follow proper food-handling protocols?
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HDV
e. HEV

a. HAV

73

The change from macrophage-tropic to lymphocyte-tropic HIV strains occurs because of a change in _____ receptor specificity
a. cytokine
b. complement
c. chemokine

c. chemokine

74

Human NK cells can be identified by surface expression of:
a. CD3
b. CD19
c. CD56

c. CD56

75

Parenteral is the same as:
a. blood/body fluid transmission
b. fecal/oral transmission
c. aerosol transmission

a. blood/body fluid transmission

76

What does the abbreviation “HIV” stand for?

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

77

What is gp120, and what is its function?

An HIV glycoprotein of 120 Kd that forms the outer envelope knob which binds CD4

78

What does the abbreviation “SCID” stand for?

Severe Combined Immune Deficiency

Includes B and T cells

79

List two drawbacks of the first generation HIV EIA tests that have been solved by the fourth generation of HIV EIAs.

1. Could only detect HIV-1 and not HIV-2
2. Long “window period”: about 4 to 6 weeks
3. False positive test results from antihuman antibody (HIV grown in human cells)
4. Low sensitivity because of low HIV protein on test well

80

The two main analytes that can be measured/detected by serological tests are:

Ag (antigen) and Ab (antibody)

81

You are working at the CDC laboratory for emerging viral infectious diseases. A new hemorrhagic fever virus never previously identified in humans breaks out in a crowded refugee camp. You are asked to develop a test for acute infection, because the primary infection progress rapidly and is fatal within 5 days without rapid antiviral treatment Since you know immunology well, you choose to develop an assay that detects:

Hemorrhagic fever virus antigen