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exam :( Flashcards

1
Q

DNA
what is it?
what is it made of?

A

long sequence double-helix shape
sugar and phosphate form backbone
nitrogenous base pairs form the rungs

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2
Q

Genes
what is it/does it do?
what is it responsible for?

A

segment of dna, section of genetic code
1 gene can b a code 4 a particular trait or several genes may be needed in a combination
physical characteristics, behaviour or capability for disease

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3
Q

Chromosomes
what is it?
how many of each type in 1 cell?

A

condensed structure in which DNA is organized

cells have 2 types of each type of chromo (1 from mom, 1 from dad)

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4
Q

how many chromosomes or chromosome pairs do humans have in 1 cell?

A 
46 chromosomes (diploid)
23 homologous pairs of chromosomes (haploid)
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5
Q

how many pairs of chromosomes of each type do humans have ?

A

22 pairs of autosomes (bodily traits)

1 pair of sex chromosomes (code for gender)

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6
Q

what is a karyotype??

when does it take place?

A

picture chart
metaphase
genetic chart made up of homologuos pairs of chromo
made by staining cells

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7
Q

why does meiosis take place?

A

exchange of hereditary material (mixed and transferred)

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8
Q

23 is the number of what in the gametes?

A

haploid # of chromosomes

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9
Q

going into mitosis, how many pairs are there?

A

4n=92

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10
Q

what occurs in ONLY prophase I ???

A

crossing over btw homologous chromosomes

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11
Q

explain the events in metaphase I and II

A

random assortment of chromosomes in the middle of the cell

increase in genetic diversity

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12
Q

describe interphase

A

before meiosis
chromosomes have duplicated
chromatin begin to condense

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13
Q

in which stage of meiosis do the chromatin shorten to form chromosomes which then pair up to form tetrads and then genes cross over?

A

meiosis prophase I

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14
Q

in meiosis I what lines up and where do they do it? what happens after the lining up?

A

tetrads along middle of cell

spindle fibres attach to centromeres of chromosomes

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15
Q

the homologous chromosomes separate to where there are no more tetrads in which phase?
at this point what do the spindle fibres do?

A

anaphase I

move towards poles of cell

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16
Q

when cell begins to divide into 2 daughter cells it is which phase

A

telophase I and cytokinesis

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17
Q

in telophase and cytokinesis I, each daughter cell can get _____________

A

any combo of maternal and paternal chromosomes

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18
Q

once the first half of meiosis has taken place, the two cells are now (#)

A

diploid

2n=23

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19
Q

what is a sister chromatid?

A

duplicated chromosomes

2 sister chromatids

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20
Q

describe the events of anaphase II?

A

centromeres split

sister chromatids are now separated and move to opposite poles of cell

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21
Q

when is meiosis over?

A

telophase II and cytokinesis

formation of 4 cells

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22
Q

compared to a somatic cell, how many chromosomes does a germ cell carry?

A

half the number

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23
Q

Who is Mendel?

A

Gregor Mendel worked in a monastery
he tested genetic crossing on pea plants
complete dominance

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24
Q

what is a genotype?

A

genetic expression of a gene, genetic code

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25
Q

what is a phenotype?

A

PHYSICAL expression of a gene

depends on the combination of alleles

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26
Q

describe dominant phenotype

A

when 1 or both alleles are the dominant allele

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27
Q

describe recessive phenotype

A

only when BOTH alleles are recessive

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28
Q

homozygous is ……

A

2 copies of the same allele

AA or aa

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29
Q

heterozygous is……..

A

2 different copies of an allele (hybrid)

Aa

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30
Q

allele

A

one of two or more alternative forms of a gene that arise by mutation and are found at the same place on a chromosome

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31
Q

each gamete contains how many alleles of a gene for any given trait?

A

1

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32
Q

what is diploid?

what cells is it present?

A

2 complete sets of chromosomes
2n
somatic/body cells

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33
Q

what is haploid?

what cells is it present?

A

1 single set of chromosomes
n
gametes/sex cells

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34
Q

chromatin

A

unwound dna

found in interphase

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35
Q

what type of dna is used for macromolecule synthesis?

A

chromatin

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36
Q

dna

A

self-replicating material present in nearly all living organisms as the main constituent of chromosomes
carrier of genetic info

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37
Q

genes

A

segments of dna

sections of genetic code

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38
Q

homologous

A

chromosomes pairing during meiosis

having same structural features and pattern of genes

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39
Q

how many homologous pairs of chromosomes does a cell get from each parent?

A

23 from each

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40
Q

what is a chiasmata?

A

the point where the tetrads cross over

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41
Q

what goes on/what is interphase? (mitosis)

A

cell grows
duplicates dna
in btw stages of dividing

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42
Q

what stage does dna duplicate?

A

s phase of interphase

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43
Q

what takes place in g2 of interphase?

A

molecules check to make sure duplication has been done

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44
Q

prophase (mitosis)

A

dna recoils
chromosome condenses
nuclear membrane dissolves
chromosomes become visible

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45
Q

metaphase (mitosis)

A

chromosomes line up @ middle of cell w help of spindle fibres
sister chromatids

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46
Q

chromosomes split @ centromere
sister chromatids pulled by spindle fibres to opposite poles
which phase?

A

anaphase (mitosis)

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47
Q

when a cell splits in mitosis, the dna going to each new cell is __________

A

identical

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48
Q

chromosomes reach opposite poles
nuclear membrane forms around chromosomes
which phase?

A

telophase (mitosis)

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49
Q

what happens in cytokinesis?

A

rest of cell divides

cytoplasm, nuclei and all other organelles split

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50
Q

what made pea plants a good choice for Mendel?

A
  1. east to control parentage
  2. easily grown and matured quickly
  3. produced many seeds
  4. several easily identifiable contrasting triats
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51
Q

yellow seed colour is ________

green seed colour is ___________

A

dominant

recessive

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52
Q

the dominant pod shape is ________

the recessive is ________

A

inflated

wrinkled

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53
Q

if purple flowers are dominant, white flowers are

A

recessive

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54
Q

p generation

A

parental generation

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55
Q

f1 generation

A

1st filial (offspring) generation - children of the p generation

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56
Q

f2 generation

A

2nd fililal (offspring) generation (grandchildren)

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57
Q

Incomplete dominance

A

blended phenotype
when neither cell is completely dominant
(grey, pink)

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58
Q

Co-dominance

A

shared phenotype
2 alleles expressed @ the same time
black and white
roan

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59
Q

Multiple Allelism

A

when there are more than 2 possible alleles

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60
Q

example of multiple allelism

A

blood types

a, b, o, ab

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61
Q

A, B are ____________

O is ________________

A

dominant

recessive

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62
Q

multifactorial traits

A

large # of different phenotypes

traits whose genes are found @ many loci

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63
Q

example of multifactorial traits

A

height + hair colour

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64
Q

sex-linked traits

A

x chromo is longer contains more chromosomes than y

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65
Q

x-linked traits

A

since males only have 1 X they express the trait from the X no matter recessive
inherit from mom (dad give Y)

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66
Q

list examples of x linked traits

A

red-green coloured blindness
hemophilia
male-pattern baldness
muscular dystrophy

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67
Q

autosomal recessive inheritance

A 
skip generations (unaffected parents)
both parents must be heterozygous or homozygous recessive
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68
Q

autosomal dominant inheritance

A

every generation

must have affected parents

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69
Q

x-linked recessive inheritance

A

affected males may not have affected parents
if daughter is affected father must be affected
(no father to son)

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70
Q

mutation

A

change in gene that alters its function

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71
Q

factors causing mutation

A

radiation, abnormal temp, certain chemicals

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72
Q

mutations in gametes will affect _____ cell in new offspring

A

EVERY

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73
Q

congenital defects

A

clinical health problems visible @ birth

by genetic mutations or environmental agents

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74
Q

aneuploidy

A

1 extra or 1 less SINGLE chromosome (45 OR 47)

often lethal before birth

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75
Q

trisomy

A

1 extra chromosome

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76
Q

monosomy

A

1 less chromosome

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77
Q

down syndrome

A

extra copy of chromosome 21 (trisomy 21)

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78
Q

sickle cell anemia

A

blood disorder
autonomic recessive trait
RBCs carry less oxygen

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79
Q

cystic fibrosis

A 
autonomic recessive
excess mucus in lungs
gene therapy (transplanting normal genes)
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80
Q

nondisjunction

A

chromosomes failing to separate properly

causes aneuploidy

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81
Q

XXY

A

klinefelter syndrome

hermaphroditic

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82
Q

XYY

A

supermale

double testosterone

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83
Q

XO

A

turners syndrome

infertile, smaller, weaker (physically)

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84
Q

selective breeding

A

breed organisms w desirable traits

inbreeding

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85
Q

hybridization/outbreeding

A

2 parents each homozygous for a different desirable trait

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86
Q

recombinant dna

A

dna molecule that is formed when portions of dna from 2 different sources are combined together
new info causes cell to produce a specific protein (lots of it)

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87
Q

gene therapy

A

normal gene product given to affected individual

insert working copy of gene into virus

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88
Q

gene cloning

A

synthesizing multiple copies of a particular dna sequence using bacteria

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89
Q

cellular cloning

A

identical cells are derived from a single cell

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90
Q

nuclear cloning

A

cloning of whole organisms by transferring a complete nucleus

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91
Q

extinction

example

A

organism that no longer exists on earth

galapagos turtle

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92
Q

natural selection

A

the process by which organisms that better adapt themselves to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring

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93
Q

artificial selection

A

intentional reproduction of individuals in a pop that have desirable traits
opp to natural selection
removes variation in pop

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94
Q

endangered species

A

species at serious risk of becoming extinct

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95
Q

evolution

A

different kinds of living organisms are thought to have developped and diversified from earlier forms during the history of the earth

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96
Q

survival of the fittest

A

a natural process resulting in the evolution of organisms best adapted to the environnmnet have will most likely continue to reproduce and pass on their traits

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97
Q

phylogeny

A

evolutionary history of a kind of organism

evolution of a genetically related group of organisms as distinguished from the development of the individual organism

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98
Q

speciation

A

formation of new biological species by the development or branching of one species into 2 more genetically distinct ones

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99
Q

allopatric speciation

A

single species becomes GEOGRAPHICALLY SEPARATED, each group evolves new and distinctive traits

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100
Q

sympatric speciation

A

2 individual pops diverge from an ancestral species w/o being separated geographically

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101
Q

niche

A 
function or position of species w/in ecological communitu
honey bee gather nectar from flowers and makes honey
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102
Q

mutation

A

changing of structure of gene resulting in a different form of trait that can be passed down throu generations
helps pops change over time

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103
Q

environmental factors causing mutaiton

A

radiation
chemicals
byproducts of cellular metabolism
UV rays

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104
Q

adaption

A

trait is maintained and evolved by means of natural selection
modify phenotypes that permit them to succeed in environment

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105
Q

passive defence

A

defence due to the presence of structural component that is already present in the body
property of an animal that prevents an attack

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106
Q

mullerian mimicry

A

2 or more harmful/inedible species look v similar 2 avoid potential predators
means of protection

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107
Q

batesian mimicry

A

protective resemblance in appearance of a harmless species to a dangerous species
by imitating harmful species, can avoid predation

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108
Q

camouflage

A

protective colouring or another feature that conceals an animal and enables it to blend into surroundings
increases chance of survival
tool for hunting

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109
Q

active defence

A

defence in motion

venom stinger

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110
Q

competition

A

negative interaction btw organisms when 2 or more organisms share same limited resource

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111
Q

intra comp

A

comp within 1 species

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112
Q

inter comp

A

comp btw different species

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113
Q

resource partitioning

A

niche is divided or rationed by a species to avoid competition

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114
Q

disruptive selection

A

extreme traits valued, become more common

lead to creation of two new species

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115
Q

stabilizing selection

A

favours the average individuals in pop
against extr phenotypes
decreased diversity

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116
Q

directional selection

A

favours 1 extr pheno over the average or another extr

due to changes in weather climate food avail

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117
Q

what makes orange carrots more popular?

A

beta carotene makes taste sweeter

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118
Q

why are white clovers poisonous?

A

release hydrogen cyanide during cyanogenesis

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119
Q

Li codes for

A

linamarase, present in cell wall of cell

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120
Q

tiger sharks are moving ______ the food chain

A

down

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121
Q

what concepts are impacting tiger sharks??

A 
niche
bycatching
shark finning
inter comp
selective advantage (food)
sibling eating
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122
Q

why do ppl spread urine or fur over their gardens to get rid of bunnies?

A

makes bunnies think that one of their predators have claimed the space

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123
Q

who was buffon???

A

French naturalist and a count
Studied anatomy and focused on making connections btw structures and their functions
Noted anatomical structural similarities btw certain species (humans and apes)

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124
Q

what did buffon study/believe/learn etc??

A

Puzzled by structures that served no purpose (vestigial structures)
concluded some species must have originally been created in a more perfect form, but changed over time. (lost structures that once served a purpose)
suggested planet was actually much older.

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125
Q

what is a vestigial feature???

human examples

A

body part that no longer has a use/function

wisdom teeth, ear muscles, appendix, extra arm tendon, tailbone

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126
Q

who was cuvier?

A

French zoologist and naturalist, paleontologist
some layers had unique fossils that had no similar species in any other layer
some types of fossilized organisms seemed to disappear from the fossil record, while new types of organisms emerged.
fossils of simple organisms found in all layers, but more complex organisms are found only at shallower (more recent) rock layers.

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127
Q

what did cuvier study/believe/learn etc??

A

some types of fossilized organisms seemed to disappear from the fossil record, while new types of organisms emerged.
fossils of simple organisms found in all layers, but more complex organisms are found only at shallower (more recent) rock layers.
Organisms have become more complex over time

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128
Q

what is cuviers big word?
what does it mean?
is their proof this exists??

A

catastrophism
Earth experiences sudden, violent major catastrophic events that wipe out species in some areas. Then, these species are replaced by new ones.
catastrophic events seem to correspond to dates of fossil layers

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129
Q

who did cuvier work with?

A

Mary Anning

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130
Q

what was Annings big discovery?

A

Discovered first aquatic reptile, the plesiosaur

Added to the concept that really unique things exist in fossil records

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131
Q

lyell believes in

A

gradualism

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132
Q

explain gradualism

A

The Earth undergoes continuous changes.
Geological changes are slow and gradual, and these natural processes have not changed over time.
Everything all relies on each other
If one thing changes so does another

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133
Q

who is lyell? who is he/ his ideas against?

A

geologist
cuvier
catastrophism vs gradualism

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134
Q

Lamarck studied under

A

buffon

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135
Q

lamarck believes….

A

organisms adapt to their environment by changing their traits to be more helpful, then pass these traits on.
a progression, changes of the same species
Unused toes would shrink over time, giraffes necks would grow over time

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136
Q

lamarcks 2 principles are

A
  1. use or disuse

2. inheritance of acquired characteristics

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137
Q

explain use or disuse

A

Structures used by an organism become bigger, while those not used diminish and may disappear.

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138
Q

explain inheritance of acquired characteristics

A

characteristics acquired during an individual organism’s lifetime can be passed on to its offspring
(NOT TRUE)

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139
Q

who was Malthus? what were his views on evolution?

A

economist, prof of history and politics
“Population, when unchecked, increases in a geometrical ratio.” (will keep growing)
a pop produces more ppl than it can sustain

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140
Q

who was Wallace? what were his views on evolution?

A

Naturalist, explorer, biogeographer, anthropologist.

Formed idea of “natural selection” with Darwin on a boat

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141
Q

who influenced Darwin??

A

Lyell, Malthus, and Wallace.

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142
Q

who was darwin? what did he do??

A

naturalist + geologist
traveled around the world on the HMS Beagle survey ship for 5 years, studying plants and animals.
published book “On the Origin of Species” of his observations

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143
Q

explain descent w modification?

whose idea is it???

A

natural selection results from a species’ ability to survive local conditions at a specific time DOES NOT necessarily mean progress. (just means change)
DARWIN

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144
Q

what is the 1st of 4 of the principles to Darwin’s theory of N.S.??? who inspired it??

A

organisms produce more offspring than can sustain, compete for limited # of resources
MALTHUS

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145
Q

what is the 2nd of 4 of the principles to Darwin’s theory of N.S.???

A

Individuals of a population vary extensively, and much of this variation is heritable.

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146
Q

what is the 3rd of 4 of the principles to Darwin’s theory of N.S. ???

A

Individuals that are better suited to local conditions survive to produce more offspring (which would have their traits etc.)

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147
Q

what is the 4th of 4 of the principles to Darwin’s theory of N.S.??? who inspired it??

A

Processes for change are slow and gradual

LYELL

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148
Q

who coined the term survival of the fittest?

A

spencer

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149
Q

explain genetic drift

A

changes in allele frequency in a population, that brings about a reduction in genetic diversity
due to drift becomes a new species as it is v different from others

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150
Q

who is Mayr? what did he do??

A

ornithologist (BIRDS), taxonomist, explorer and evol. biologist
Species are not just morphologically similar, but are able to successfully breed amongst themselves and not others

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151
Q

what lane are GOULD and ELDREDGE in????

who were they influenced by?

A

THE FAST LANE

mayr

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152
Q

who are GOULD and ELDREDGE? what did they do??

A

AMERICAN PALEONTOLOGIST AND EVOL. BIOLOGISTS

RAPID EVOLUTION OFTEN OCCURS IN SMALL, ISOLATED POPULATIONS OR WHEN MIGRATION OCCURS

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153
Q

what term did GOULD and ELDREDGE create/coin?

what does it mean?

A

punctuated equilibrium
Evolution occurs as relatively rapid bursts of significant change that interrupt long periods of stasis/no change (CHANGE OR DIE)
Species result from these sudden changes, and additional changes to the species may be slow, after the initial burst.

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154
Q

what is the founder effect???

A

occurs when a new colony is started by a few members of the original population. This small population size means that the colony may have:
reduced genetic variation from the original population.
a non-random sample of the genes in the original population.

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155
Q

what is the bottleneck effect???

A

Bottleneck Effect:
This occurs when a population’s size decreases for at least one generation which can result in low genetic variation
Can than return to it’s regular population size

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156
Q

As a result of low ________ _________, the species may not be capable of adapting to new ____________ such as climate change or shift in resources

A

genetic variation

environment

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157
Q

co-evolution

A

two or more species that reciprocally affect each other’s evolution

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158
Q

explain the evolutionary arm’s race

A

competing sets of co-evolving genes, traits, or species, that develop adaptations and counter-adaptations against each other
develop new traits in order to not get caught/eaten by predators and in the same time the predators develop new traits that would help them hunt better.

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159
Q

biotechnology

A

processes to develop technologies and products that help improve our lives and the health of our planet by the use of other living systems and organisms

combat debilitating and rare diseases, reduce our environmental footprint, feed the hungry, genetic manipulation of microorganisms for the production of antibiotics, hormones

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160
Q

antibiotic resistance

A

antibiotic has lost its ability to effectively control or kill bacterial growth; the bacteria are “resistant”

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161
Q

what makes bacteria become resistant?

A

antibiotic is used, bacteria that can resist that antibiotic have greater chance of survival

Susceptible bacteria are killed or inhibited by an antibiotic, resulting in a survival of resistant of bacteria

w/o human action: bacteria produce and use antibiotics against other bacteria, leading to a low-level of natural selection for resistance to antibiotics

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162
Q

what is a structural adaptation??

A

affects a certain part or specific feature of organisms body

ex. opposable thumbs, rattle on snakes

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163
Q

what is a behavioural adaptation??

A

affect the way an organism acts

ex. hunting strategies, migration, hibernation

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164
Q

what is a physiological adaptation??

A

permit organism to perform special functions

ex. producing slime or poisonous venom

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165
Q

selective advantage

A

genetic advantage of 1 organism over its competitors that causes it to be favoured in survival and reproductive rates over time

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166
Q

example of phylum porifera

A

sponges

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167
Q

body symmetry: porifera

A

asymmetrical

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168
Q

distinguishing features of p. porifera (8ish)

A

Invertebrate
No mouth, digestive cavity, nervous system, muscles
Flagellated cells line a central cavity (hollow tubes)
Absorbs water through ostia pores (tiny)
Expels water through oscula pores (larger)
Filter feeders
Sessile
Aquatic

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169
Q

type of reproduction: p. porifera

A

Reproduce Sexually- many are hermaphrodites, prefer to reproduce w sperm and eggs
Reproduce Asexually-
Using budding, only under less favourable/stressful conditions

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170
Q

examples of p. cnidaria

A

Jellyfish, sea anemones and corals

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171
Q

body symmetry: p. cnidaria

A

Radially symmetrical

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172
Q

distinguishing features of p. cnidaria (3)

A

Invertebrate
Cells organized into tissues (nematocysts are stinging cells within tentacles)
Mouth/anuses lead to gastrovascular cavity (circulation, digestion, respiration)

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173
Q

type of reproduction: p. cnidaria

A

Alternate between:
Asexual sessile polyps

Sexual free-swimming medusa’s

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174
Q

p. playhelminthes includes class _____

A

cestoda

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175
Q

example of c. cestoda

A

flat worm

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176
Q

body symmetry: c. cestoda

A

Laterally Symmetrical

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177
Q

distinguishing features of c. cestoda (9ish)

A 
Flattened
No coelom
No circulatory or respiratory system
Digestive cavity w one opening
Parasitic
Aquatic
Mouth anus 
Invertebrates
Cephalization
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178
Q

type of reproduction c. cestoda

A

Hermaphroditic - both have male and female parts

Heads point in opposite directions, sperm is traded and stored

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179
Q

examples of p. nematoda

A

round worms, tapeworms

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180
Q

body symmetry p. nematoda

A

Laterally Symmetrical

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181
Q

distinguishing features of p. nematoda (6)

A 
Round
Pseudocoelom
Complete digestive tract
No circulatory or respiratory system.
Mostly parasitic.
Aquatic mostly
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182
Q

type of reproduction p. nematoda

A

Hermaphroditic - both have male and female parts

Heads point in opposite directions, sperm is traded and stored

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183
Q

examples of p. annelida

A

earthworms, leeches

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184
Q

body symmetry p. annelida

A

Laterally Symmetrical

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185
Q

distinguishing features of p. annelida (5)

A 
Segmented bodies
Coelom
Circulatory system
Gas exchange through skin or gills
Setae on each segment
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186
Q

type of reproduction p. annelida

A

Hermaphroditic - both have male and female parts

Heads point in opposite directions, sperm is traded and stored

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187
Q

examples of p. echinodermata

A

sea stars, sea urchins, sand dollars and sea cucumbers

188
Q

body symmetry p. echinodermata

A

Radially symmetrical as adults

Bilaterally symmetrical as larvae

189
Q

distinguishing features of p. echinodermata (5)

A 
Complete digestive system
Simple circulatory and nervous system
No respiratory or excretory system
No head (cephalization)
Calcified endoskeleton
190
Q

reproduction p. echinodermata

A

asexual rep

191
Q

characteristics of p. mollusca

A 
Soft-bodied, muscular.
Coelom.
Two body openings.
Bilateral symmetry
Most have a shell.
Foot for locomotion
Mantle wraps around body and secretes shell
Visceral mass w internal organs
Radula is mouth
Breathes through lungs
Gonads are sexual parts
Complete digestive and circulatory systems
192
Q

what are the 3 classes under p. mollusca?

A

gastropoda
bivalvia
cephalapoda

193
Q

examples c. bivalvia

A

Clams, oysters, scallops, mussels

194
Q

symmetry c. bivalvia

A

Bilaterally symmetrical

195
Q

distinguishing features of c. bivalvia

A

Hinge connects 2 shells
Primarily sessile, foot for locomotion
No head
Filter feeders

196
Q

reproduction c. bivalvia

A

sexual

197
Q

examples c. gastropoda

A

snails

slugs

198
Q

symmetry c. gastropoda

A

bilat. sym

199
Q

distinguishing features of c. gastropoda (4)

A

Foot for locomotion
Respiration through gills and moist skin, might have a simple lung
Spiral shells

200
Q

reproduction c. gastropoda

A

sexual

201
Q

examples c. cephalapoda

A

octupi, squids, cuttlefish

202
Q

symmetry c. cephalapoda

A

Radially symmetrical

203
Q

distinguishing features of c. cephalapoda (7ish)

A 
Shell reduced to an internal rod
CLOSED circulatory system
Tentacles w suckers and muscular foot 4 locomotion
V good brains
Move via jet propulsion
Camouflage v effectively (match by eyes)
Beak under legs
204
Q

reproduction c. cephalapoda

A

Sexual reproduction

Scoops sperm 2 put in female

205
Q

p. arthropoda characteristics (6)

A 
Segmented bodies.
Bilaterally symmetrical.
Invertebrates with a coelom.
Exoskeleton (composed of chitin): Protection, Resists desiccation.
Jointed appendages.
Reproduce sexually
206
Q

3 classes under p. arthropoda are

A

crustacea
insecta
arachnida

207
Q

c. arachnida examples

A

Scorpions, spiders, mice, ticks

208
Q

distinguishing featrures c. arachnida (4)

A

2 body segments- cephalothorax and head
6 pairs of appendages: first 2 to sense or feed, last 4 to walk
No antennae
Open circulatory system

209
Q

examples c. crustacea

A

lobsters, crabs, shrimp, crayfish

210
Q

distinguishing features c.crustacea

A

Usually 3 body segments (head, thorax, abdomen), sometimes 2 (if head and thorax are fused)- non- cephalized
2 pairs of antennae

211
Q

examples c. insecta

A

Ants, flies, beetles, fleas, lice, grasshoppers

212
Q

dist. features c. insecta (8ish)

A

3 body segments (head, thorax, abdomen)
1 pair of antennae on head
3 pairs of walking legs on thorax
Often 2 pairs of wings (not always)

If they have wings- 2 pairs attached to thorax
Flies have 1 pair!
Beetles- front wings from hardened wing covers.

213
Q

what is the superclass under phylum chordata?

A

agnatha (no jaws)

214
Q

example s. agnatha

A

lampreys

215
Q

dist features s. agnatha

A

Cartilaginous skeleton and contains Notochord
No jaws, paired fins, appendages
Parasites on fish
Gas exchange via gill slits

216
Q

examples c. Chondrichthyes

A

Sharks, rays and skates

217
Q

dist features c. Chondrichthyes (7ish)

A 
Cartilaginous endoskeleton
Ectothermic
Thick fins
Teeth not fused to jaw
Skin covered in denticles, rough and spiny
5-7 pairs of gill slits
2 chambered heart
218
Q

reproduction c. Chondrichthyes

A

Sexual Reproduction:
Males are ovoviviparous w anterior testes and pelvic claspers
Females have cloaca (sperm-receiving chamber)

219
Q

examples c. Osteichthyes

A

Bass, pike, salmon

220
Q

dist features c. Osteichthyes (7ish)

A 
Bony endoskeleton
Ectothermic
Thin, membranous fins
Smooth scales cover body (modified skin cells)
Swim bladders (sac filled w air)
2 chambered hearts
4-5 pairs of gill slits
221
Q

reproduction c. Osteichthyes

A

Sexual reproduction:

Oviparous (lay eggs)

222
Q

examples c. amphibia

A

frogs, salamanders, toads

223
Q

symmetry c. amphibia

A

tetrapod

224
Q

dist. features c. amphibia (6)

A 
Aquatic larval stage w gills
Terrestrial adults are tetrapods
Ectothermic
Respiration via lungs/ and or skin
3 chambered heart
Specialized skin cells secrete mucus or poison 4 defense
225
Q

reproduction c. amphibia

A

Sexual reproduction:
Oviparous (lay eggs)
Males grasp females to release or deposit sperm into cloaca
Eggs must be kept moist

226
Q

examples c. reptilia

A

turtles, snakes, lizards

227
Q

symmetry c. reptilia

A

tetrapod

228
Q

dist feautres c. reptilia (6)

A

NO larval stage
Mostly terrestrial tetrapods w dry scaly skin, thick hardened skin to prevent from drying out (modified skin cells)
Ectothermic
3 chambered heart
Kidneys excrete concentrated urine to conserve water

229
Q

reproduction c. reptilia

A

Sexual Reproduction:

Amniotic eggs w soft shells (waterproof)

230
Q

examples c. aves

A

birds

231
Q

symmetry c. aves

A

tetrapod

232
Q

dist features c. aves (8ish)

A 
Covered in feathers
Forelimbs modified as wings
Capable of flight
Hollow bones
Lungs w air sacs attached provide buoyancy
4 chambered
Down feathers for insulation, Contour feathers for flight (specialized skin structures for flight, evolved from scales)
Endothermic
233
Q

reproduction c. aves

A

sexual

Oviparous (lay eggs)

234
Q

c. mammalia examples

A

humans, pigs, deer

235
Q

c. mammalia symm

A

tetrapods

236
Q

dist features c. mammalia

A

Mammary glands for nursing young (fatty deposits) and a uterus (female)
Endothermic
Specialized teeth and eyes to where they live, what they eat
4 chambered heart

237
Q

reproduction c. mammalia

A

Sexual Reproduction:
Oviparous (lay eggs)
Or
Viviparous (live birth)

238
Q

c. mammalia

describe MONOTREMES

A

Spiny anteater, platypus

Lays eggs

239
Q

c. mammalia

describe MARSUPIALS

A

Kangaroo, opossum, koala
Pouched mammals
Born early, crawl through belly to marsupial
Viviparous

240
Q

c. mammalia

describe PLACENTALS

A

Humans!!!!
Offspring develop in uterus
More developed than marsupials @ birth
Most common form of mammals

241
Q

characteristics kingdom plantae

A 
Eukaryotic
Multicellular
Photosynthetic
Cell walls contain cellulose
Develop embryos protected by parental tissue
242
Q

k. plantae class divsions

A

tracheophyte

bryophyte

243
Q

bryophyte describe

A 
Mosses, liverworts, hornworts
Low to ground
Non-vascular 
Sexual reproduction: spores
Asexual reproduction: vegetative propagation
moist environments
244
Q

tracheophyte: gymno describe

A 
Club, mosses, horsetails
tall
vascular
Conducting tissue (xylem and phloem), 
grow in marshes and along edges of streams and in shady, wet, environments
245
Q

tracheophyte: angio describe

A

tall
vascular
Conducting tissue (xylem and phloem)
Specialized leaves, stems, roots

246
Q

reproduction gymno

A 
Pollen cones (males)
Seed cones (females)
Pollen dispersed by wind.
Pollen produces sperm when contact is made w seed cone.
Sperm fertilizes ovules.
zygote grow into seeds
247
Q

reproduction angio

A

Ovum is fertilized by sperm from pollen
Seeds enclosed in fruit, must be released in order to germinate
Zygote develops into an embryo contained in a seed.
Flowering plants.
Well-protected seeds, good variety of seed dispersal mechanisms.
Can self-pollinate or cross-pollinate.

248
Q

all bacteria are (3)

A

Prokaryotic cells (primitive, single cell or colony, no nucleus or membrane bound organelles)
Microscopic
Reproduce v quickly, cloning themselves (binary fission, asexual)

249
Q

archaebacteria

A

Live in extreme environments (deep sea, low pH, salty etc)
Do not contain peptidoglycan
Gram negative, due to no peptidoglycan, stain pink
Usually anaerobes

250
Q

eubacteria

A

Live in more common environments (soil, organisms)
Contain peptidoglycan (protein in cell wall)
Gram positive, stain purple
Can be anaerobes or aerobes

251
Q

aerobe: _____ ________

A

Needs oxygen

252
Q

Anaerobe

2 things:

A

Does not need oxygen

Could die if exposed to oxygen

253
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

does/does not need oxygen

Will use if present

254
Q

explain binary fission

A

Asexual reproduction
Rapid replication
Increased mutations
Clone themselves- get big, duplicate DNA, split into 2 (similar to mitosis)
Occurs when environmental conditions are stable (when unstable, prefer sexual reproduction- stick together and exchange plasmids)

255
Q

why are viruses not organisms??

A

do not grow
Not cells
Do not perform cellular respiration or metabolise energy
Alter hosts DNA

256
Q

explain the lytic cycle

A

Virus attaches to host and dissolves host cell wall/membrane to inject DNA
Host cells DNA is destroyed and viral DNA takes over
Produces viral DNA and capsid proteins
Assembles new viruses
Viral lytic enzyme breaks open the cell wall (cell lysis)
End result: cell lysis (breaking down) after 1 generation of host activity (rapid destruction)
Viral symptoms occur immediately

257
Q

explain the lysonogenic cyle

A

Virus attaches to host and dissolves host cell wall/membrane to inject DNA
Viral Dna becomes part of host’s DNA (recombinant DNA)
As host DNA replicates, so does the viral DNA….. occurs 4 many generations
This lysogenic cycle keeps viral DNA inactive/dormant.
End result: when conditions are right, viral DNA is activated and it enters the lytic cycle.
viral symptoms are delayed

258
Q

Endosymbiotic Theory

A

A bacterium was originally engulfed by another bacterium and they lived together. This formed the early cells, eukaryotic cells.

259
Q

describe protists

A 
Eukaryotic
Live in moist/wet habitats
Most diverse
Can be parasites
Classification based on nutrition 
Animal-like,  just have a cell membrane
Plant-like 
Fungus-like
260
Q

describe animal like protist

A 
heterotrophic unicellular (exist alone)
Lack cell wall

Amoeba: Single-celled, no structure (constantly changing), Use pseudopods to move and assist w feeding, Feed in endocytosis

Paramecium: Single-celled, Cilia for movement, sweeps food into groove and into vacuole for digestion, Waste leaves via anal pore, Long length with twist

261
Q

describe plant like protist

A 
Contain chlorophyll (green pigment) in chloroplasts
Photosynthetic, euglena and green algae

Euglena: Unicellular, freshwater organisms, Flagella, tail used for movement, Auto and heterotrophic, Light-sensitive structure (eye spot), Almost a cell wall but not quite

262
Q

describe kingdom fungi

A 
Eukaryotic
Primarily multicellular
Heterotrophic (saprobes)
Cell wall contains chitin
Body of multicellular fungi composed of hyphae
Sexual and asexual reproduction
263
Q

an example of division ________________ is bread mold

A

Zygomycota

(Case like)

264
Q

Zygomycota
(Case like)
describe

A

Spores in a case like structure (sporangium)

265
Q

Zygomycota reproduction

A

Asexual reproduction: Hyphae extends along surface and into food (absorb nutrients and food)
Black sporangia form (each contains thousands of spores, dispersed via wind)
Sexual reproduction: Less favourable conditions
2 genetically different hyphae are produced (upon contact zygospore forms, remains dormant until better conditions)

266
Q

Mildews, penicillin, some moulds and yeasts are an example of division ______________

A

Ascomycota

Sac-like

267
Q

Ascomycota
(Sac-like)
describe

A

Spores in a sac like structure (ascus)

268
Q

Ascomycota reproduction

A

Yeasts
Asexual Reproduction
Favourable conditions
Rapidly via budding

Sexual reproduction
Less favourable conditions
Forms ascospores
Remains dormant until conditions improve

269
Q 
Mushrooms
Rusts
Puffballs
Bracket fungi
gilled mushrooms example of division \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Basidiomycota

club-like fungi

270
Q

Basidiomycota describe

A

Spores in a club like structure (basidium)

271
Q

Basidiomycota reproduce

A

no known sexual phases

272
Q

where is the gallbladder located??

A

behind the liver

273
Q

what do parotid glands secrete??? what does it contain??

purpose??

A

watery fluid containing salivary amylase

breaks down starch

274
Q

what do the sublingual gland and the submandibular glands do??? (in the mouth)

A

produce slippery mucus to help swallow food bolus

275
Q

what does the liver produce and what does it do??

A

bile

break down fat

276
Q

what does the bile from the liver contain??

A

bile salts, bile acids, water, cholesterol, phospholipids, fatty acids

277
Q

what does the liver do???

A 
filters blood (extracts toxins and prepares nutrients for circulation)
stores glucose as glycogen (regulates metabolism)
278
Q

what does the gallbladder do??? (generally)

A

receives, stores and concentrates bile from liver

279
Q

when fat enters the _____________, what hormone is released???

A

duodenum

CCK

280
Q

what does the CCK signal??

A

signals gallbladder to secrete bile to duodenum to digest fats

281
Q

function of the pancreas??

A

secrete enzymes and hormones

282
Q

the acidity of __________ entering _______ intestine from stomach signals duodenum to secrete hormone ______

A

chyme
small
secretin

283
Q

secretin stimulates _________ to release _________ _____________ which neutralizes _________ ___________ to make it basic

A

pancreas to release sodium bicarbonate
chyme
small intestine

284
Q

why does pepsin become inactive??

A

to allow other chemical digestion to occur

285
Q

list pancreatic digestive enzymes that work best at high pH and their purpose

A

lipases (breaks down fats)
proteases (breaks down proteins)
carbohydrases (breaks down carbohydrates)

286
Q

which hormones secreted by _______ regulate blood sugar????

A

pancreas
insulin
glucagon

287
Q

explain the negative feedback loop for homeostasis

A

normal blood sugar (4-6 mol/L) increases, so body releases insulin, uptake of glucose from blood into cells

normal blood sugar is decreased, pancreas releases glucagon which causes liver to release glucose into blood stream

288
Q

list the 4 steps to nutrient intake

A
  1. Ingestion
  2. Digestion
  3. Absorption
  4. Elimination
289
Q

what is the purpose of digestion????

A

prepares food for absorption

mechanical and chemical breakdown of food

290
Q

which organ is the site of absorption ??

A

small intest

291
Q

where does chemical digestion take place??

A

mouth
stomach
small intestine

292
Q

what is released during chem. digestion and what is their purpose??

A

HCl, enzymes (amylase) to break down complex molecules

293
Q

BOLUS of food forms and passes through ________ into _________

A

pharynx

esophagus

294
Q

what prevents food from entering the trachea??

A

epiglottis

295
Q

what is the muscular tube that connects pharynx to the stomach??

A

esophagus

296
Q

________ ___________ prevents food in stomach from going back into esophagus

A

cardiac shincter

297
Q

what does the stomach do to food?

A

churns and squeezes food

reservoir for food

298
Q

the sphincter btw stomach and small intestine

A

pyloric

299
Q

purpose of HCl during digestion

A

destroys microbes and breaks down food

300
Q

______ is used to digest protein, only active @ low pH

A

pepsin

301
Q

_____% of absorption occurs in ______ intestine

A

small

302
Q

purpose of villi and microvilli

A

increase surface area

maximize absorption of nutrients

303
Q

duodenum

A

first section of small intestine
receives pancreatic secretions
basic pH

304
Q

name of 2 other sections of small intestine

A

jejunum

ileum

305
Q

4 sections of large intestine

A

caecum
colon
rectum
anus

306
Q

main function of large intestine

A

reabsorb water
bacteria produce vitamins which are absorbed
unabsorbed material into feces

307
Q

crohns disease

A

chronic inflammatory bowel disease
intestines
hereditary, bacterial or viral infection
no cure

308
Q

symptoms of crohns

A 
ab. pain
intestinal bleeding
diarrhea
nausea and vomiting 
loss o appetite
weight loss
fever
309
Q

definition of respirtation

A

exchange of oxygen and CO2 btw an organism and its external environment

310
Q

list the 4 components of respiration

A

ventilation
external respiration
internal respiration
cellular respiration

311
Q

what happens in inhalation

A

O2 is taken from the external environment

312
Q

what happens in exhalation

A

CO2 is removed from internal environment

313
Q

lungs are part of the _________ respiration system

A

external

314
Q

gas exchange btw alveoli and blood vessels takes place in _____________ ________________

A

external respiration

315
Q

the alveoli are ________ to allow for diffusion

why?????

A

moist
moist barrier helps gases travel across
moisture comes from mucus from lung tissue (epithelial skin tissue)

316
Q

in _________ respiration, O2 diffuses into the ___________ and ____ diffuses out to the alveoli

A

external
capillaries
CO2

317
Q

what parts does internal respiration involve???

A

bloodstream
cells
organs (other than the lungs)

318
Q

gas exchange btw the blood and the body cells

A

internal resp

319
Q

O2 diffuses ____ of blood and _____ diffuses in

what type of respiration?

A

out
CO2
internal

320
Q

where does cellular respiration take place

A

mitochondria

321
Q

what chemical breaks down in the presence of oxygen???

what does this chemical allow the cell to do???

A

glucose

produce ATP

322
Q

what is the function of the nasal and oral cavities???

A

take in air
warm and moisten
filter (nasal)

323
Q

what warms, filters and moistens air when inhaled?

A

capillaries, cilia, mucus

324
Q

describe the pharynx

A

common path 4 air and food

branches into trachea (resp.) and esophagus (circ)

325
Q

helps swallow
vocal cords for sound production, breathing
outside is cartilage
what body part??

A

larynx

326
Q

another word 4 this is windpipe

describe

A

trachea
connects pharynx 2 lungs
rings of cartilage protect from collapsing
divides into bronchus on each side

327
Q

what do the bronchioles end in?

A

alveolar sac

328
Q

describe the diaphragm

A

MUSCLE that lets us breathe (voluntary, skeletal)
large, dome shaped
form of protection
necessary for breathing

329
Q

where would u find the diaphragm?

A

under ribs

separating thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity

330
Q

describe the physiology of inhalation

A

diaph contracts
ribs move up and out
chest cavity ENLARGENS
pressure DECREASES

331
Q

describe the physiology of exhalation

A

diaph relaxes
ribs compress
chest cavity gets SMALLER
pressure INCREASES

332
Q

what detects change in blood pH

A

chemoreceptors

333
Q

a drop in pH causes _________ __________ to stimulate _________ (respiratory)

A

medulla oblongata

breathing

334
Q

what is your tidal volume

A

amount of air inhaled and exhaled in a normal breath

335
Q

amount of air that can be inhaled AFTER a normal inhalation

A

inspiratory reserve volume

336
Q

expiratory reserve volume

A

amount of air that can be FORCEFULLY EXHALED aft a normal exhalation

337
Q

max amount of air that can be exhaled

A

vital capacity

338
Q

VC=

A

TV+IRV+ERV

339
Q

residual volume

A

amount of air remaining in lungs aft FORCEFUL EXHALATION

340
Q

asthma

A

smooth muscle that lines airways contracts
allergies, genetics, colds, exersize
inhalers that have bronchodilators and steroids

341
Q

what is bronchitis

symptoms

A

inflamed bronchial lining and excessive mucous production

persistent cough, phlegm, discomfort breathing

342
Q

pneumonia

symptoms

A

bronchitis can become pneumonia
alveoli and terminal bronchioles become filled w mucous (may never drain)
difficulty breathing, chest pain, discoloured mucous/plegm

343
Q

COPD

causes

A 
chronic bronchitis and emphysema 
smoking
2hand smoke
genetics
pollution
lung infections
344
Q

COPD

symptoms

A 
shortness o breath
coughing mucus 
fatigue
chest infections 
overworked heart
ruptured alveoli
345
Q

TB

symptoms

A

severe bacterial infection
infects lungs, brain, spine, bones, joints
chronic cough, coughing up fluids/blood, fever, loss o appetite, weight loss, night sweats

346
Q

key roles of circulatory system are……

A 
maintain homeostasis (body conditions- temp and bp)
delivers and removes substances throughout body
347
Q

what does the cardiovascular system deliver??

A

nutrients
O2
hormones
toxins

348
Q

what does the cardiovascular system remove??

A

metabolic waste
CO2
toxins

349
Q

rbcs contain a ___________ molecule that make up iron

A

hemoglobin

350
Q

describe hemoglobin

A

complex protein made up of 4 chains

the iron in the chains make up red colour

351
Q

anemia

A

ess than normal amount of hemoglobin in blood

which means less O2 delivered

352
Q

describe WBCs

A 
amoeboid shape (globs)
nucleus and lysosomes (digestive enzymes to breakdown waste)
part of immune system
353
Q

describe platelets

A

fragments of special cells from bone marrow
circulatory system repair
form clots
detect damaged vessels
burst + release adhesive chemical to “stick together” and clot

354
Q

what is an artery??

describe 2

A 
thick walled vessel 
ALWAYS carry blood AWAY from heart 
transports blood under pressure
v thick walls
small diameter
355
Q

a thin-walled vessel

always carries blood toward heart

A

VEIN

356
Q

arteries->_________->capillaries->__________->veins

A

arterioles

venules

357
Q

describe vein

A 
has valves 
a thin-walled vessel
always carries blood toward heart
wide diameter
work against gravity
low pressure
358
Q

describe capillaries

A

most narrow vessel
cells travel single file
v slow
distribute heat

359
Q

what protects the heart?

A

sternum
spine
ribs

360
Q

what side of the heart is the pulmonary circuit???

A

right side (going to lungs)

361
Q

which circuit was a low pressure system???

A

pulmonary

362
Q

what side of the heart is the systemic circuit???

A

left side

363
Q

which circuit was a high pressure system???

A

systemic

364
Q

the right atrium receives oxygen-________ blood from the_______ and the _______ ________ _________

A

poor

superior and inferior vena cava

365
Q

blood enters the ______ atrium and flows through the tricuspid valve

A

right

366
Q

after the tricuspid valve, the blood passes through the _________ ______-___________ valve and then enters the _________ trunk.
this then divides into the left and right ________ arteries

A

pulmonary semi-lunar valve
pulmonary trunk
pulmonary

367
Q

where does gas exchange in pulmonary arteries occur?

A

when they divide into capillaries at the lungs

368
Q

blood from the lung capillaries travels to the left and right ___________ ________
this then returns to the ________ atrium

A

pulmonary veins

left atrium

369
Q

when blood leaves the left atrium where does it go ????

A

bicuspid valve then to the left ventricle

370
Q

why is the muscle thicker around the left side of the heart???

A

pumps blood to entire body not just lungs

371
Q

after the left ventricle, blood travels through to the

A

aortic semi-lunar valve, then the aorta

372
Q

the aorta branches into smaller __________ ____________, which then branch into ____________ and capillaries

A

systemic arteries
arterioles
capillaries

373
Q

capillaries rejoin as __________ then veins

A

venules

374
Q

the coronary circulation delivers blood directly to ……..

A

heart muscle

375
Q

what is the sinoatrial node

A

pace maker
right atrium
collection of nerves that all go to 1 place
maintain hearts intrinsic pumping rhythym

376
Q

signal from pacemaker travels to ________________ ________, then to the ventricles via the _________ ________ and ________ of His

A

atrioventricular node
purkinje fibers
Bundle

377
Q

why is the signal delayed @ the atrioventricular node?

A

the atria contract simultaneously before the ventricles

378
Q

systole

A

heart contraction to further fill ventricles -> force blood from the heart, HBP
tricuspid+bicuspid valves forced go close

379
Q

diastole

A

heart relaxation, LBP, blood enter all 4 chambers,

tri and bi valves open, blood flows to ventricles

380
Q

blood pressure

A

pressure exerted on arterial walls,

highest in aorta

381
Q

hypertension

A

high blood pressure (bp stays above 140/90)

improve nutrition, exersize, meds (vasodilators widen vessels or diuretics increase peeing)

382
Q

hypotension

A

LBP, bp stays below 90/60

383
Q

atherosclerosis

A

build up of plaque in arteries
stops blood flow
reduces O2 and nutrients
can form clots

384
Q

heart attack
symptoms
risk factors

A

clot completely blocks coronary artery
fatigue, dizziness, indigestion
age, smoking, diet, obesity, exercise, genetics, diabetes, stress

385
Q

hemorrhagic stroke

A

vessel bursts due to HP, internal bleeding in brain

386
Q

ischemic

A

clot in vessel prevents supply, brain tissue dies

387
Q

coronary artery disease

A

plaque build up in arteries

shortness of breath
angina

diagnose by ECG, echo, x ray, blood tests
classic cardiac treatments

388
Q

leukemia

A

abnormal wbc production

swollen, pain-free nodes, easy bleeding and bruising, fevers/night sweats, infections, fatigue, weight loss

physical exam, blood test, bone marrow biopsy

marrow trans, chemo, radiation, stem cells

389
Q

functions of a root system

A

Anchors
Absorption
Transportation
storage

390
Q

structure of a root system

A

Xylem - water and minerals to roots and leaves, vascular tissue, going upwards from root
Phloem - sugars from leaves to roots, going downwards to roots from leaves after photosynthesis to store sugars

391
Q

function of a shoot system

A

Support leaves
Grows toward light
Transports substances btw roots and leaves

392
Q

describe herbaceous monocot

A

Vascular Bundles are scattered throughout the stem, ex: Corn

393
Q

what are the 2 kinds of structures of a shoot system??

A

woody

herbaceous

394
Q

describe herbaceous dicot

A

Vascular Bundles are in a ring

Thin layer of tissue called the vascular cambium in between xylem and phloem, ex: Hollow Stem (Buttercup)

395
Q

woody stems contain

A

vascular cambium, sapwood, heartwood, resin/oils, cork/bark, outer ring

396
Q

describe vascular cambium

A

continuous cylinder of meristematic cells surrounding xylem and pith
produces 2ndary xylem and phloem (annually)
jams indiv vascular bundles together

397
Q

function of leaves

A

photosynthesis - use CO2, produes O2 and glucose
provides food and O2
use up CO2

398
Q

structure of leaves is designed to

A

capture maximum light and minimize water loss

399
Q

describe cuticle

A

waterproof surface of epidermis

waxy shiny appearance

400
Q

describe epidermis

A

dermal tissue

skin of leaf

401
Q

describe palisade layer

A

mesophyll
ground tissue
where photosynthesis takes place
green

402
Q

describe spongy mesophyll

A

more spaced out mesophyll

403
Q

describe vascular bundles

A

veins, xylem and phloem

each vein extends across leaf and contains x n p

404
Q

describe chlorophyll

A

plastids

colour pigment

405
Q

describe stoma and guard cells

A

when skin cells swell, stoma closes to store water

406
Q

a seed is made up of

A

seed coat
embryo
endosperm

407
Q

describe monocot

A 
1 cot
parallel veins
VBs arranged complexly
FIBROUS root system
floral parts in multiples of 3
408
Q

describe dicot

A 
2 cots
net like veins
VBs arranged in a ring
taproot system
floral parts in multiples of 4 or 5
409
Q

4 types of tissues

A

vascular
ground
meristematic
protective

410
Q

vascular tissue consists of

A

xylem
phloem
vessel elements
tracheids

411
Q

explain vessel element

A

made of dead cells
straws connected end to end (perfora) and side by side (pit)
only in angiosperms

412
Q

explain tracheid

A

smaller version of vessel elements

gymnos only have these, some angiosperms

413
Q

explain phloem in vascular tissue

A

sieve tube, interconnected w perforations
no nuclei
companion cells
ACTIVELY transports sugars into and out of sieve tubes

414
Q

describe parenchyma

A 
alive and thin celled
most abundant
for support
stores food and water
photosynthetic
skin
415
Q

describe collenchyma

A

alive and thick celled
rigid vers of parenchyma
structural support
where rapid growth (mitosis) occurs

416
Q

describe sclerenchyma

A

dead and thick celled
dead parenchyma
structural support

417
Q

describe meristematic primary growth

A

takes place in apical meristem found @ tips of roots, stems, leaves
vertical

418
Q

describe meristematic secondary growth

A

lateral
vascular cambium grows new x n p
cork cambium grows new bark/cork

419
Q

2 parts of protective tissue are

A

epidermis

cork

420
Q

describe epidermis

A 
1 cell thick
outer covering
waterproofing via cuticle leaves + stems
protects roots from bacteria
alive
421
Q

describe cork

A

3+ cell layers thick
initial barrier
waterproofs stems only not alive

422
Q

describe photosynthesis

A

occurs in chloroplast
light dependant rxn
2 stages - light rxns and calvin cyle

423
Q

describe stroma

A

cytoplasm of organelle, filler substance, vitamins and nutrients

424
Q

describe thylakoid

A

sub-organelle inside chloro where light rxn takes place

425
Q

light reactions use _______ ________ to:

A

solar energy:
split H20 into H+, elec, and O2
excite electrons within chloro that sets offa series of rxns that create high energy compounds
H+ leave thyla membrane, CO2 enters stroma

426
Q

describe the calvin cycle

A

takes place within stroma
uses high energy compounds from light rxns to drive the cycle
CO2 combines w intermediate compounds to form glucose

427
Q

what is the equation for photosynthesis/ cellular respiration

A

Water + carbon dioxide → glucose + oxygen

6 H20 + 6 CO2 → 6 C6H1206 + 6 O2

428
Q

water transport: ______ hairs absorb __________ via __________ transport, glucose stored in roots produces _______ via __________ ___________

A 
root
minerals
active
energy
cellular respiration
429
Q

water transport: ________ pumped from epidermis to _____ to endodermis to ________

A

minerals
cortex
xylem

430
Q

water transport: sets up ___________ condition, water rushes in via _________

A

hypertonic

osmosis

431
Q

_______ __________: root pressure builds up and pushes minerals up _________

A

water pressure

xylem

432
Q

describe hypertonic

A

more solute (relative to other side of a membrane)

433
Q

describe hypotonic

A

less solute (relative to other side of a membrane)

434
Q

leaf pull/ transpiration/evaporation pull is

A

the evaporation of water “pulls” on adjacent water molecules (water is cohesive/attracted to each other) and adhesive 2 surface

435
Q

explain Bernoulli’s principle

A

breeze blows by leaves creating low pressure

water and minerals in roots in area of high pressure

436
Q

explain the Pressure-flow theory

A

sugar actively transported from leaves into phloem
sets up hypertonic condition (osmosis)
area of HP w respect 2 roots
phloem sap pushed down, stored in roots

437
Q

N, P, K, Ca, Mg are all ________

A

macronutrients (plants need more of them)

438
Q

nitrogens benefits 2 plants

A

overall growth and chloro structure

439
Q

phosphorus benefits 2 plants

A

root and flower growth

440
Q

K benefits 2 plants

A

root preservation, disease prevention, quality of fruit

441
Q

Ca benefits 2 plants

A

cell wall - strength of plant

442
Q

Mg benefits 2 plants

A

chloro structure

443
Q

Fe, Zn and Cu are all __________

A

micronutrients

444
Q

Fe benefits 2 plants

A

chloro sturcture

445
Q

Zn benefits 2 plants

A

regulation of plant growth

446
Q

Cu benefits 2 plants

A

reproduction root metabolism

447
Q

seed _________: when conditions are right……. _______ is released!

A

germination

gibberellin

448
Q

when gibberellin is released: what happens?

A

enzymes b.d. starch
hypertonic condit, water rushes in
seed coat bursts
cellular respiration begins

449
Q

seed germination: when cellular respiration begins:

A

radicle pushes down 2 form roots
hypocotyl pushes up 2 form stem
epicotyl and cotyledon grows upward 2 form leaves

450
Q

plant adaptations: in the desert

A

leaves w thin, thick cuticle
photosynth stems
extensive root systems
rapid development during rainy season

451
Q

plant adaptations: in wetland

A

floating leaves
stomata on upper epidermis
hollow stem 4 buoyancy and diffusion of gases
floating seeds

452
Q

plant adaptations: in fire-prone areas

A

ashes neutralize acidic soils
extr. heat opens tough seed coats
few competitors

453
Q

plant adaptations: in extr cold

A

longer dormant per
deciduous trees lose leaves
flowers act as solar collectors (concentrates solar rays on ovaries, rapid reproduction, nutrient poor soil)

454
Q

carnivorous in extreme cold

A

capture, kill and digest insects
acquire N, P and K
venus fly trap, pitcher plant

455
Q

parasitic in extr cold

A

absorb water, minerals and sugars from xylem and phloem

mistletoe

456
Q

plant adaptations: in the shade

A

bloom early

rapid growth

457
Q

auxin (iaa)

A

bends stem towards light
downward root away from light
plant grows tall and straight
prevents leaves from falling

458
Q

gibberellins

A

promo seed germination
promo stem, root and leaf growth
promo flower development (commercially used 2 make food bigger)

459
Q

cytokinins

A

promo division and differentiation of cells
promo s. germ
promo flowering
prevent aging (commercially added 2 anti aging products)

460
Q

ethylene

A

ripens fruit

plants picked b4 ripe, sprayed w ethylene 2 ripen en route

461
Q

abscisic acid (aba)

A

inhibits growth
induces dormancy
causes leaves to fall
works against cytokinins

462
Q

what is tropism?

A

growth of plant in response 2 external stimuli

463
Q

phototropism

A

light
root -
shoot +

464
Q

gravitropism

A

gravity
root +
shoot -

465
Q

thigmotropism

A

touch

shoot +

466
Q

hydrotropism

A

water

root +

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