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PHRM 825 Therapeutics > Exam 3 - Random info > Flashcards

Exam 3 - Random info Flashcards

1
Q

inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) adverse effects (3)

A

oral thrush, cough, dysphonia

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2
Q

ICS’s may increase the risk of _________ in patients with COPD

A

pneumonia

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3
Q

LABA adverse effects (4)

A

tachycardia, headache, tremor, hypokalemia

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4
Q

boxed warnings for LABAs (2 of them)

A

-LABAs should not be used for monotherapy, increased risk of asthma related death
-increasing hospitalizations in pediatric and adolescent patients

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5
Q

adverse effects for LAMAs (5)

A

-dry mouth
-dizziness
-blurred vision
-upper respiratory infections
-paradoxical bronchospasms (unanticipated smooth muscle contraction)

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6
Q

adverse effects of cromolyn (6)

A

-high incidence of unpleasant taste in mouth (>10%)
-rare cardiac arrythmias
-coughing
-dyspnea (shortness of breath)
-sore throat
-N/V/D (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea) if absorbed systemically

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7
Q

cromolyn prevents _________ in bronchial hyperactivity seen in allergy season

a. increase
b. decrease

A

a. increase

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8
Q

adverse effects of leukotriene modifiers (3)

A

-neuropsychiatric events (agitation, anxiety, abnormal dreams, hallucinations, depression, suicidal thinking)
-Churg-Strauss syndrome (rare)
-increased hepatic transaminases (zafirlukast and zileuton)

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9
Q

montelukast is a minor substrate of which CYPs? (2)

A

CYP2C8/9 and CYP3A4

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10
Q

boxed warning for montelukast

A

neuropsychiatric events

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11
Q

zafirlukast is a major substrate, minor inhibitor of which CYP?

A

CYP2C9

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12
Q

how long before or after meals should you take zafirlukast?

A

1 hour before or 2 hours after meals

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13
Q

zileuton is a weak __________ inhibitor

a. CYP3A4
b. CYP2C9
c. CYP2C8
d. CYP1A2

A

d. CYP1A2

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14
Q

true or false: zileuton can be taken with or without food

A

false

(take with food)

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15
Q

adverse effects of methylxanthines (5)

A

-insomnia
-GI upset
-hyperactivity
-hypotension
-tremor

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16
Q

contraindications for methylxanthines (3)

A

peptic ulcer disease
arrhythmias
seizure disorders

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17
Q

theophylline is a major substrate of what 3 CYPs?

A

CYP3A4
CYP1A2
CYP2E1

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18
Q

theophylline drug interactions: what drugs increase concentration? (5 of them, from chart)

A

cimetidine
erythromycin
clarithromycin
ciprofloxacin
ticlopidine

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19
Q

theophylline drug interactions: what drugs decrease concentration? (4)

A

phenobarbital
phenytoin
carbamazepine
rifampin

(smoking as well)

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20
Q

boxed warning for xolair

A

anaphylaxis

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21
Q

adverse effects of xolair (7)

A

-headache
-injection site rxns
-arthralgias
-thrombocytopenia
-pharyngitis
-sinusitis
-upper respiratory tract infections

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22
Q

adverse effects of mepolizumab (4)

A

-headache
-injection site reactions
-arthalgias (joint stiffness)
-Herpes Zoster infection

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23
Q

adverse effects of reslizumab (3)

A

-injection site rxns
-myalgias
-increased creatinine phosphokinase

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24
Q

boxed warnings for reslizumab (2)

A

anaphylaxis
malignancies

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25
Q

how is the mechanism of action of benralizumab different than the other anti-IL5 drugs?

A

acts on IL-5 receptors while others act on IL-5 receptors

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26
Q

dupixent adverse effects (4)

A

-injection site rxns
-antibody development
-arthralgias
-conjuctivitis

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27
Q

roflumilast adverse effects (4)

A

-heart attack
-weight loss
-diarrhea
-nausea

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28
Q

what monitoring must be done for patients on roflumilast? (2)

A

liver function test
weight monitoring

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29
Q

roflumilast has major drug interactions with which CYP?

a. CYP1A2
b. CYP3A4
c. CYP2E1
d. CYP2C9

A

b. CYP3A4

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30
Q

roflumilast has minor drug interactions with which CYP?

a. CYP1A2
b. CYP3A4
c. CYP2E1
d. CYP2C9

A

a. CYP1A2

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31
Q

is roflumilast for asthma or COPD?

a. asthma only
b. COPD only
c. both

A

b. COPD only

32
Q

contraindications for roflumilast

A

Child-Pugh class B or C

33
Q

adverse effects of SABAs (4)

A

tachycardia
tremor
hypokalemia
irritability

34
Q

adverse effects of SAMAs (5)

A

dry mouth
urinary retention
infection
sinusitis
bronchitis

35
Q

adverse effects of systemic corticosteroids - short term use (5 of them)

A

-hyperglycemia
-increased appetite
-fluid retention
-demargination of WBCs
-psychiatric disturbances

36
Q

contraindications of systemic corticosteroids (2)

A

systemic fungal infections
live vaccines if immunocompromised

37
Q

drug interactions of systemic corticosteroids (2)

A

-warfarin INR inc
-dec efficacy of inactivated vaccines

38
Q

adverse effects of magnesium sulfate IV (3)

A

flushing
hypotension
vasodilation

39
Q

contraindications of magnesium sulfate IV (2)

A

heart block
caution in renal dysfunction

40
Q

hydrocortisone equivalent dose

A

20 mg

41
Q

cortisone equivalent dose

A

25 mg

42
Q

prednisone equivalent dose

A

5 mg

43
Q

prednisolone equivalent dose

A

5 mg

44
Q

methylprednisolone equivalent dose

A

4 mg

45
Q

triamcinolone equivalent dose

A

4 mg

46
Q

betamethasone equivalent dose

A

0.75 mg

47
Q

dexamethasone equivalent dose

A

0.75 mg

48
Q

fludrocortisone equivalent dose

A

2 mg

49
Q

which drug on the steroid potency table has the largest mineralocorticoid activity?

A

fludrocortisone

50
Q

Which of these drugs is not for relief of acute bronchial spasm, and is also not usually for patients under 12 years of age, but a lower formulation for 5-12 years is available? (slide 21, asthma med chem)

a. symbicort
b. dulera
c. QVAR
d. mometasone
e. pulmicort

A

b. dulera

51
Q

two mechanisms for anti-inflammatory actions of theophylline

A

-HDAC activation (histone deacetylase)
-enhanced apoptosis of inflammatory cells

52
Q

mechanism of mast cell degranulation requires what 4 things?

A
  1. binding of IgE antibodies to Fc epsilon receptor
  2. binding of antigen to IgE antibodies
  3. clustering of Fc epsilon receptors
  4. influx of Ca2+ via Ca2+ release activated channels (CRAC)
53
Q

type 2 low inflammation: neutrophilic or eosinophilic?

A

neutrophilic

54
Q

type 2 high inflammation: neutrophilic or eosinophilic?

A

eosinophilic

55
Q

type 2 low inflammation: which ILs? (3)

A

IL-6, IL-8 and IL-17

56
Q

type 2 high inflammation: which ILs? (3)

A

IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13

57
Q

which drug blocks TSLP (thymic stromal lymphopoietin?

A

tezepelumab

58
Q

______ was the first drug approved to treat excessive sweating (2018)

A

Seebri

59
Q

remodeling in COPD (4)

A

-fibrosis of small airways
-hyperinflation of lungs: alveolar enlargement and alveolar wall destruction
-mucus hypersecretion

60
Q

what is the function of elastase?

A

elastase breaks down elastin, which is a needed structural component of lung tissue. Alpha1- antitrypsin normally protects the lung from elastase

61
Q

what drug is a CFTR regulator for cystic fibrosis patients 4 months or older with Gating mutations in CFTR?

A

Ivacaftor (Kalydeco)

62
Q

small molecule chaperones of delta F508 CFTR (3)

A

lumaftor
tezacaftor
elexacaftor

63
Q

how does pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (PERT) treat CF?

A

PERT helps the body digest and absorb nutrients from foods and fluids by breaking down carbs, fats and proteins. Without PERT, children are at high risk of poor nutrient absorption

64
Q

how does Pulmozyme work?

A

cuts up DNA strands outside the cell that can make CF mucus thick and sticky (acts like scissors in the mucus)

65
Q

antibiotics that treat cystic fibrosis (2)

A

tobramycin (Tobi)
azithromycin

66
Q

how does N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) work for CF?

A

it opens disulfide linkages in mucus thereby lowering the viscosity

67
Q

true or false: dehydration of ASL (airway surface lipid) causes thickening of mucus

A

true

68
Q

mechanism of histamine release: binding of antigen to antibody molecules causes an increase in cytoplasmic ___ concentration

a. Na+
b. Ca2+
c. K+

A

b. Ca2+

69
Q

H1 antagonists are predominantly _____ _____

A

inverse agonists

70
Q

what class of first gen antihistamines is brompheniramine in?

a. alkylamines
b. ethanolamines
c. ethylenediamines
d. phenothiazines
e. piperidines
f. piperazines

A

a. alkylamines

71
Q

cyproheptadine chemical class

a. alkylamines
b. ethanolamines
c. ethylenediamines
d. phenothiazines
e. piperidines
f. piperazines

A

e. piperidines

72
Q

diphenhydramine chemical class

a. alkylamines
b. ethanolamines
c. ethylenediamines
d. phenothiazines
e. piperidines
f. piperazines

A

b. ethanolamines

73
Q

promethazine chemical class

a. alkylamines
b. ethanolamines
c. ethylenediamines
d. phenothiazines
e. piperidines
f. piperazines

A

d. phenothiazines

74
Q

hydroxyzine chemical class

a. alkylamines
b. ethanolamines
c. ethylenediamines
d. phenothiazines
e. piperidines
f. piperazines

A

f. piperazines

75
Q

pyrilamine chemical class

a. alkylamines
b. ethanolamines
c. ethylenediamines
d. phenothiazines
e. piperidines
f. piperazines

A

c. ethylenediamines

76
Q

examples of 2nd gen H1 antagonists

A

claritin
allegra
zyrtec
xyzal
clarinex

77
Q

H1 antagonists topical (3 examples)

A

olopatadine (Patanol)
azelastine (Astelin)
ketotifen (Zaditor)

PHRM 825 Therapeutics (25 decks)

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