Exam 5 Flashcards

Question

Inhibit Bcl-2 and Bcl-xL and promote apoptosis

Answer 1

• Bid, Bad • Puma, Noxa BH3-only protein

Answer 2

Bind to caspases and directly inhibit their proteolytic activity

Answer 3

Released by mitochondria after MOMP, these proteins can inhibit IAPs

Answer 4

A nucleus that is released by mitochondrial MOMP that can translocate the nucleus and cleave DNA, resulting in cell death, independent of caspases

Answer 5

Activate C12 —> C9 —> Rest of Caspase cascade

Answer 6

• Damage detected by ATM/ATR kinases • activates Chk1/2 —> Stabilizes p53 • p53 Target Bax, which promotes MOMP, cytochrome C release, formation of apoptosomes leading to apoptosis

Answer 7

PKB/Akt regulated by PI3K

Answer 8

Provides bulk degradation and recycling of cytoplasmic components in lysosomes promoting cell health and survival When in excess, this compromises the cytoplasm and activates apoptosis • Beclin1, PI3K, Atg

Answer 9

Promotes autophagy both by inhibiting mTOR and activating ULK1

Answer 10

Receives input from mTOR (inhibits complex) Receives input from AMPK (activates complex)

Answer 11

• binds and inhibits Beclin1, thereby restraining autophagy— if Phosphorylated by jnk, Beclin1 is free and autophagy occurs • when bound to Beclin1, it is not bound to Bak/BAX, promoting apoptosis

Answer 12

C8 inhibited by FLIP/pathogens -> increases RIPK1/3 -> increases MLKL (penetrates membrane w 4 alpha-helices, cell swelling) -> increases necroptosis

Answer 13

Necroptosis releases PAMPs and DAMPs (Pathogen/damage associated molecular patterns), that active the inflammatory response

Answer 14

decrease GPX4, increase accumulation of ROS. Lipid peroxidation in the associated rupture of cellular membranes is a hallmark of ferroptosis • occurs with age in Lipofuscin granules, Fenton rxns

Answer 15

(1) DISCs (2) apoptosomes (cyt C, APAF1, C9) (3) PIDDosomes

Answer 16

Apoptosomes

Answer 17

Caspase 8 , viral proteins (pathogens)

Answer 18

Extrinsic pathway activation leading to the production of t-Bid from BID with the consequent activation of the intrinsic pathway

Answer 19

Also known as collider bias, Study population selected from a hospital that can lead to spurious negative associations Strategy to reduce bias: choice of comparison group

Answer 20

Study population is healthier than the general population Strategy to reduce bias: study design, choice of comparison group

Answer 21

People who choose to participate are different in meaningful ways from people who choose to not participate Strategy to reduce bias: study design

Answer 22

Awareness of disorder/disease causes people to recall potential exposures differently Strategy to reduce bias: study design

Answer 23

Differential versus non-differential Hawthorne effect: participants change their behavior because they know they’re being observed Strategies to reduce bias: choice of comparison group, use standard/validated tests/procedures, regular calibration of equipment, training of study staff

Answer 24

Participants in different groups are not treated the same Strategy to reduce bias: masked study design

Answer 25

Researchers preconceived ideas of results influence measurement, documentation, statisical analyses Strategies to reduce bias: masked study design, independent statistical analyses

Answer 26

Risk factor is related to both exposure and health outcomes, but is not casually related (Ex. Use of cod liver oil is positively associated with age related hearing loss) Strategies to reduce bias call study design, replication studies

Answer 27

Early detection is confused with increased survival time Strategies to reduce bias: study design

Answer 28

A.k.a. incidence prevalence bias Strategies to reduce bias: limit analysis to incident cases

Answer 29

Studies were statistically significant results are more likely to be pushed, as are those documenting a novel finding Strategies to reduce bias: measure existence with Donald lots, include novel sources to identify data for meta-analyses

Answer 30

Rh system: (+) and (-)

Answer 31

Major serum protein that inhibits proteolytic enzymes, major target is leukocyte elastase which can damage lung connective tissue if not down regulated— Early onset emphysema

Answer 32

Genetic variation in susceptibility to environmental agents Examples: fair complexion and UV light, ADH deficiency and alcohol, G6PD deficiency and fava beans

Answer 33

A deleterious allele that is maintained in a population because it increases reproductive fitness when it is heterozygous — Ex. Sickle cell

Answer 34

1.) there is no appreciable rate of new mutation 2.) Individuals with all genotypes are equally capable of mating and passing on their genes— no selection against any particular genotype 3.) No significant immigration of individuals from a population with allele frequencies very different from the endogenous population

Answer 35

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 p^2: probability of AA genotype q^2: probability of aa genotype pq: heterozygous p= 1-q

Answer 36

When alleles at a locus are not in HW equilibrium this can indicate that a particular allele is associated with a disease— fatal/ doesn't show up as frequently in a community

Answer 37

Primary single gene diseases, the disruption of a single gene

Answer 38

Loss of function— Miss sense, nonsense, frameshift, deletions, insertions

Answer 39

Increase gene dosage/proteins function Ex. Down syndrome, achondroplasia

Answer 40

Different alleles of the same gene/locus causing very disease severity — PKU

Answer 41

Mutations in different genes/locus is can yield a similar clinical phenotype — hyperphenylalaninemia

Answer 42

People with the same mutation can present dramatically different phenotypes due to the presence of modifier genes Ex: ApoE4 frequency increasing neurological and neurodegenerative disorders

Answer 43

PAH gene and the disease PKU— Also an example of defect that occurs in one tissue (liver, kidney) but where the phenotype is manifest elsewhere (brain)

Answer 44

Leads to increased tissue mass and is a common cause of neurodegeneration and CNS problems Example: Tay-Sachs disease buildup of GM2 gangliosides sphingolipids in the retina lysosomes

Answer 45

I-cell disease: autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by a defect in proteins trafficking, acid hydrolases which are required are not properly modified with glycoproteins Acid hydrolases get sent out of the cell instead of to the lysosomes

Answer 46

Alpha 1-AT : Involved in the breakdown of various proteases that can damage lung tissue if not regulated. (Interaction with environmental factors like cigarette smoke)

Answer 47

Hypercholesterolemia: LDLR defect, causes cardiovascular disease

Answer 48

Cystic fibrosis, delta F508, Mutation of a chloride channel, affects lungs and exocrine pancreas

Answer 49

DMD: X-linked recessive disease caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene Female carrier: elevated creatine kinase levels, no clinical manifestation

Answer 50

Huntington’s, fragile X, Friedreich ataxia, myotonic dystrophy 1 and 2

Answer 51

The restriction and subsequent amplification of mtDNA during oogenesis: mosaicism/heteroplasmy Mothers with a high proportion of mutant mtDNA are more likely to have clinically affected offspring

Answer 52

Do not demonstrate a simple Mendelian pattern of inheritance, often demonstrate familial aggregation, inheritance is more common among the close relatives of a proband, more likely in MZ versus DZ twins

Answer 53

• blood pressure • dermatoglyphics • head circumference • height • IQ • skin color

Answer 54

1.) no simple Mendelian pattern of inheritance 2.) Familial aggregation 3.) Environmental factors 4.) More common among close relatives of the proband

Answer 55

Prevalence of the disease in the relatives of an infected person ___________________________________ Prevalence of the disease in the general population

Answer 56

OR=1 would show complete lack of association OR>1 A higher risk of an outcome OR<1 Lower risk of an outcome

Answer 57

Schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, coronary artery disease, MI, Alzheimer’s disease

Answer 58

1.) Test a candidate gene for variance in a disease population 2.) map a gene in a family/families with history of disease

Answer 59

Complex disease genes identified often have quantitative affects

Answer 60

Actual sequence and physical location on a chromosome are being looked at

Answer 61

Based on the following a phenotypic trait in the families, indicates the relative position of genes (as identified by their function) as shown by linkage analysis

Answer 62

Uses statistics to determine whether to genes, loci or the markers they are based on, are likely to live near one another. Estimated by the frequency that they are transmitted together Two genetic loci are linked if they are transmitted together from parent to offspring more often than expected under independent inheritance

Answer 63

RF > 50% means two genes are unlinked RF < 50% means two genes are linked

Answer 64

The principle of segregation: the two members of a gene pair segregate from each other in the formation of gametes. Half of the gametes carry one allele, and the other half carry the other allele

Answer 65

The principle of independent assortment: genes for different traits assort independently of one another in the formation of gametes. —unlinked

Answer 66

Following its co-transmission with known chromosomal markers (Without knowledge of the actual gene)

Answer 67

Logarithm of the odds: odds ratio is expressed as the log10 of this ratio — this is the likelihood of data if loci are linked LOD of 3+ : 1000:1 odds favor of linkage (not random)

Answer 68

Start with a candidate gene, suspect that a defect or polymorphism is responsible and then look into families and or population to determine if people with a disease are statistically more likely to carry a particular rotation or polymorphism

Answer 69

• linkage analysis/prior knowledge • Genomic analysis, association analysis to determine the correspondence • alternative strategy: SNP chips • Follow up with bio chemical and molecular analysis/animal models

Answer 70

A type two diabetes gene, found by linkage analysis of Mexican American family — Is not a polymorphic marker, is actually the disease. Assisting protease that interferes with insulin secretion and glucose uptake

Answer 71

Uses small families and asks whether affected siblings share specific gene alleles had a frequency higher than expected by random chance Comparing identical by descent (IBD) to identical by state (IBS)

Answer 72

Siblings have the same allele from the same parent

Answer 73

Siblings have the same allele, regardless of what parent it came from

Answer 74

55/67 shared three polymorphic markers at three different genes The other 12 shared at least two of the three polymorphic markers — RET gene malfunction

Answer 75

Serine, glycine, histidine, formaldehyde, formate

Answer 76

FH4 delegating a C — formyl <—> methylene <—> methyl

Answer 77

• Vitamin precursor of FH4 • found in leafy green vegetables, liver, legumes, yeast, fortified flour • has glutamic acid tail

Answer 78

Reduced N5-methyl tetrahydrofolate from the intestinal epithelial cells

Answer 79

Proton (H+) coupled folate transporter encoded on the SLC46A1 gene on enterocytes and hepatocytes

Answer 80

An inherited mutation in the proton coupled folate transporter causing a functional folate deficiency despite adequate folate in the diet: no absorption

Answer 81

Spina bifida, neural tube defects

Answer 82

Folate —dihydrofolate reductase—> dihydrofolate — dihydrofolate reductase—> tetrahydrofolate

Answer 83

Methotrexate colon cancer, rheumatoid arthritis Trimethoprim: antibacterial Pyrimethamine: antimalarial

Answer 84

The degradation of tryptophan— Formate is one source of carbon for the “one carbon pool”

Answer 85

FH4 + formate —> N10- formyl <—> N5,N10-methenyl <—> N5,N10-methylene —> N5-methyl

Answer 86

FIGLU accumulation (from FH4 + histidine —> 5-formimino + glutamate) characterized by Megaloblastic anemia and mental retardation

Answer 87

Serine is the most important contributor to the one carbon pool. It forms N5,10- methylenetetrahydrofolate when it donates its carbon to FH4 using PLP as a cofactor

Answer 88

Serine, glycine, Choline, Histidine, tryptophan

Answer 89

Methylcobalamin Adenosylcobalamin

Answer 90

Donation of a methyl to homocystine to make methionine — Methylcobalamin is consumed in the process

Answer 91

Catalyzes the isomerization of a methyl group in converting methylmalonyl CoA to succinylacetone CoA — catabolism of branched chain an odd chain length fatty acids, isoleucine, valine — Adenosylcobalamin not consumed in the reaction

Answer 92

1.) binds to R binder proteins in the stomach 2.) R binders get digested, B12 then binds to intrinsic factor 3.) Intrinsic factor B12 complex is taken up by intestinal epithelial cells and transported into the blood — Transcobalamin II is the protein used 4.) B12 get stored in the liver complex with Cubillin

Answer 93

• Causes pernicious anemia, megaloblastic anemia plus neurological problems • caused from dietary deficiency, loss of function of intrinsic factor, transcobalamin II, or cubillin

Answer 94

SAM — A methyl donor for many biosynthetic and regulatory enzymes, and it must be regenerated with carbon that comes from N5-methyltetrahydrofolate

Answer 95

Targets dihydrofolate reductase, FH2 —x—> FH4 Folate deficiency leads to decrease in nucleotide production. Use against cancer, because those cells require deoxynucleotides for rapid cell division

Answer 96

A uracil analog that inhibits thymidylate synthase. Is a suicide inhibitor dUMP—x—> dTMP Folate deficiency leads to decrease in nucleotide production. Use against cancer, because those cells require deoxynucleotides for rapid cell division

Answer 97

Accumulation of homocystine because it cannot be converted to methionine by B12 (Methylcobalamin) This can also be caused by a vitamin B6 deficiency, because the homocysteine cannot convert to cysteine

Answer 98

This is the bodies second pathway to turn homocysteine to methionine. It is a metal donor

Answer 99

• PNS & CNS deficiencies • atherosclerosis • Osteoporosis — Interferes with collagen maturation

Answer 100

Inappropriate synthesis causing branched chain fatty acids rather than unbranched. These branched fatty acids compromise the membrane structure

Answer 101

The only metabolic fate of N5-methyl FH4 is to lose its methyl to cobalamin. In a dietary or functional deficiency, folate becomes trapped as N5-methyl FH4, unable to participate in other one carbon transfers

Answer 102

Megaloblastic Anemia, sore tongue, auto immune gastritis, numbness and ataxia

Answer 103

Homocystinuria

Answer 104

1.) regeneration: restoration of normal cells 2.) Scarring/fibrosis: deposition of connective tissue Ultimate repair is usually a combination of both

Answer 105

1.) proliferation of differentiated cells that survive injury and have ability to proliferate (ex. Liver) 2.) Tissue stem cells produce new and differentiated cells (ex. Skin, GI) — Regeneration typically requires intact supporting structures

Answer 106

1.) injured area is patched with connective/fibrous tissue. Occurs when cells are not capable of regeneration, or supporting structures are too severely damaged 2.) functional cells are replaced by connective tissue, which provides structure but does not provide function

Answer 107

1.) labile, constantly dividing tissue 2.) Stable tissue 3.) Permanent tissue

Answer 108

• Constant overturn fed by stem cells and proliferation of mature cells • Occurs in the lung, skin, G.I. tract, and hematopoietic • surface of the epithelia

Answer 109

• Type two pneumocyte in the lung • basal cell in the skin • Crypt cells in the G.I. tract • CD34+ cells

Answer 110

• made of quiescent cells (G0) • Capable of proliferating when tissue is injured or lost — In solid tissues: liver, kidney pancreas — in connective tissue: endothelium, smooth muscle, fibroblasts

Answer 111

• cells are terminally differentiated and cannot proliferate • This includes most neurons, cardiac, and skeletal muscle • Repair is almost entirely scarring/fibrosis

Answer 112

Growth factors derived from: • Active macrophages at the side of injury (most common) • Platelets • Epithelial cells • Stromal cells (Fibroblasts) • Sequestered pool in extracellular matrix

Answer 113

An extra cellular matrix signaler for tissue damage

Answer 114

Inflammatory (days 1-3) • Cellular mediators: platelets, neutrophils, macrophages • Actions: acute inflammatory responses

Answer 115

Proliferative (day 3-weeks) • Cellular mediators: fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, endothelial cells, epithelial cells, macrophages • actions: establishment of granulation tissue, angiogenesis, epithelial cell proliferation, type III collagen deposition

Answer 116

Remodeling (1 week- months) • Cellular mediators: fibroblasts • Actions: type III collagen deposition replaced by type I collagen (stiffer, less elastic)

Answer 117

Many new blood vessels, fibroblasts, and chronic inflammation including numerous macrophages

Answer 118

Vascular endothelial growth factor: • Stimulates both migration and proliferation of endothelial cells • Promotes vasodilation by stimulating the production of NO • Contributes to the formation of vascular lumen (Important for healing)

Answer 119

FGF, TGF-beta, VEGF,

Answer 120

TGF-beta, PDGF

Answer 121

M1: clearing offending agents and dead tissue M2: • Provide growth factors causing the proliferation of various cells • Secrete cytokines that stimulate fibroblasts to proliferate and deposit connective tissue in ECM

Answer 122

Initially, the macrophages are classically activated (M1), but are gradually replaced by alternately activated type (M2)

Answer 123

• produced by cells in granulation tissue • Stimulus fibroblast migration and proliferation • Increases synthesis of collagen and fibronectin • decreases degradation of ECM • Has anti-inflammatory properties

Answer 124

INFECTION, diabetes, nutritional deficiencies, medication/steroids, mechanical stress, ischemia/poor perfusion, foreign material, injury type and extent, injury location

Answer 125

A suture surgical incision with tightly apposed edges

Answer 126

A wide open wound, which leads to more inflammation, more granulation tissue, increased risk of infection, large scar myofibroblastic contraction plays a major role in wound closing

Answer 127

At one week: wound is about 10% as strong as normal skin After two months: maximum strength is achieved, still only 75% of the original tissue strength

Answer 128

Raised, limited to boundaries of original wound, tends to regress overtime, parallel collagen I bundles as in normal scar

Answer 129

Markedly raised, expands beyond the boundaries of the original wound, contains bright eosinophillic collagen bundles that are disorganized

Answer 130

Failure to make a scar, the fibroblasts pull the skin back together and it pulls too tightly

Answer 131

Always open, help maintain resting membrane potential, permeate K more than Na

Answer 132

Activated by membrane potential: Na, Ca, K, Cl channels

Answer 133

Regulated by ligands (neurotransmitters), glutamate, GABA, and glycine receptor channels

Answer 134

Activated by Ca2+, ATP, cyclic AMP and GMP, often activated indirectly by GPCRs including CFTR and ABC transporters

Answer 135

Regulated by temperature and pain, TRP channels

Answer 136

Activated by touch, hearing, cardiovascular regulation, sensing of gravity, and osmotic stress

Answer 137

Used for Optogenetics Channelrhodopsin: blue light (Na+,K+) Halorhodopsin: yellow light (Cl-)

Answer 138

1.) Confirmational change in one region 2.) General structural change 3.) Blocking particle (AA) 4.) ligand gated 5.) Phosphorylation gated 6.) Voltage gated 7.) Stress or pressure gated (Cytoskeleton)

Answer 139

1.) change in membrane potential 2.) Calcium binding 3.) Dephosphorylation

Answer 140

K+ — they can be sensitive to depolarization, hyper polarization, pH, and change in intracellular Ca2+

Answer 141

Na channel 1.) resting potential, leak K channel, -60mV 2.) Rising phase, opening Na channels 3.) Overshoot phase, Na close, K open 4.) Falling phase, K opens maximally 5.) Under shoot phase: refractory because K is slow to close

Answer 142

0.) Rapid influx Na+ through open fast Na+ channels 1.) Transient K channels open and K efflux returns TMP to 0mV 2.) inflow of Ca2+ through L-type Ca2+ channels is electrically balanced by K efflux through delayed rectifier K channels 3.) Ca2+ channels close but delayed rectifier K channels remain open and return TMP to -90mV 4.) Na+, Ca2+ channels closed, open K rectifier channels keep TMP stable at -90mV

Answer 143

Loss of K channels, dangerous because no recovery before another spike Symptoms: torsades de pointes, syncope, seizures, sudden death

Answer 144

Adding atoms from formyltetrahydrofolate, glutamine, glycine, aspartate, and CO2 sequentially to PRPP

Answer 145

Building the orotate base from aspartame, CO2, and glutamine. The base is then transferred to PRPP and further modified to cytosine, thymidine, or uracil

Answer 146

An activated ribose sugar created by transfer of pyrophosphate to ribose-5-phosphate by PRPP synthetase (KEY REGULATORY STEP!) PRPP synthetase is allosterically inhibited by purine diphosphonucleosides (GDP, ADP)

Answer 147

N10-formyl FH4 (twice)

Answer 148

AMP (+ fumarate)—>ADP—>dADP—>dATP—>DNA Or AMP—>ADP—> ATP—> RNA

Answer 149

XMP—> GMP—> GDP—> GTP —> RNA or XMP—> GMP—> GDP—> dGDP—> dGTP—> DNA

Answer 150

Nucleotide diphosphate (ADP, GDP)

Answer 151

Converting free bases to nucleotides, using APRT & HGPRT (Phosphoribosyltransferases that add ribose form PRPP) Hypoxanthine (HGPRT)—> IMP Guanine (HGPRT)—> GMP Adenine (APRT)—> AMP

Answer 152

Purine nucleoside phosphorylase removes ribose, leaving the free base Inosine—> hypoxanthine Guanosine—> guanine

Answer 153

Adenosine can be converted to AMP directly through phosphorylation by adenosine kinase

Answer 154

Precipitation of uric acid in distal joints. Caused by purine degradation leading to hyperuricemia

Answer 155

Uses glutamine as an amine donor to form carbamoyl phosphate (Same product as CPS I, doesn’t use ammonia) It is allosterically inhibited by UTP and activated by PRPP

Answer 156

Uses dUMP as a substrate, so dUDP has to be the phosphorylated before it can be methylated to dTMP. dTMP Is then phosphorylated twice to make dTTP, a substrate for DNA synthesis

Answer 157

Inhibited by ADP, and GDP normally. Super activity loses inhibition X-linked condition seen only in males, symptoms are due to increased purine production and increase uric acid — Crystalluria, urinary stones, gout

Answer 158

Severe combined immunodeficiency resulting from adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA— Normally removes amine group from adenosine in salvage pathway) Leads to an accumulation of adenosine and 2-deoxyadenosine in the blood. Toxic to developing lymphocytes — Requires hemopoietic stem cell transfer

Answer 159

Combined immunodeficiency resulting from purine nucleotide phosphorylase deficiency — Requires hemopoietic stem cell transfer

Answer 160

X-linked, results in Deficiency in hypoxanthine- guanine phosphoribolsyltransferase He’s Got Purine Recycling Trouble (HGPRT deficiency) Symptoms: self injury, uric acid in the urine, mental retardation, dystonia, recurrent vomiting, renal failure

Answer 161

Drug aimed at reducing uric acid Treatment for gout (Suicide inhibitor of xanthine oxidase), and renal failure

Answer 162

A set of biochemical changes in the sperm that occur after about 5 to 6 hours of residency in the female reproductive tract

Answer 163

• cholesterol efflux from plasma membrane • Membrane hyperpolarization • Increased cytosolic pH • unmasking of cell surface receptors that bind the sperm to the egg • Ca2+ and HCO3- enter the sperm and activate adenylyl cyclase —> increase cAMP —> tyrosine phosphorylation of many proteins

Answer 164

Necessary for sperm egg fusion to occur • Vigorous swimming leading to penetration of the follicle cell layer • Sperm plasma member associated proteins binding to ZP3 —> Activating sperm plasma membrane Na/H transporters —> opens Ca2+ channels • The calcium influx triggers exocytosis of the acrosomal vesicle, liberating its contents (Hydrolytic enzymes, that digest an opening through the Zona)

Answer 165

Izumo1 On sperm and Juno on egg

Answer 166

PLC-zeta Enters the egg, cleaving PI(4,5)BP into IP3 and DAG, initiating a calcium spike in the egg cytoplasm

Answer 167

1.) triggers cortical granule exocytosis 2.) Stimulates the completion of meiosis II (and 2nd polar body forms) 3.) Activates the first mitotic cell signal and development of the zygote

Answer 168

A profoundly important event that triggers sets of events that will culminate into an activated zygote

Answer 169

The calcium induced cortical granules digest ZP2 and alter ZP3, there by inhibiting the passage of more sperm Also sheds Juno

Answer 170

LH —> increased Emi2 —> inhibits APC/C —> M2 arrest

Answer 171

Increased Ca2+ —> inhibits Emi2 —> increases APC/C —> proteolysis of cyclin B and inhibition of M-CDK activity

Answer 172

The nuclear envelopes form around each set of parental chromosomes

Answer 173

The sperm basal body and some maternal pericentriolar material

Answer 174

The sperm axoneme microtubules and mitochondria

Answer 175

Protamines are exchanged for maternal histones

Answer 176

• Physical damage to the uterus or fallopian tubes • deficits in ovulation

Answer 177

• Failure of emmission • retrograde ejaculation • varicocoele • Oligospermia (reduced sperm #) •Asthenospermia (reduced motility) • tetrazoospermia (wrong morphology)

Answer 178

Eggs are obtained by hormone-based super ovulation protocols, and collected by physically rupturing the follicles with an ultrasound guided catheter and subsequent aspiration. Eggs are flushed into a Petri plate with appropriate buffer

Answer 179

Collection of 1 to 4 eggs, and 100,000 sperm placed directly into an ovaduct

Answer 180

Collected eggs and sperm are combined in a petri dish and allowed to undergo fertilization, fertilized zygote are placed in the oviduct

Answer 181

Eggs and sperm are combined in a petri dish and allowed to undergo fertilization. Embryos then placed into the fallopian tube or uterus. Main difference from ZIFT is that the fertilized egg is allowed to develop for a longer period of time

Answer 182

2 to 10 sperm are injected with a micro pipette directly into the peri-vitelline space of the oocyte. Fertilization is monitored and zygote/embryo replaced in uterus or fallopian tube — sometimes uses zonal drilling: acid digestion of Zona to allow sperm access to egg surface

Answer 183

A single sperm is placed into a micro pipette and micro injected directly into the egg cytoplasm. Zygote/embryo transferred back to uterus/fallopian tube — Most commonly performed procedure

Answer 184

1.) One S-phase followed by two M-phases 2.) pairing of homologous chromosomes in prophase one: homologs find each other in prophase and form cohesins

Answer 185

1.) homologous recombination (crossing over) 2.) Independent assortment

Answer 186

• occurs in prophase of meiosis I • Synapsis: Homologous chromosome pairs find each other the other formation of synaptonemal complexes • recombination nodules formed between chromatids of different homologs (2-3 spots)

Answer 187

Where reciprocal splicing occurs during crossover

Answer 188

Which replicated homolog (M1) or daughter chromatid (M2) faces which spindle pole in meitotic cells is random

Answer 189

• Dyein associate with cytoplasmic portion of KASH5 and binds to microtubules • adapter proteins bind chromosome telomeres in the nuclear portion of SUN1 • Microtubule motor based motility pulls the telomeres together to form bouquets— Facilitating pairing of homologs

Answer 190

Protects the centromeric cohesions from being digested by separase in M1 Shugoshin is dislodged from daughters chromatids allowing separase to destroy cohesin, in anaphase II of M2

Answer 191

Failure of chromosomes to separate normally in anaphase. can occur in meiosis I or II This can cause monosomies/trisomies (downs 21, Edward 18, and patau 13)

Answer 192

The most common type of paternal nondisjunction event

Answer 193

Primordial germ cells—> Spermatogonia and oogonia—> primary spermatocytes and oocytes—> M1 —> secondary spermatocytes and oocytes —> Males: M2 —> haploid spermatids —> spermatozoa Females: arrest in M2 , ovum until fertilized

Answer 194

PGCs become detectable at the fourth week of embryonic development. As they differentiate into oogonia and spermatogonia, DNA methylation occurs: which is imprinting

Answer 195

Sertoli cells

Answer 196

- production of haploid spermatids by meiosis - Morphological transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa by Formation of an acrosomal vesicle, elaboration of a flagellum, replacement of histones in sperm chromatin with protamines (condense DNA into sperm head)

Answer 197

Small, arginine-rich proteins that replace histones late in spermatogenesis. This allows for greater compaction of DNA to form the small, dense head of the sperm. It also removes histone epigenetic marks

Answer 198

In fetal development: PGCs —> M1, arrest prophase I (primary oocytes) —> puberty, M1 resumed —> M2: arrested in metaphase II until fertilization

Answer 199

Females: retinoic acid + Stra8 in fetal ovary regulates a number of genes involved in driving oogonia into meiosis Males: RA is rapidly metabolized in the testes until puberty, then RA and Stra8 rapidly accumulates driving spermatogonia into meiosis

Answer 200

Follicle gap junctions —> High cAMP —> PKA —> activating phosphorylation of Wee1 —> inhibitory phosphorylation of M-CDK —> arrests oocyte in prophase I Mid cycle increase in LH —> decreases cGMP and cAMP —> increases Mos kinase —> increases M-CDK —> completion of M1

Answer 201

Increase LH —> increases Emi2 —> inhibits APC/C —> arrests in metaphase II fertilization —> increased Ca2+ —> inhibits Emi2 —> increases APC/C —> proteolysis of Cyclin B and inhibition of M-CDK —> M2 completion

Answer 202

Secondary oocyte arrested in metaphase II, a daughter polar body, surrounding layers of ECM (zona pellucida) , and follicle cells (corona radiata)

Answer 203

Week 1: cleavage and implantation Week 2: Bilaminar disc formation and delamination Week 3: gastrulation, neurulation, somitogenesis Week 4: embryo rolling and folding, establishment of the adult body plan

Answer 204

1.) cell proliferation 2.) cell specialization 3.) cell interactions 4.) Cell movements

Answer 205

Cell divisions resulting in a loosely adherent ball of cells, called a morula

Answer 206

Flattening of cells against each other, due to formation of cell-cell junctions — as this occurs, the outer cells envelop a core of inner cells. The outer cells give rise to the trophoblast, inner cells give rise to the inner cell mass (embryo)

Answer 207

Escape from the Zona Pellucida— The ZP serves as a barrier to implantation, and must be discarded prior to blastocyst attachment to the uterine epithelium

Answer 208

The superior and posterior wall of the uterus Abnormal includes: abdominal cavity, ovary, uterine tube, or too close to the cervix

Answer 209

Occurs when implantation occurs low in the uterus, and the placenta subsequently covers part or all of the cervix. It can result in bleeding in the second half of pregnancy, and growth restriction of the fetus

Answer 210

Expansion of the trophoblast, forms a multinucleated mass which overlays the cellular trophoblast

Answer 211

Once the cellular trophoblast is over laid by the syncytiotrophoblast, the inside becomes the cytotrophoblast

Answer 212

Differentiates and separates the inner cell mass (embryoblast), from the blastocyst cavity

Answer 213

Created from epiblast cells, it begins caudally, identifying cranial, coral, left, right embryo axes Downward dive: endoderm Partially downward dive: Mesoderm Top layer: ectoderm (overlying epiblast

Answer 214

Extends downward through the primitive node and then cranially in the mesoderm Supporting structure for the embryo, a source of midline signals that pattern surrounding tissues

Answer 215

Epidermis, hair, nails, cutaneous, memory glands, central and peripheral nervous system

Answer 216

Paraxial: Muscles of the head, trunk, limbs, axial skeleton, dermis, connective tissue Intermediate: urogenital system, including gonads Lateral: serous membranes of pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum, connective tissue and muscle of viscera, heart, blood cells

Answer 217

Epithelium of lung, bladder and G.I. tract, glands associated with G.I. tract, including liver and pancreas

Answer 218

Develops at the base of the coccyx in the developing fetus, derives from pluripotent cells from the primitive streak

Answer 219

Ectoderm thickens to form neural plate —> fold to form neural groove —> Neural crest cells invade the underlying mesoderm —> folds fuse to form neural tube

Answer 220

Anencephaly

Answer 221

Rachischisis (spina bifida)

Answer 222

* spinal, autonomic, and cranial nerve ganglia * Schwann cells * meninges * Melanocytes * Adrenal medulla * Craniofacial muscles and skeleton

Answer 223

Splanchnic: ventral wing Somatic: dorsal wing Extraembryonic: continuity of wings on yolk sac and amnion

Answer 224

Kidney, gonads

Answer 225

Head Somite: sclerotome, myotome, dermatome

Answer 226

Sclerotome: Vertebrae, ribs, rib cartilage Myotome: musculature of the back, ribs, and limbs Dermatome: dermis of the back

Answer 227

Wnt and Shh signaling errors: failure of the bilateral dorsal sclerotome to completely encircle the spinal cord leaving a gap on the dorsal side

Answer 228

Blood islands + peripheral cells —> primitive vasculature and endothelium Cardio genie mesoderm—> forms toward cranial end and rolls caudally during embryo folding

Answer 229

Converts the body plan from disc-like to tubular Re-organize the cranial end, positions the heart, forms the foregut, midgut and hindgut

Answer 230

Citrate/Malate antiporter to create either oxaloacetate or acetyl CoA

Answer 231

Citrate lyase (forms OAA from citrate), malate dehydrogenase (forms Malate from OAA) , malic enzyme, NADP+ (pyruvate from Malate)

Answer 232

1.) transports acetyl Coa away from the mitochondria to the cytosol 2.) Malic enzyme generates NADPH to power fatty acid synthesis

Answer 233

NADPH generated in the cytosol by the PPP and malic enzyme

Answer 234

Acetyl CoA carboxylase + CO2 + ATP Activated by citrate, xylulose-5-p, insulin Inhibited by palmitoyl CoA, phosphorylation by AMPK/PKA

Answer 235

Acetyl CoA carboxylase. It is regulated in multiple ways

Answer 236

Malonyl CoA inhibits CPT1, this stops beta oxidation of fatty acids while fatty acid synthesis is occurring

Answer 237

Bond formation, reduction, dehydration, reduction

Answer 238

O2. Energy for this comes from NADH —> H2O

Answer 239

Arachidonic acid. 20 carbons with 4 points of unsaturation. Must be obtained from the diet because we cannot synthesize double bonds near the omega carbon like it has

Answer 240

Triacylglycerides, glycerophospholipids, ether phospholipids, sphingolipids

Answer 241

Glycerol (from Lipolysis) + ATP—Glycerol kinase—> glycerol 3-phosphate Only liver cells express glycerol kinase

Answer 242

Glucose—>DHAP + NADH —> glycerol 3-phosphate (Glycolysis coupling)

Answer 243

Very low density lipoprotein, delivers fatty acids to adipose tissue to store fatty acids as triacylglycerol Lipoprotein lipase, LPL, is an enzyme on endothelial cells activated by apoC2 that cleaves off FAs to reduce the VLDL —> IDL —> LDL

Answer 244

2 FAs and a phosphate head group on a glycerol backbone Mainly used in cell membranes, but are also constituents of Lipoproteins, bile, and lung surfactant

Answer 245

1 FA, 1 phosphate head group, 1 ether-linked hydrocarbon tail on a glycerol backbone

Answer 246

1 FA, 1 phosphate choline group on a sphingosine backbone

Answer 247

1 FA, 1 carbohydrate group on a sphingosine backbone

Answer 248

Phosphatidylcholine Phosphatidylethanolamine Phosphatidylserine Phosphatidylinositol biphosphate

Answer 249

Phosphatidic acid is dephosphorylated to diacylglycerol. Then the head group bound to a nucleotide (CDP) is added to glycerol backbone. Ex. Phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidylserine

Answer 250

Bonding phosphatidic acid to a nucleotide, then exchanging the nucleotide for a head group Ex. Phosphatidylinositol, Cardiolipin, phosphatidylglycerol

Answer 251

Use ceramide instead of glycerol for their backbone. Ceramide is derived from serine and Palmitoyl CoA (sphingosine)

Answer 252

Ceramide plus either glucose or galactose

Answer 253

Two or more sugar is attached to a ceramide

Answer 254

Have two or more sugars, plus NANA

Answer 255

Dipalmatoylphosphatidylcholine: The major component of lung surfactant, required to prevent alveolar collapse Sphingomyelin is another lung surfactant. The ratio of sphingomyelin to phosphatidylcholine in amniotic fluid is an indicator of gestational progress

Answer 256

Able to give rise to all embryonic and extraembryonic (triphoblasts) cells This includes the zygote and early blastomeres

Answer 257

Able to give rise to cells representative of all three germ layers, but not trophoblast or other extra embryonic cells This includes the inner cell mass cells

Answer 258

Can give rise to a number of different cell types, but not as many as pluripotent cells. Limited to one germ layer

Answer 259

Only able to give rise to a single type of differentiated cell

Answer 260

After the inner mass cells and early epiblast stages

Answer 261

Cells gain a general type of identity, but the precise cell type is not yet defined, and can be modulated by environmental signals

Answer 262

The type of cell is defined, and further development is independent of environmental signals

Answer 263

Like a marble rolling down a landscape that separates into different grooves: initial major groups would be trophoblast versus inner cell mass, next would be epiblast versus hypoblast, and then ectoderm, mesoderm, or endoderm. Cells acquire specific fates as they roll down and enter different grooves

Answer 264

Specific factors are partitioned unequally among daughter cells during cell division. This results in the assignment of different fates as daughter cells are produced Mosaicism

Answer 265

Cells are initially the same, but can be separately influenced by other cells or other types of environmental signals. Cells are not born different, but instead become different by receiving distinct environmental signals. Regulative pattern of development (most common)

Answer 266

1.) cell signaling, select activation of transcriptional regulators via cell signaling pathways 2.) Epigenetic modification of chromatin

Answer 267

Signals that alter a cell’s fate in the process of induction

Answer 268

Cell a gives A signal, causing specifications and differentiation of cell B

Answer 269

Cell B already specified, but a signal from cell A allows differentiation to proceed

Answer 270

Secreted signaling factors. Example: inductive, gradient, antagonist, cascade, combinatorial, lateral signaling

Answer 271

Different concentrations of a single morphogen can generate different cell types

Answer 272

Eye development: optic vesicle —> FGF8 released to form lens (only ectoderm can respond due to expression of Pax6) Morphogen: FGF8 Inducer: optic vesicle Pax6: renders ectoderm in head “competent” to respond

Answer 273

• RTKs • TGF-beta • Wnt • Hedgehog • Notch

Answer 274

1. Stabilization of cell signaling pathways 2. Epigenetic modification of gene expression

Answer 275

• responsible for epigenetic regulation of chromatin activity • DNMTs methylate DNA. DNMT1 copies methylation patterns during cell division, making epigenetic pattering heritable • ex: imprinting in pre-primordial germ cells and X chromosome in activation

Answer 276

• responsible for epigenetic regulation of chromatin activity • Activating modifications found at active promoters, and are negatively associated with DNA methylation • ex. repressive modifications, trithorax complex proteins, Polycomb complex proteins

Answer 277

Instead of forming a normal placenta, the trophoblast forms of mass of cysts. These are a manifestation of imprinting, caused by an under representation of the maternal genome

Answer 278

Favors the development of the embryo

Answer 279

Favors the development of the trophoblast

Answer 280

1. Associated with the gain of totipotency by the zygote and blastomeres 2. Associated with PGC‘s as they “wipe the slate clean” prior to the application of sex specific imprints

Answer 281

1. Trophoblast vs inner cell mass 2. Formation of epiblast and hypoblast 3. Formation of ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm 4. Information of body axes (Dorsal/ventral, cranial/caudal, left/right)

Answer 282

Asymmetric division —> increase CDX2 in outer cells —> Inhibition of hippo pathway —> Increasing yap —> Increasing CDX2 expression —> inhibits Oct4/NANOG/Sox2 which become restricted to inner cell mass—> inhibition of CDX2 in inner cell mass

Answer 283

Trophoblast differentiation, asymmetric cell divisions initially concentrate CDX2 in outer cells

Answer 284

Define inner cells and are associated with the maintenance of pluripotency

Answer 285

ICM Express both NANOG and Gata6—> ICM variably express FGFR2, lots of FGFR2 —> ERK signaling —> increases Gata6 Gata6: differentiation into hypoblast (primitive endoderm) NANOG: maintains pluripotency and promotes epiblast

Answer 286

• Hox genes (A,B,C,D), Homeobox genes • Retinoic acid regulates Hox expression • RA in the primitive node, the longer cells stay there the more posterior they will become • RA can be teratogenic in pregnancy

Answer 287

• notochord—> ventral floor plate—> Shh • dorsal roof plate —> BMP • Neural cell differentiation in the neural tube is instructed by opposing gradient of BMP and Shh, which result in differential expression of transcription factors

Answer 288

Arises from the ability of the primitive node cilia to concentrate Nodal on the left side of the embryo resulting in the regional activation of transcription factors such as Pitx2 • driven by dynein Nodal—> Pitx2 and Lefty Lefty—> inhibits Nodal

Answer 289

• Antibody mediated • B lymphocytes • Antibodies circulating in serum • Primary defense against extracellular pathogens, extracellular bacteria, circulating viruses

Answer 290

1.) in the bone marrow, antigen independent, stem cell to pre-B cells, creates IgM 2.) in lymphoid tissue, antigen dependent, B cells migrate into follicles, form germinal centers (GC), IgM and IgD—> plasma cell

Answer 291

1. Receptor editing: replacement of self reactive receptor with non-self reactive receptor 2. Clonal deletion: elimination of self reactive B cell clones 3. Clonal anergy: An antigen specific hyporesponsiveness, does not respond

Answer 292

Epitopes: the specific molecular target of which a complementary antibody binds Immunoglobins: B cells surface acting as antigen binding sites, binding causes proliferation of clone daughter cells

Answer 293

One antibody binds to a singular, specific epitope on an antigen. This is the most specific antibody response

Answer 294

A combination of more than one antibody, each specific for a different Epitope and varying affinities (group of things)

Answer 295

Dark zone: proliferating cells (centroblasts) undergo somatic hyper mutation Light zone: Hypermutated resting B cells (centrocytes) and follicular dendritic cells Mantle zone: mutated B cells and Tfh cells stimulation by Tfh —> plasma or memory cell transformation

Answer 296

Family of proteins orchestrating the migration of B cells from the dark zone to the light zone (reversible too)

Answer 297

B cells Express IgM, which can trigger non-specific antibody response such as TLRs and the complement cascade —> destroy all self cells Ex. Lupus, celiac, rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 298

Y: heavy chain with a hinge region, and an FC region (constant/crystalline) II: Attachments on the outside of the two Y arms, light chain, contain the Fab, and the antigen binding sites

Answer 299

The process of generating a larger repertoire of antibodies with diverse specificities via mutation of the V region DNA (not germline)

Answer 300

1. IgM: very rapid, short-lived Isotype switching 2. IgG: Longer, sustained, secondary recall

Answer 301

The strength of an interaction between a specific epitope and an individual antibody antigen binding site. High affinity antibody will bind a greater amount of antigen in a shorter period of time

Answer 302

The overall strength of an antibody antigen complex across all binding sites Dependent on: 1.) Affinity Cohen of the antibody for an epitope 2.) Valency: number of binding sites of both antibody and antigen 3.) Structural arrangements: of interacting regions of antibody and antigen

Answer 303

• no isotypes • Monomer • Antigen receptor on B cells not previously exposed to antigen • Basophils and mast cells

Answer 304

• no isotypes • Monomer • Parasitic worm protection via activation of eosinophils — histamine

Answer 305

• IgG - 1,2,3,4 isotypes • monomer • Antibody-based immunity • Opsonization, complement activation, antibody dependent cell cytotoxicity, neonatal immunity • Passive immunity to baby from pregnant mom, short-lived

Answer 306

• IgA- 1,2 isotypes • Dimer most commonly, can be monomer or trimer • mucosal immunity— Good, respiratory tract, urogenital tract, saliva, tears • breast milk —> passive to baby

Answer 307

• no isotypes • Pentamer • Naïve B cell antigen receptors • The first produced, complement activation • associated with cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Answer 308

• pathogen neutralization • complement activation • Antigen recruitment to secondary lymphoid organs • Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity • Apoptotic cell phagocytosis • controlling inflammation • Prevent auto immunity • Immune regulation and homeostasis

Answer 309

IgM, IgA, IgG1,2,3,4

Answer 310

IgM, IgA, IgG1,3,4

Answer 311

IgE, IgG1,3

Answer 312

IgM, IgA, IgG1,2,3

Answer 313

1. Antibody secretion 2. Isotype switching 3. Affinity maturation 4. Memory B cell

Answer 314

1. Antibody production 2. Neuronal survival and differentiation 3. Immunosuppression 4. Inflammation 5. Memory 6. Antigen presenting

Answer 315

• pattern recognition receptors • Complement pathways • neutralization • Opsonization • Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) — Mainly IgM, low affinity antibodies, short-lived plasma cells

Answer 316

Antibodies coding the surface of a pathogen act as opsonins. These opsonins change the charge of the cell walls to help drive phagocytosis creates (+) infected cell to bind (-) phagocyte

Answer 317

Follicular and marginal zone

Answer 318

• Activated helper T cell expresses CD40L, secretes cytokines • B cells are activated by CD40 engagement, cytokines • causes B cell proliferation and differentiation

Answer 319

Pathogen rendered non-pathogenic with transient growth in host Pros: cellular and humoral, strong, lifelong Cons: no use for pregnancy and immuno compromised Ex Adenovirus, polio, MMR, smallpox, InfluA

Answer 320

Epitope structure of antigen surface. inactivated via heat or chemicals Pros: Safe Cons: mostly humeral, boosters needed Ex: Have a comma rabies, IM influenza, polio

Answer 321

Use specific antigens to best stimulate response Pros: target specific epitopes of antigen Conns: expensive, weaker immune response Ex: HPV, HPV, streptococcus pneumonia, herpes zoster

Answer 322

Denatured bacterial toxin with receptor binding site Pros: protects against bacterial toxins, antibody response without causing disease Cons: boosters needed Ex: Diphtheria

Answer 323

Lipid nano particle delivers mRNA, cells synthesize for proteins Pros: cellular and humoral, high efficacy, safe in pregnancy Cons: local transient systemic inflammation, myocarditis Ex: Covid vaccine

Answer 324

• 70% of cancers arise initially from environmental causes such as smoking, diet, obesity, viral infection • Regardless of the initiating factor, all cancers involve multiple genetic and epigenetic changes that occur in a sequence overtime (aging = more cancer) • Cancer arises from a clone of transformed cells, Gene-gene, gene-environment, modifier genes

Answer 325

A disease process associated with uncontrolled cellular proliferation leading to a mass, or tumor (neoplasm)

Answer 326

Metastatic solid tumors — Defined by acquisition of genetic changes that permit invasion, evasion, and translocation

Answer 327

Epithelial: intestine, breast, lungs

Answer 328

Leukemias and lymphomas

Answer 329

Mesenchymal origin: bone, muscle, connective tissue

Answer 330

A stem cell tumor precursor. Cancer comes from transformed stem cell, differentiated cell does not have the potency

Answer 331

• Independence from cell cycle regulation • Independence from external growth signals • Evasion of cell death • Non-detection by the immune system • avoidance of cellular senescence • Disabling DNA repair mechanisms • Capacity for angiogenesis

Answer 332

Every tumor cell is equally capable of initiating neoplastic growth. Genetic and epigenetic changes occur over time, and with a selective advantage they will allow individual clones of cells to outcompete other cells and expand

Answer 333

Growth and progression of many cancers are driven by small sub populations of CSC‘s Tumors contain a cell hierarchy in which a minority of SCs could self-renew and be able to regenerate a timer

Answer 334

Mendelian inherited: every cell in your body carries the mutation, you just need one hit/mutation Results: — Multiple tumors — bilateral — Early onset

Answer 335

Most common, requires two hits/mutations to silence/mutate both alleles Results: — Single tumors — Unilateral — Later onset

Answer 336

Turn on a stimulatory pathway and leave it stuck in the on position (gas— broken accelerator) Examples: sis, Ret, Abl, K-Ras2, Myc, telomerase,Blc2

Answer 337

Control aberrant cell growth, Considered the brakes Examples: RB1, TP53, APC, VHL, BRCA1/BRCA2, MLH1/MSH2

Answer 338

Activators: hyperproliferative signals, DNA damage, telomere shortening, hypoxia Results: cell cycle arrest, senescence, apoptosis

Answer 339

Increased cell division, decreased apoptosis, and tumor microenvironment

Answer 340

Almost all tumor suppressor genes act recessively at the cellular level: All function of the tumor suppressor gene must be lost Loss of the second allele is called loss of heterozygosity Inherited cancers considered autosomal dominant because the germline mutation is invariably followed by loss of the wild type of oil in a subset of cells Dominant of the level of the organism but recessive at the level of the cell

Answer 341

(LOH: 2nd event) Nondisjunction causing chromosome loss, chromosome loss then chromosome duplication, mitotic recombination, gene conversion, deletion, point mutation

Answer 342

Arises from defects in mismatch repair or nuclear excision repair. Defects include MMR mutations that caused microsatellite expansions

Answer 343

Arises downstream of defects in DNA damage checkpoints, genes that control chromatin condensation, chromatid separation, and genes that control mitotic events

Answer 344

PCR amplification of select microsatellite regions in the genome. Tumors show extra PCR bands due to a failure to repair expansion or retraction of DNA repeat regions

Answer 345

APC, mutations of APC are rate limiting in about 85% of colorectal cancer. Two hits needed APC regulates cellular level of beta-catenin, When not regulated it moves into the nucleus and uncontrolled expression of proliferation genes occurs FAP: Familial adenomatous polyposis Inherited form of CRC, Mutant copy of APC —bad

Answer 346

Drug that targets the activity of the fusion of protein and halts CML (inhibits BRC 9-22 mutation activities) —Must take the drug for life

Answer 347

Classification of diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL) • consists of two distinct cancers, 40% of patients respond to chemotherapy R-CHOP — Germinal Center B-cell DLBCL (good outcome) vs. activated B-cell-like DLBCL (poor outcome)

Answer 348

From Acetyl CoA in the cytosol or taken up from the diet

Answer 349

- membranes - lipoprotein particles - bile acids - steroid hormones -vitamin D

Answer 350

1.) Three Acetyl CoA make mevalonate (6C) 2.) mevalonate converted to isoprene (5C) 3.) six isoprenes condense to form squalene (30C) 4.) squalene is cyclized and converted to cholesterol ( 27C)

Answer 351

beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl CoA reductase (HMG CoA reductase)

Answer 352

HMG CoA reductase; managing high cholesterol

Answer 353

High cholesterol: SREBP sequestered in intracellular membranes with SCAP. Promotes proteolysis of HMG CoA reductase Low cholesterol: SCAP leaves the DNA binding domain of SCREBP, which then translocates to the nucleus to increase activity of HMG CoA reductase

Answer 354

Fasted/low energy: HMG CoA reductase is (P) by AMPK (AMPK activated by AMP and sterols) Insulin/Fed: promotes cholesterol synthesis by activating phosphatases that dephosphorylate HMG CoA reductase

Answer 355

FP--> squalene --> cholesterol FP --> ubiquinone FP --> Dolichol (glycosylation in the ER)

Answer 356

Liver. Can export cholesterol in the form of: cholesterol esters in VLDL particles into the blood, and bile acids into the lumen of the gut Glucose --> glycerol-3-P + FA CoA --> TG --> VLDL--> interacts with LPL --> TG --> FA

Answer 357

7-alpha-hydroxylase (high levels of bile acids inhibit this step). This step also uses energy from NADPH

Answer 358

Bile acids are used to break down fats in the body. They become better detergents by oxidation of their side chains (3-alpha, 7-alpha, 12-alpha), and by forming conjugates with either taurine or glycine.

Answer 359

Recycled bile acids that have lost their 7-alpha-hydroxyl group from gut bacteria breakdown. 95% of bile salts are recycled, they must have the 3-alpha-hydroxyl " reuptake tag" otherwise they are excreted in feces

Answer 360

Store dietary fat and cholesterol in an immature form with ApoB48, they enter the lymph and then the blood. In the blood they uptake ApoCII and ApoE to become mature chylomicrons. ApoCII activates lipoprotein lipase (LPL)

Answer 361

Chylomicrons

Answer 362

Gallbladder--> breakdown of TGs --> FA + 2-MG --> into nascent chylomicrons and reform into TG

Answer 363

Within HDL particles, this enzyme allows cholesterol to be picked up by HDL and be trapped within the particle for reverse cholesterol transport to the liver from the blood.

Answer 364

1.) give ApoCII to nascent chylomicrons and immature VLDL particles 2.) Reverse cholesterol transport

Answer 365

ApoB100, ApoE, and ApoCII ApoB100 and ApoB48 are the same gene, changed by mRNA editing of a C-->U initiating a stop codon via APOBEC-1

Answer 366

HDL gives cholesterol esters to VLDL VLDL gives TGs to HDL (return to liver)

Answer 367

uptake oxidized LDL to create foamy cells when overabundance or when LDL receptors are mutated/inhibited

Answer 368

- glucocorticoids (cortisol, mobilize stored fuels) - mineralcorticoids (Aldosterone, fluid + salt balance) - androgens (testosterone, male dev) - estrogens (estradiol, female dev) - progestins (progesterone, pregnancy + female dev)

Answer 369

increased testosterone, and estradiol (slower)

Answer 370

Hypothalamus --> CRH --> ACTH in anterior pituitary --> cortisol synthesis from adrenal gland ---> inhibits CRH and ACTH

Answer 371

Low Ca2+ --> PTH --> PTH1R --> increase CYP27B1 --> Ca2+ reabsorption from kidney Low Ca2+ --> PTH --> PTH1R --> 25(OH)D --> calcitriol --> increased VDR --> Ca2+ reabsorption from the intestine Low Ca2+ --> PTH --> PTH1R --> bone resorption and Ca2+ release

Answer 372

1.) skin, sunlight (UV) 2.) liver, 25-hydroxylase 3.) Kidney, PTH-1-alpha-hydroxylase Creates 1,25-dihyroxycholecalciferol (Calcitriol) - most active form of vitamin D

Answer 373

Familial hypercholesterolemia-- can lead to atherosclerotic plaques under the endothelial layer of blood vessels

Answer 374

mutations in steroid hormone biosynthesis genes leading to increased androgens and decreased aldosterone and cortisol. Symptoms: salt wasting, hirsutism, virilization, short stature, high androgens, high ACTH

Answer 375

1.) yeast, single cellular-budding/nuclear fission reproduction-- psuedohyphae 2.) mold, chains growing together, hyphae with septates or smooth

Answer 376

can occur as mold OR yeast, can switch between the two

Answer 377

ALL: heterotrophic: cannot produce food on their own MOST: saprobes: obtain food from dead and decaying cells SOME: obtain food from living plants and animals

Answer 378

Spore bearing sac, all spores are released at the same time--reproductive

Answer 379

no sac-like structure around the spores, growing in cilia-like formations, one-a few spores pop off the top of the chain when ready--reproductive

Answer 380

1.) Coccidioides: release arthrospores 2.) Candid albicans: release Chlamydospores and/or blastospores 3.) Aspergillus: release phialospores 4.) Microsporum: release microconidia and macroconidia 5.) porospores

Answer 381

1.) Malassezia furfur 2.) Microsporum, trichophyton, epidermophyton 3.) Candida albicans

Answer 382

Lung, lung and skin 1.) Coccidioides immitis dermatitidis, blastomyces, histoplasma capsulatum, cryptoccus neoformans 2.) paracoccidioides brasiliensis

Answer 383

Roundworm: nematodes: ingestion, fecal pollution, close contact, meat, larva burrowing, fly bite, water containing cyclops Flatworm: Trematodes/Cestodes: fresh water containing larva stage, pork, fish

Answer 384

Trophozyte (all)--> cyst (some, resting dormant phase)--> Trophozyte reformation

Answer 385

Classified by how they move: 1.) Amoeboid (entamoeba, naegleria) 2.) ciliated (balantidium) 3.) flagellated (giardia, trichomonas vag, trypanosoma, leishmania) 4.) nonmotile (plasmodium, toxoplasma, cryptosporidium, cyclospora)

Answer 386

Example of infection cycle of Trypanosome: infects this bug which can infect humans and animals via bite

Answer 387

IgE, CD4+, Th2 cells, histamine release and inflammation Mech: mast cells, eosinophils leading to vasoactive amines, lipids, proteolytic enzymes, cytokines: IL-4, 5, 13

Answer 388

IgM, IgG against cell surface or extracellular matrix proteins Mech: Cell destruction (opsonization, complement, ADCC), and Inflammation (cellular dysfunction:antibodies block or activate signaling)

Answer 389

Circulating antigen:antibody complexes (large, hard to break down)- isotypes Mech: Complement, neutrophils, lysozymes

Answer 390

CD4+, Th1, 17, CD8+, cytotoxic T lymphocytes-- 48-72hrs Mech: CD4+ Th cytokine mediated inflammation, macrophage, neutrophil, direct target cell killing (CD8+ and CTLs)

Answer 391

Atopy: atopic allergy to common environmental substances (dust mites, pollen, etc) Anaphylaxis: Food, drugs, bee stings

Answer 392

Blood transfusions (ABO and Rh +/-) including hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and hemolytic diseases of the newborn

Answer 393

rare fetal autoimmune disease mediated by anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies that target alpha-3 chains of type IV collagen in kidney and lungs

Answer 394

Following strep infection, lectin complement pathway activated, binding antibody to heart cells causing rheumatic heart disease

Answer 395

antibodies against thyrotropin receptor--hyperthyroidism (opthalmopathy)

Answer 396

Antibodies attack acetylcholine receptor (AChr) affecting skeletal muscles and neuromuscular signal transmission

Answer 397

antibodies to foreign antigens form complexes that travel around the body and deposit randomly: complement reaction

Answer 398

autoantibodies to FNA, nucleoproteins, cytoplasmic antigens, leukocyte antigens, clotting factors, etc

Answer 399

autoantibodies to self IgG molecules

Answer 400

Delayed-type hypersensitivity: proteins (venom, TB) Contact hypersensitivity: haptens (metal, poison ivy) Gluten-sensitive enteropathy: Celiac, alpha-gliadin

Answer 401

Granulomas (macrophage accumulations, multinucleated giant cells, and lymphocytes)

Answer 402

Type IV hypersensitivity (T-cell mediated)

Answer 403

Urushiol + self antigens --> neoantigen that recruits cytokines, chemokines, leukocytes, Langerhans cells present to memory CTLS to result in direct killing, mast cells and basophils recruited

Answer 404

demyelinating disease of the CNS, forming demyelinating plaques 1.) initiating events 2.) Th1 (IFN-gamma), or Th17 (IL-17/IL-22) 3.) T cells, B cells, monocytes, and macrophages cross the BBB 4.) presentation of myelin antigen to immune cells 5.) CD4+, CD8+ destruction of myelin via complement system or ADCC

Answer 405

destruction of beta-islets of Langerhans in the pancreas leading to insulin deficiency

Answer 406

Ulcerative colitis or Chron's -- Dysfunctional immune response to commensal organisms (Th1 and Th17)

Answer 407

anti-gliadin response --> T-cell, plasma cell, macrophage infiltration --> villi destruction --> diarrhea, dehydration, malabsorption

Answer 408

An uncontrolled, monoclonal proliferation of cells

Answer 409

A combination of neoplastic cells(Parenchyma) and supporting stroma (blood vessels and connective tissue, which are not neoplastic)

Answer 410

Remains at the site of origin, usually amenable to surgical removal

Answer 411

Invades surrounding tissues and has the capacity to spread to distant sites (metastasis)

Answer 412

Benign neoplasm of mesenchymal origin

Answer 413

Malignant neoplasm of mesenchymal tissue origin

Answer 414

• adenoma: glandular tissue • Papilloma: fingerlike or warty projections • Cystadenoma: glandular tissue and forming large cysts

Answer 415

Malignant tumors of epithelial origin

Answer 416

Malignant neoplasms of blood forming cells

Answer 417

How much a neoplasm resembles the tissue of origin

Answer 418

Lack of differentiation, malignant neoplasms often are in a plastic, benign neoplasms are not

Answer 419

The degree to which cells within a neoplasm differ from each other Malignancies are more pleomorphic then benign neoplasms

Answer 420

Refers to a pre-malignant pleomorphic state

Answer 421

Ability of a neoplasm to breach normal barriers (penetrating basement membrane) and survive in new environments

Answer 422

Spreading to distance sites Mechanisms: 1.) seeding of body cavities 2.) lymphatic (carcinomas) 3.) hematogenous/hepatocellular carcinoma/thyroid follicular carcinoma

Answer 423

Target Neuroendocrine cells Ex: Small cell carcinoma of the lung, carcinoid tumors

Answer 424

Targets epithelial cells Ex: Carcinomas

Answer 425

Targets muscles Ex: leiomyoma, rhabdomyosarcoma

Answer 426

Target neuroglia Ex: astrocytoma, glioblastoma

Answer 427

Targets neurons Ex: neuroblastoma, neuroma

Answer 428

Target prostate epithelium Ex: adenocarinoma of the prostate

Answer 429

Targets neural crest cells Ex: melanocytes and neural tumors

Answer 430

Target tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase Ex: hairy cell leukemia

Answer 431

Targets mesenchymal cells Ex: sarcomas

Answer 432

A hyper catabolic state with muscle loss, often debilitating and fatal. Comes from the production of inflammatory mediators and hormones that can be produced/activated by tumors

Answer 433

Tumors develop signs and symptoms that are not related to their anatomic location, and are due to the production of substances acting at a distance

Answer 434

Incidence: most common is CRC, breast Deaths: most common is lungs and bronchus

Answer 435

Mutated genes that cause excessive growth, independent of external cues. These are gain of function, behave in a dominant fashion (only one allele needs to be mutated)

Answer 436

Mutation of genes that inhibit cell proliferation normally, loss of growth inhibition. Loss of function, behaving in a recessive fashion (requiring mutation of both alleles)

Answer 437

1.) self-sufficiency in growth signals 2.) insensitivity to growth inhibitory signals 3.) Altered cellular metabolism 4.) evasion of apoptosis 5.) Immortality, telomerase 6.) angiogenesis 7.) Invasion and metastasis 8.) avoiding host immune response 9.) Enabling of inflammation, prolong regeneration; more cellular division

Answer 438

Cancer cells show market activation of glycolysis, with less use of mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation— this helps create substrates for biosynthesis needed for growth and proliferation

Answer 439

Tumor and CTL binding at the TCR and peptide MHC leads to cytotoxic granules being released to kill the tumor if anti-PD1 and anti-PD1 ligand is available (The tumor can’t secondary bind to the CTL and inhibit it’s “not self” recognition)

Answer 440

Higher grades occur when the tumor lacks differentiation, have a high mitotic rate, and have more nuclear pleomorphism

Answer 441

Measuring the degree of localization or spread, TNM (Tumor, lymph nodes status, metastasis)

Exam 5 Flashcards

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