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Flashcards in Exam 6 - Explosives Deck (181):
0

Under which scenario does ATF conduct full investigations of bombings?

a. All bombings or attempted bombings within the Bureau's jurisdiction
b. All bombings or attempted bombings with a federal interest
c. All accidental explosions
d. All thefts and recoveries of explosives

b. All bombings or attempted bombings with a federal interest

*Also conduct full investigation of unlawful dealings in explosives for suppressing criminal trafficking of explosives materials

1

The main goal of a post blast investigation is to:

a. Establish public safety
b. Conduct research to prevent future incidents similar in nature
c. Determine whether it's accidental or criminal
d. Establish a motive

c. Determine whether it's accidental or criminal

2

Which of these non-explosion investigations typically fall under the jurisdiction of the FBI?

a. Bomb threats
b. Hoax device
c. Explosives theft
d. Illegal manufacturing or dealing

a. Bomb threats

*ATF will usually still respond to determine if there is a bomb present. Once it's determined there is no bomb, it stays with FBI.

3

Which of these non-explosion incidents would not warrant opening an investigation?

a. Hoax device
b. Explosives thefts
c. Mechanical failures
d. Illegal storage

c. Mechanical failures

Non explosion incidents that warrant an investigation:
- recovery of stolen and abandoned explosives
- illegal storage
- explosives theft
- illegal manufacturing or dealing
- other 18 USC 842 unlawful acts (importing, false entry)
- hoax device
- attempted bombing (recovered IED)
- bomb threats (usually FBI jurisdiction)

4

Which statute directs that ATF is responsible for investigation criminal and regulatory violations of federal explosives laws?

a. 18 USC 924(c)
b. 26 USC 5861
c. 28 USC 599a
d. 18 USC 844(h)

c. 28 USC 599a

5

The driving force of an explosives investigations:

a. Offender behavior and motive
b. Type of device
c. Elements of the crime
d. Interviews

c. Elements of the crime

Elements that are not proved = investigative lead, or no violation

6

Who is responsible for making device determinations?

a. EEO
b. SABT
c. Interstate Nexus expert
d. CES

a. EEO

7

What is the proper way to obtain certification from the National Firearms Registration and Transfer Record (NFRTR) from the NFA branch in headquarters?

a. Phone
b. Tax
c. E-request
d. All of the above are acceptable

d. All of the above are acceptable

*e-request is only available for selected SAs and IOIs

**an official document (ribbon copy) to this effect will be generated by the NFA branch, upon request for actual judicial proceedings

8

Which of these is not one of the three mediums determining lead agency in a bomb investigation?

a. Jurisdiction
b. Type of explosive
c. Law
d. Special agreements

b. Type of explosive

9

True/False

Determining offender behavior and motivations will always prove an element of an offense

False

But is the underlying cause of the offense and how it is committed, and it's useful as judges and juries generally like to know answers as to why and how it was done

10

Who acts to de-conflict jurisdictional issues between FBI and ATF if it cannot be resolved at the field office or divisional level?

a. Department of Homeland Security
b. US Postal Service
c. National Explosives Task Force
d. ATF can override the FBI

c. National Explosives Task Force

11

Explosions where terrorism is presumed to be the motive fall under the jurisdiction of:

a. ATF
b. USPS
c. DHS
d. FBI

d. FBI

12

Upon discovering an attempted bombing (recovered IED) the first step of a responding agent should be:

a. Notify FBI and JSOC
b. Identify potential hazards such as secondary devices
c. Interview complainant and/or others with possible knowledge
d. Contact bomb techs or EEOs to render device safe

d. Contact bomb techs or EEOs to render device safe

13

ATF's legal authority to inspect the site of any accident or fire in which there is reason to believe explosive materials were involved is given by:

a. Title 18 USC 844
b. Title 18 USC 846
c. Title 18 USC 3051
d. Title 18 USC 842

b. Title 18 USC 846

14

How should a report of a hoax device be handled?

a. Send an IOI to document the incident
b. Treated as an actual IED until appropriate personnel have examined it
c. Passed over to the FBI
d. Evaluated by responding agent to determine if it's worth having an EEO or bomb tech come on scene

b. Treated as an actual IED until appropriate personnel have examined it

15

During which type of explosion would it be important to develop a thorough knowledge of suspects and their activities before, during, and after the incident?

a. Accidental
b. Mechanical
c. Chemical
d. Criminal

d. Criminal

16

During which type of explosion investigation would you look for evidence of causation?

a. Accidental
b. IED
c. Criminal
d. Hoax device

a. Accidental

17

During which type of explosion investigation would it be important to obtain technical recommendations regarding precautions for future purposes?

a. Criminal
b. Non-explosion
c. Accidental
d. Chemical

c. Accidental

18

Among the CES' mandatory requirements, they must complete explosives recertification every:

a. Year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years

b. 2 years

19

The ATF's primary asset for responding to and investigating explosives-related incidents:

a. EEO
b. CES
c. SABT
d. ESC

b. CES

20

A SABTs investigations and activities are directed by:

a. SAC
b. ETB
c. RAC
d. ESC

a. SAC

21

True/False

In court, destructive device determinations are made by a certified SABT

False

ETB will provide determinations on destructive devices. SABTs provide testimony on all other explosives related matters

22

Under which of these explosion scenarios would a SIR not always be required?

a. Hoax device
b. Fatality
c. Significant loss of explosives
d. Prohibited person in possession

a. Hoax device

SIR required:
- explosives incidents with fatalities
- explosives thefts
- significant loss of explosives
- explosives found in possession of a prohibited person
- an incident which may bring a lot of publicity to ATF

23

Who manages the EEO program?

a. NCETR
b. FTB
c. ETB
d. JSOC

c. ETB

24

Which of these is not certified to demonstrate or destroy explosives?

a. EEO
b. SABT
c. ESC
d. CES

c. ESC

25

Destruction of explosives materials requires approval of:

a. RAC
b. AUSA
c. SAC
d. Chief, ETB

c. SAC

*AUSA approval also required if evidentiary material is involved

26

True/False

CES' may conduct render safe procedures or dismantle any manufactured or improvised destructive device for public safety purposes

False

SABTs and EEOs, as well as military EOD and local bomb techs, can for public safety, CES' can't do shit

27

During a demonstration or destruction of explosives, how many qualified persons must be present?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

b. 2

28

Two categories of explosive waste are:

a. Chemical and biological
b. Biological and radiological
c. Hazardous and non-hazardous
d. Immediate safety threat and non-immediate safety threat

d. Immediate safety threat and non-immediate safety threat

*with non-immediate, 90 days to dispose of after disposal order signed

29

Who solicits candidates for Explosives Specialist Candidacy training?

a. SAC, NCETR
b. CES Program Manager
c. ETB Program Manager
d. SABTs

b. CES Program Manager

*special agent applies through GS/RAC and SAC, who submit to CES Program Manager

**ESC candidate must be GS-13 with at least 5 years experience (exceptions for those with military EOD experience, combat engineer, stage or local bomb tech., etc), and must have investigated federal explosives cases with a high evaluation record

30

______________ approves what explosives can be manufactured or imported into the U.S

a. ATF
b. DOT
c. FBI
d. DHS

b. DOT

31

A non-licensed manufacturer makes M-80's and transports them to a non-licensed retailer. After receiving them, the retailer distributes them to a non-licensed purchaser who then transports them home.

Under this scenario, who is guilty of 842(a)(3)(A&B) - Illegal manufacturing and dealing

a. Manufacturer
b. Retailer
c. Purchaser
d. All three are guilty

d. All three are guilty

1. Transport or receive explosives, (A) 10 years
2. Distribute explosives to other non-licensees/permittees, (B) 10 years

Exceptions: smokeless powder and some black powder, 845(a)

TRANSPORT, RECEIVE, DISTRIBUTE

32

True/False

To manufacture or deal in M-80's, you must first receive a license from the ATF

False

ATF doesn't issue licenses for M-80's or higher because they are usually manufactured with approximately 50 grains of powder, making them much more dangerous than the typical < 2 grains ATF issues licenses for.

33

True/False

M-80's are classified as destructive devices

False

By itself, and M-80 is designed to make noise. However, it can be redesigned to be a weapon which would make it a DD

34

Which of the following is an exception to 842(a), illegal manufacturing and dealing?

a. M-80s
b. Smokeless powder
c. Gun powder
d. Pipe bombs

b. Smokeless powder

*and some black powder

35

In order to charge 844(d) in an explosives sting operation, an ATF agent must prove:

a. Interstate/foreign commerce
b. Intent to be used in a bombing
c. Knowledge it would be used in a bombing
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

36

Under 845(a), exceptions to the a Explosives Control Act, commercially made black powder not to exceed ____ pounds, solely for sporting, recreational, or cultural purposes in antique ignition system firearms is allowed

a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100

c. 50

37

True/False

An M-21 training grenade body, reloaded with smokeless powder and a fuse would be considered a destructive device

True

38

With commercially made explosives (e.g. Dynamite and others typically used for mining, construction, etc), what must the government prove to conclude it has been redesigned as a destructive device?

a. Motive and opportunity
b. Explosives have been stolen
c. Intent to use as a weapon
d. All of the above

c. Intent to use as a weapon

39

Which of these is not prosecutable under 26 USC 5861, possession of a destructive device?

a. Molotov cocktail
b. Rocket launcher
c. Flash bang
d. Dynamite

d. Dynamite

It's used for commercial purposes and mere possession is not a crime. Must prove there was intent to use the device as a weapon.

40

True/false

A flash bang is a destructive device

True

Designed and used as a weapon to defeat a person = DD

41

True/False

An ATF agent hoped to charge Billy Bob with possession of a destructive device following a finding in a search warrant. However, he couldn't obtain a confession that it was to be used for a weapon, and there were no tacks, no nails, no other small pieces of metal, no incendiary material, no radioactive material, no poison gas, no deadly germs.

Therefore, he could not be charged with possession of a destructive device

True

This wouldn't be a destructive device, but it would be an explosive device

42

Any person who intends to acquire explosives must first:

a. Obtain a license from ATF
b. Obtain a permit from ATF
c. Complete a background check
d. Be screened by the FEL

b. Obtain a permit from the ATF

*ATF uses this form to initiate a background check

43

True/False

There are different penalties for bomb threats, depending on whether it was an actual or false threat

False

844(e), illegal to:
a. Willfully make a [real] bomb threat, or
b. Maliciously make a false bomb threat, or make
c. Bomb threat or false bomb threat in or affecting interstate commerce, 10 years

44

True/False

Transporting explosives is only illegal if the explosives travel interstate

False

844(d) - illegal to transport explosive in interstate or foreign commerce to commit a bombing
842(a)(3) - illegal for individual (non licensee or non permittee) to transport explosives anywhere

45

____________ provides technical assistance during bombing and arson investigations as well as written determinations pertaining to the applicability of a device or its components

a. NCETR
b. BATS
c. USBDC
d. ETB

d. ETB

Also provide expert opinion in court and many participate on NRT and IRT

46

The person that can conduct render safe procedures and disassemble IEDs for agents in the field as well as provide written determinations on applicability of the technical aspects of a device to the law and violation that has occurred is the:

a. EEO
b. SABT
c. CES
d. CESBT

a. EEO

47

True/False

Explosives samples must be shipped in ATF approved boxes

False

DOT approved boxes

They should also have a 24 hour emergency response number on the shipping label

48

When requesting an inert explosive prop from ETB, requests should be made through your _______ to the Chief, Arson and Explosives Programs Division

a. CES
b. SAC
c. RAC
d. EEO

b. SAC

Requests should also be made at least one week in advance

49

When using an inert explosive prop for an undercover operation, what must be explained and fully understood by the prosecuting AUSA?

a. Props cannot be retained for evidence
b. Props have been fully cleared by an EEO
c. What the explosive the prop is representing is classified as
d. The undercover agent's backstory

a. Props cannot be retained for evidence

They are limited in supply and can't be held, but photos can be used in court for demonstrative evidence

50

Which of these is not among the qualifications necessary to be an EEO for ETB?

a. Bomb disposal experience
b. Expert testimony experience
c. Previously an ATF CES
d. Bombing investigation experience

c. Previously an ATF CES

Also:
- received initial training at either the military or civilian bomb disposal school
- military ordnance and IED experience

51

____________ provides investigative leads involving arson and explosive incidents to federal, state and local LEOs

a. NCETR
b. BATS
c. ETB
d. USBDC

d. USBDC

52

The database that connects the nation's fire and post blast investigators with state and local bomb squads in an effort to bridge the intelligence gap by sharing info in real time

a. BATS
b. USBDC
c. Explosives tracing system
d. N-Force

a. BATS

53

Anyone with knowledge of an explosives loss or theft must alert the ATF within ____ hours

a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 48

c. 24

For anyone: federal misdemeanor
For an FEL: felony violation

54

The link between the explosives industry and law enforcement

a. BATS
b. E-Trace
c. National Explosives Tracing Center
d. USBDC

c. National Explosives Tracing Center

55

For nexus determinations of commercial and military explosives, you should contact:

a. CES
b. NETC
c. EEO
d. USBDC

b. NETC (National Explosives Tracing Center)

56

Each licensed manufacturer must include all of these markings on their explosives except:

a. Date of manufacture
b. Identity of importer
c. Location of manufacture
d. Shift of manufacture

b. Identity of importer

Identify of manufacturer

This information is known as the "Date Shift Code" and only applies to domestic commercial explosives

57

Which of these would require identification markings?

a. Detonator
b. Safety fuse
c. Detonating cord spool
d. Binary explosives

c. Detonating cord spool

Markings are not required on the actual cord

58

The number issued by the Department of Transportation to identify an explosive which has been tested and classified by the DOT is:

a. Lot Number
b. Date Shift Code
c. UN Number
d. EX Number

d. EX Number

59

The military equivalent of the Date Shift Code is the:

a. UN Number
b. EX Number
c. Lot Number
d. Campaign code

c. Lot Number

60

An alternative to the Date Shift Code, used to represent a product made under a certain run where multiple DSCs may be present

a. Campaign Code
b. EX Number
c. Lot Number
d. UN Number

a. Campaign Code

61

To initiate an explosive trace request, you should contact (choose all that apply)

a. USBDC
b. ETB
c. NETC
d. E-trace

a. USBDC
c. NETC

Either is fine, they can be contacted by phone (24 hours), email, fax, or through the portal

62

Which of these is not a key element for tracing an explosive?

a. Product size
b. Clear digital photos of markings
c. Date Shift Code/Lot Number
d. EX Number

d. EX Number

Also:
-complete product info on label
-lab analysis
-X-ray (for detonators)

63

A device placed in an improvised manner incorporating explosives, destructive, lethal or chemical fillers designed to destroy, disfigure, distract, or harass (intended as a weapon)

a. Mortar
b. IED
c. Mine
d. Grenade

b. IED

64

An IED contained or concealed within a container where the components are not visible is which type of IED?

a. Open device
b. Closed device
c. Soft cased device
d. Hard cased device

b. Closed device

65

An IED with no container or concealment, where all components are visible is a:

a. Open device
b. Closed device
c. Soft cased device
d. Hard cased device

a. Open device

66

A sophisticated device incorporating radioactive materials designed to result in the formation of nuclear-yield is a:

a. IED with biological enhancement
b. IED with chemical enhancement
c. Radiation dispersal device (RDD)
d. Improvised nuclear device (IND)

d. Improvised nuclear device (IND)

67

A pipe bomb placed in an airport terminal fitted with a bag of infected blood would be an example of a:

a. IED with biological enhancement
b. IED with chemical enhancement
c. Radiation dispersal device
d. Improvised nuclear device

a. IED with biological enhancement

68

When two chemicals come into contact to ignite/burn, this is an example of what kind of chemical reaction?

a. Acid bomb
b. Hyperbolic
c. Hypergolic
d. Combination fuzing

c. Hypergolic

Other one in study guide is:

Acid bomb - when acid, water, and aluminum are combined the reaction produces gases that cause the container to explode from pressure build up

69

A fuzing/firing method using just an initiator, time fuse, and explosive filler would be a(n):

a. Non-electric
b. Chemical reaction
c. Electric
d. Combination fuzing and firing system

a. Non-electric

70

An explosive left in a duffel bag left in an NYC subway station designed to function upon opening would be an example of which fuzing and firing method?

a. Command detonated
b. Suicide device
c. Victim operated
d. Time device

c. Victim operated

71

An IED designed with both an electrical fuzing system and non electric switch with a percussion primer and a trip wire for a second firing system would be a(n):

a. Electric
b. Non-electric
c. Chemical reaction
d. Combination fuzing and firing system

d. Combination fuzing and firing system

72

A bomb placed in the lobby of the Empire State Building connected to the bombers cell phone for detonation would be a(n):

a. Command detonated
b. Suicide device
c. Time device
d. Victim operated

a. Command detonated

73

Time/safety fuzes and chemical pencils are examples of:

a. Electrical commercial switches
b. Electronic switches
c. Improvised switches
d. Non-electric switches

d. Non-electric switches

74

A loop switch, clothespin switch, and mousetrap switch are examples of:

a. Non-electric switch
b. Electrical commercial switch
c. Improvised switch
d. Electronic switch

c. Improvised switch

75

A non-electric fuzing and firing system such as a cocked firing pin would be an example of:

a. Direct current
b. Mechanical energy
c. Alternate current
d. Chemical energy

b. Mechanical energy

76

A battery would be an example of which type of IED power source?

a. Alternating current
b. Direct current
c. Mechanical energy
d. All of the above

b. Direct current

77

True/False

A non-electric time fuze, percussion primer or electric match as an initiator would be used for a low explosive

True

Commercial, military, or improvised non electric or electric detonator would be used with high explosives

78

Pieces of a pipe, wood, or plastic that could be used as evidence for the container, filler, or fingerprints

a. Shrapnel
b. Fissure
c. Fragmentation
d. Schism

c. Fragmentation

79

Any metal, ceramic, glass, hard plastic or other material of sufficient hardness to puncture human skin when propelled by force of a bomb:

a. Load
b. Fragmentation
c. Munition
d. Shrapnel

d. Shrapnel

80

A power source, initiator, explosive, and switch is needed for which fuzing and firing method?

a. Non-electric
b. Electric
c. Chemical reaction
d. Combination fuzing and firing

b. Electric

P ower
I nitiator
E xplosives
S witch

81

A car alarm, cell phone, remote control, and motion detectors are examples of:

a. Non-electric switches
b. Electrical commercial switches
c. Electronic switches
d. Improvised switches

c. Electronic switches

82

Which is not among the safety considerations that should be used during IED searches?

a. Call EOD/bomb squad
b. Maximize personnel
c. Don't allow radio transmissions near suspect item
d. Keep contact time with suspect device to a minimum

b. Maximize personnel

1. Call EOD/bomb squad
2. Beware of secondary devices
3. Anticipate a high order detonation
4. Keep contact time with suspect device to minimum
5. Minimum number of personnel exposed to IED
6. Don't be a hero
7. Don't handle or jar a suspect device
8. Don't allow radio transmissions near suspect item
9. Don't underestimate the explosive force of an IED based on size
10. Don't attempt hand entry

83

True/False

The size of an IED gives a good indication of the explosive potential

False

84

When searching a room for an IED, how should you attack the room?

a. Least damage to most
b. Most damage to least
c. Divide the room by height
d. Divide the room by width

c. Divide the room by height

85

In an office building, where are you most likely to find an IED?

a. Boss' office
b. Restroom
c. Sidewalk
d. Storage

b. Restroom

Areas accessible to the public (restrooms, lobbies, etc) are the usual target areas for IEDs

86

Protecting interstate commerce against interference by reducing the hazards associated with misuse of explosives, assist states in regulating explosives, and NOT placing unnecessary restriction on law-abiding citizens were the major purposes of the:

a. 50 USC ch. 8 of Federal Explosives Act of 1917
b. Title XI of the Organized Crime Control Act of 1970
c. 18 USC 837 of the Civil Rights Act of 1960
d. All of the above

b. Title XI of the Organized Crime Control Act of 1970

87

While modeled after the GCA, Title XI of the Organized Crime a Control Act has one added section with no parallel in the GCA:

a. Section 843 - licensing of importer, manufacturers, dealers
b. Section 845 - exceptions and relief
c. Section 846 - inspection of fires caused by explosive materials
d. Section 842 - unlawful acts

c. Section 846 - inspection of fires caused by explosive materials

88

As part of the amendments of 1973 to federal law relating to explosives, black powder of up to 50 pounds intended to be used for recreational use were exempted from regulatory requirements for:

a. Manufacturers
b. Dealers
c. Purchasers
d. All of the above

c. Purchasers

89

Representatives from law enforcement, fire fighting, and the insurance industry testified that ATF was of critical importance to fire investigations leading up to the:

a. Organized Crime Control act
b. Civil Rights Act
c. Anti-Arson Act
d. Federal Explosives Act

c. Anti-Arson Act

90

True/False

The Anti-Arson act amended section 844(i) and other criminal offense sections of chapter 40 by simply adding the word "fire" in addition to the word "explosive"

True

91

True/False

The Anti-Arson Act gave ATF jurisdiction to investigate all arsons

False

Need Interstate commerce, civil/religious rights violation, etc.

92

As part of the Safe Explosives Act of 2002, a new type of permit called a "limited permit" was created. This allowed a permit holder to:

a. Obtain explosives interstate no more than 6 times a year
b. Obtain explosives intrastate no more than 6 times a year
c. Obtain explosives interstate in limited quantities based on state of residence law
d. Obtain explosives intrastate in limited quantities based on state law

b. Obtain explosives intrastate no more than 6 times a year

93

As part of the Safe Explosives Act of 2002, an applicant for a license or permit must include personal information as well as fingerprints and photographs as well as:

a. Identifying information of his immediate family
b. Identifying information of all employees
c. Identifying information of all employees who will be authorized by applicant to possess explosive materials
d. All of the above

c. Identifying information of all employees who will be authorized by applicant to possess explosive materials

94

A non-licensee/non-permittee may:

a. Receive explosive materials intrastate
b. Receive explosive materials intrastate or interstate if it complies with the laws of both states
c. Receive explosive materials intrastate or interstate if it complies with the laws of both state ONLY from an FEL
d. Not receive explosives

d. Not receive explosives

95

Which of these statements is not always true for a limited permit holder?

a. He may not distribute explosives to licensees and permittees in his state of residence
b. He may not receive explosives for an out of state licensee or permittee
c. He may not receive explosives intrastate on more than 6 occasions
d. He may not transport, ship, or receive explosives in interstate commerce

a. He may not distribute explosives to licensees and permittees in his state of residence

This is allowed as long as he's not "engaging in the business" of dealing explosives

96

A licensee/permittee may NOT:

a. Import explosives
b. Deal explosives to a non-licensee intrastate
c. Receive explosives interstate from another dealer
d. Distribute explosives interstate from another dealer

b. Deal explosives to a non-licensee intrastate

97

Among the exceptions to the transportation, acquisition, and disposition of explosives laws includes all but:

a. Governmental entities
b. Black powder
c. Display fireworks
d. Small arms ammunition

c. Display fireworks

Display fireworks by federally recognized Indian tribes is an exception

Additionally:
-commercial transportation (DOT/TSA)
-medicine
-certain criminal offenses (exceptions don't apply to people that have been convicted of offenses)

98

Determination on an application for relief from disabilities may be granted by:

a. Director, ATF
b. SAC, NCETR
c. Attorney General
d. DOT

c. Attorney general

99

Who must apply for Explosives licenses and permits?

a. Manufacturers and dealers
b. Dealers and importers
c. Manufacturers, dealers, importers
d. Manufacturers, dealers, importers, purchasers

c. Manufacturers, dealers, importers

100

Which of these people would not be prohibited from applying for an explosives license?

a. Dishonorable discharge from US military
b. Persons who have renounced US citizenship
c. Domestic abuser
d. Aliens of the US

c. Domestic abuser

Domestic abuser and restraining order prohibitions in GCA are not in explosives laws

101

True/False

An employee who will be handling the explosives under his boss' license can be a prohibited person as part of a limiter permit

False

102

When revoking a license or permit after it has been issued for violations of explosives laws for someone that hasn't become a prohibited person, what is the key element to prove?

a. Negligence
b. Willfulness
c. Oversight
d. Multiple instances

b. Willfulness

Have to show that they willfully violated the law.

If they become prohibited person, it's automatically revoked.

103

A licensee or permittee whose license has been denied or revoked may request a hearing within _____ days

a. 5
b. 7
c. 15
d. 21

c. 15

The item is then referred to an Administrative Law Judge (ALJ)

Initial application: ALJ makes recommendation to Director of Industry Ops who makes decision

Renewal App or license revocation: ALJ makes decision

104

If following a hearing for a revocation, the licensee is still not given his license back, he may appeal to:

a. Director, Industry Ops
b. Director, ATF
c. Circuit Court of Appeals
d. Either b or c

d. Either b or c

After a decision is rendered by the DIO or ALJ, the aggrieved has the option to appeal to the Director of the ATF (followed by the Circuit Court of Appeals if unsuccessful) or skip the Director and go directly to Circuit Court.

105

18 USC 843(f) requires licensees and user permittees to make available their records for inspection:

a. At all reasonable times
b. Once every 6 months
c. Once a year
d. At all times

a. At all reasonable times

106

Compliance Inspections of licensees and user permittees is limited to:

a. Once a year
b. Once every 6 months
c. Once every 3 months
d. No limitations

d. No limitations

Inspection must be limited to the purpose of ensuring compliance (checking records and storage standards)

Forcible entry not authorized, can't be pretext to gather evidence

107

Upon renewal of an application, Limited permit holders may be inspected:

a. As often as necessary
b. Once every 3 years
c. Once a year
d. Once every 6 months

b. Once every 3 years

*provided that ATF verified through inspection that they met requirements in that previous inspection that occurred within the last 3 years

108

As part of a criminal search warrant, industry operations investigators:

a. Can assist fully
b. Can assist in searching, but cannot seize evidence
c. Cannot assist
d. Cannot assist unless they have previously inspected the property

b. Can assist in searching, but cannot seize evidence

109

True/False

When acting under inspection authority, ATF agents may seize evidence found in plain view

False

Upon seeing the evidence, they should apply for a search warrant

110

ATF has jurisdiction over all of these except:

a. High explosives
b. Common fireworks
c. Display fireworks
d. Chemical compounds

b. Common fireworks

Note: the instructor and I believe his PowerPoint referred to these as "consumer fireworks" but it's in the book as common fireworks

111

Explosives that are categorized by deflagration and create a subsonic explosion (below 3300 fps) are:

a. Chemical explosives
b. Low explosives
c. High explosives
d. Mechanical explosives

b. Low explosives

High explosives - characterized by a DETONATION, over 3300 fps

112

A chemical reaction given by an explosive substance which produces a shock wave:

a. Brisance
b. Deflagration
c. Detonation
d. Combustion

c. Detonation

113

The shattering or crushing effect of a sudden release of energy from an explosive on its immediate vicinity:

a. Brisance
b. Shrapnel
c. Detonation
d. Deflagration

a. Brisance

114

A very rapid exothermic (burning), self propagating chemical reaction through unreacted material at a velocity less than the speed of sound.

a. Slow combustion
b. Deflagration
c. Low order detonation
d. Detonation

b. Deflagration

115

The level of combustion categorized as nothing more than normal burning, the heating of a substance as it reaches it's ignition point

a. Rapid combustion
b. Slow combustion
c. Spontaneous combustion
d. Instantaneous combustion

b. Slow combustion

Slow combustion = normal burning
rapid combustion = explosion, if confined
Instantaneous combustion = detonation

116

The initiation of an explosives from the shock wave of another explosive in close proximity:

a. High order detonation
b. Brisance
c. Low order detonation
d. Sympathetic detonation

d. Sympathetic detonation

117

Which type of explosion would occur due to a water heater overheating without a pressure release valve?

a. Chemical explosion
b. Mechanical explosion
c. Improvised explosion
d. Nuclear explosion

b. Mechanical explosion

118

The explosion that produces the most damage:

a. Nuclear explosion
b. Chemical explosion
c. Improvised explosion
d. Mechanical explosion

a. Nuclear explosion

119

An explosion categorized by a rapid conversion of a substance, solid or liquid, into a gas:

a. Chemical explosion
b. Improvised explosion
c. Nuclear explosion
d. Mechanical explosion

a. Chemical explosion

120

________________ contain their own fuels and oxidizers in the compound to propagate a constant velocity through the explosive charge

a. Mechanical explosives
b. Nuclear explosives
c. Improvised explosives
d. chemical explosives

d. Chemical explosives

121

___________ blast pressure occurs as the hot expanding gases create pressure wave that radiates outward from the explosion at high speed and with great force.

a. Initial
b. Positive
c. Primary
d. Negative

b. Positive

Negative blast pressure - as the positive blast pressure phase of the explosion moves outward from the origin of the explosion, it displaces, compresses, and heats the surrounding air creating a low air pressure condition behind the wave front.

122

The negative blast pressure phase lasts ________ as the positive blast pressure phase

a. Just as long
b. Two times as long
c. Three times as long
d. Five times as long

c. Three times as long

123

The blast mitigation method that occurs when the blast pressure is able to escape a confined space is:

a. Reflection
b. Shielding
c. Venting
d. Release

c. Venting

Shielding - when blast pressure wave strikes immovable object in its path
Reflection - when blast pressure waves travel until they hit a surface and then reflect off that surface, traveling in another direction

124

Black powder, when used in safety fuse, burns at the rate of ______ per foot

a. 10-15 seconds
b. 15-30 seconds
c. 30-45 seconds
d. 45-60 seconds

c. 30-45 seconds

125

Black powder and smokeless powder are two common:

a. Low explosives
b. Primary high explosives
c. Secondary high explosives
d. Blasting agents

a. Low explosives

Black powder - used in time fuse, in ignition trains as propellant, and often in pipe bombs.

Smokeless powder - frequently used in construction of pipe bombs and as propelling powder in small arms, cannons, and rockets.

126

______________ occurs when the blast pressure effect of an explosion breaks material into pieces (material which has been part of the bomb casing or of objects nearby).

a. Brisance
b. Shrapnel
c. Fragmentation
d. Combustion

c. Fragmentation

127

The category of explosives that is extremely sensitive to initiation by friction, shock, static electricity, heat, flame, etc., and is valued for this more so than its damage capability

a. Low explosives
b. Primary high explosive
c. Secondary high explosive
d. Blasting agents

b. Primary high explosives

Due to them reaching detonation upon initiation, they are used to initiate secondary high explosives.

128

Dynamite, emulsions, and boosters are all examples of:

a. Low explosives
b. Primary high explosives
c. Secondary high explosives
d. Blasting agents

c. Secondary high explosives

129

____________ is used as the standard by which most other explosives are measured:

a. Dynamite
b. C-4
c. TNT
d. Flex-X

c. TNT

130

___________ is used to interconnect multiple charges or can be used to initiate a main charge secondary explosive.

a. Det cord
b. Time fuse
c. Binary explosive
d. Flex-X

a. Det cord

131

A moldable plastic explosive used by the military normally white in color

a. Flex-X
b. Military dynamite (M1)
c. TNT
d. C-4

d. C-4

132

True/False

When unmixed, binary explosives are not considered an explosive and do not require any special handling or storage considerations

True

Not regulated by ATF until mixed

133

____________ explosives become detonator sensitive only after two key parts have been mixed.

a. Water gel
b. Emulsions
c. Binary
d. Fraternal

c. Binary

134

A shaped charge producing a circular hole and focusing the charge in one particular direction

a. Circular
b. Conical
c. Linear
d. Oval

b. Conical

135

The shaped charge used primarily for cutting

a. Conical
b. Angled
c. Linear
d. Straight

c. Linear

136

Any materials consisting of fuel and oxidizer that cannot be detonated by means of a number 8 testing cap when unconfined. Requires booster to detonate.

a. Shaped charge
b. Binary explosive
c. Primary high explosive
d. Blasting agent

d. Blasting agent

137

ANFO is the most widely used:

a. Primary high explosive
b. Secondary high explosive
c. Blasting agent
d. Homemade explosive

c. Blasting agent

138

One of the more popular homemade explosives, ______ appears as white crystalline powder. Due to its explosive properties and instability, it is unsuitable for commercial or military use.

a. HMTD
b. ANFO
c. TATP
d. HMX

c. TATP

139

In _____________, a fuse igniter or a match is the first step that leads to an explosion.

a. Electric system
b. Homemade explosive
c. Non-electric system
d. Thermobaric explosive

c. Non-electric system

140

Unlike a typical non-electric detonator, this type offers direct control of when the explosion will occur.

a. Binary explosives
b. Shock tube firing system
c. Time fuse
d. Det cord

b. Shock tube firing system

141

Which of these are not among the capabilities and services offered by the ATF Forensic Lab?

a. Fire debris analysis
b. Petroleum identification
c. Gasoline comparison
d. Sample selection

b. Petroleum identification

petroleum products are classified, not identified due to the same product being marketed under different names. They can be classified as:
- gasolines
- light, medium, and heavy distillates
- other (isparaffins, alcohols, etc.)

142

Which of these surfaces would likely provide the best sample for analysis at the ATF forensic lab?

a. Non-porous surface
b. Heavily charred debris
c. Unsealed wood
d. Sample with contributions from pyrolysis

c. Unsealed wood

Best samples - more absorbent surfaces, and protected from heat of fire (carpet and especially carpet padding, soil, unsealed wood, and protected areas like under furniture, behind baseboards, etc)

Worst samples - non porous surfaces, heavily charred debris, samples with contributions from pyrolysis

143

Which of these is not among the duties of an ATF explosives chemist

a. Determine proper safety procedures on scene of explosives or chemical hazard
b. Renders explosives safe
c. Evaluate explosive devices to establish signatures
d. Identify the explosives main charge

b. Renders explosives safe

Explosive chemist duties:
- identify fuzing and firing train
- provide source info for component parts
- identify main charge
- assist in execution of s/w
- compare items recovered from suspects to items recovered from scene
- evaluate device for signature
- directs execution of s/w involving collection of trace evidence
- assess explosive damage to determine state of device and/or victim at time of explosion
- assesses on scene explosive or chemical hazards, determines safety precautions

144

If necessary to remove tape from explosives evidence, the best way to do so is by placing the adhesive side:

a. On a clean, hard, plastic surface
b. In a nylon bag
c. In a paper bag
d. Any of the above

a. On a clean, hard, plastic surface

If avoidable, don't remove tape from evidence or attempt to separate layers

145

When packaging latent fingerprint evidence from non porous sources, it's important to:

a. Package evidence in a paper bag
b. Use a static proof bag
c. Secure evidence to avoid movement during shipment
d. All of the above

c. Secure evidence to avoid movement during shipment

Porous items should be packaged in envelopes, paper bags, plastic bags, etc.

146

When sending a tool belonging to a suspect to the ATF forensic lab, which of these are they not capable of determining?

a. Determine if suspect tool is of same class of tool which made the tool mark
b. Identify a particular grinding wheel, file, or saw blade back to a tool mark
c. Perform a microscopic comparison of tool mark to test mark made by suspect tool
d. Inter comparisons of tool marks from different cases and/or scenes

b. Identify a particular grinding wheel, file, or saw blade back to a tool mark

147

True/False

DNA differs from cell to cell (i.e. Blood to saliva) in the same person

False

Body fluids and tissues from the same person will contain the same DNA

148

True/False

Wet fire debris evidence should be packaged like fire evidence (airtight container) rather than typical wet evidence (air dried, packaged in paper)

True

Normally all wet samples should be air dried and placed in paper for packaging. However, arson evidence is unique and should be packaged wet with a not on evidence transmittal form that the evidence is wet. This ensures it's attended to quickly and potential loss of DNA is greatly reduced

149

DNA data bank program owned by the FBI which operates on local state, and federal levels

a. NIBIN
b. CODIS
c. IBIS
d. ATF Forensic Laboratory

b. CODIS

CODIS = Combined DNA Index System

150

All hazardous substances must be shipped by _____, ATF's assigned contract carrier.

a. USPS
b. UPS
c. DHL
d. FedEx

d. FedEx

151

When collecting Dynamites, c-4, ANFO, TNT, cast boosters, slurry or emulsion explosives as evidence, you should place them in:

a. A sealed metal can
b. A paper bag
c. A small wide mouth jar with a Teflon lined lid
d. An anti static zipper bag

c. A small wide mouth jar with a Teflon lined lid

35 grams is the limit

152

True/False

Intact detonators should not be shipped to the laboratory for examination

True

Contact ETB for assistance

153

Free flowing powders such as black powder must be placed in:

a. A glass vial
b. An anti static zipper bag
c. Small wide mouthed jar with Teflon lined lid
d. Either a or b

d. Either a or b

154

When shipping a flammable liquid, you should collect ____ ml in a small vial

a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 4-5

a. 1-2

The place vial in sealed can with packing material, place can in cardboard box with minimum burgs strength of 200 lbs, fill box with vermiculite.

Side of box must be marked with "THIS PACKAGE CONFORMS TO THE CONDITIONS AND LIMITATIONS SPECIFIED IN 49 CFR 173.4"

155

Det cord, safety fuse, quick match, black match, igniter cord should be packaged in:

a. Anti static bag
b. Glass vial
c. Jar with Teflon lined lid
d. Either a or b

A. Anti static bag

Send 4 inches worth in length

156

Which of these is not one of the three objectives of a post blast scene investigation?

a. Determine if explosion was accidental or criminal
b. Tell a story about what happened
c. Preserve the integrity of these scene and document scene and evidence
d. Develop investigative leads that may lead to ID of people involved or factors responsible

b. Tell a story about what happened

This is one of the four reasons to document the scene

157

One of the main objectives of a post blast scene is to determine if the explosion is:

a. For profit or revenge
b. Primary or secondary
c. Improvised or homemade
d. Criminal or accidental

d. Criminal or accidental

158

The three team members of a post blast scene that must work hand in hand for scene documentation are:

a. Team leader, interview/leads coordinator, evidence technician
b. Photographer, evidence technician, schematic artist
c. Team leader, Photographer, evidence technician
d. Photograph, evidence technician, forensic chemist

b. Photographer, evidence technician, schematic artist

159

When establishing a perimeter for a post blast scene where the farthest piece of debris is 300 feet away, the perimeter should be set at:

a. 300 feet
b. 450 feet
c. 600 feet
d. 900 feet

b. 450 feet

1.5 times distance rule

Note: if using this rule, perimeter should never be less than 300 feet even if 1.5 rule leaves you at less than 300

160

The post blast scene is divided into these three zones:

a. Red, yellow, green
b. 1, 2, 3
c. Hot, warm, cold
d. A, B, C

c. Hot, warm, cold

161

The area of a post blast scene used to support the operation is the:

a. Warm zone
b. Danger zone
c. Hot zone
d. Cold zone

a. Warm zone

Hot zone - search areas, immediate and general
warm zone - areas used to support operation
Cold zone - all areas beyond warm zone, media relations and whatnot

Inner perimeter between hot/warm, outer perimeter between cold/warm

162

The area that establishes a clear route for everyone going into the scene is the:

a. Outer perimeter
b. Entrance
c. Entry control point
d. Doorway

c. Entry control point

-One way in, one way out
-doorway into scene
-individual at entry to log who goes in, the time, and their role

163

_____________ is responsible for locating the seat of an explosion at a post blast scene

a. Team leader
b. Immediate area search unit
c. Immediate area investigative unit
d. General area investigative unit

b. Immediate area search unit

164

True/False

Post blast scene hazards should be dealt with concurrently with commencement of search units beginning to process the scene

False

Everything must be made safe before the team enters

165

The searching method effective for use when you're lacking trained search personnel:

a. Grid search
b. Spiral search
c. Line/Strip search
d. Zone search

b. Spiral search

166

True/False

In a grid search or zone search, it's more beneficial to start from the outer perimeter and work your way toward the blast seat

True

167

The exhibit number for a piece of evidence is determined by:

a. Evidence technician
b. Team leader
c. Photographer
d. N-Force

d. N-Force

168

The most secure method of establishing a perimeter at a post blast scene.

a. Crime scene tape
b. Temporary fencing
c. Immovable barriers with perimeter security personnel
d. Any type of visible perimeter line with perimeter security personnel

c. Immovable barriers with perimeter security personnel

169

In a post blast scene divided into four zones, if 10 pieces of metal pipe fragment are found in zone A, they should:

a. Be collected together as one exhibit
b. Be collected together as one exhibit with metal pipe fragments from zone b, c, and d
c. Be collected as 10 separate exhibits
d. Be collected as directed by the team leader

a. Be collected together as one exhibit

170

The sketch that depicts the blast seat with three dimensional measurements and the immediate search area.

a. Layout sketch
b. Specific area sketch
c. Overall area sketch
d. Rough sketch

b. Specific area sketch

171

Which of these is not a viable method for locating evidence in a post blast scene?

a. Triangulation
b. Circulation
c. Base line
d. Rectangular coordinates

b. Circulation

A, c, d and GPS coordinates are the four methods.

172

The ATF issued software used by SACFIs, SACES' and members of the ATF NRT to assist in drawing scenes is "Crime Zone __"

a. 5
b. 7
c. 9
d. 10

c. 9

173

Measurements for schematic drawings should be taken from ____ fixed point(s) of reference:

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

b. 2

174

Among the duties of the interview/leads coordinator is using ________ to record the information for each interview

a. N-Force
b. A tablet
c. A lead sheet
d. An audio recorder

c. A lead sheet

Dumb question but it's bolded in the book

175

The _____________ is responsible for identifying and interviewing the first responding personnel such as local LEOs, firemen, and witnesses at a post blast scene

a. Interview/leads coordinator
b. Immediate area investigative unit
c. Team lead
d. General area investigative unit

b. Immediate are investigative unit

176

The preliminary walk through of a post blast scene is done by the team leader, and EEO, and:

a. Photographer
b. Forensic chemist
c. Interview/leads coordinator
d. Safety officer

b. Forensic chemist

177

The person responsible for determining the seat of the explosion at a post blast scene

a. Forensic chemist
b. CES
c. Team leader
d. EEO

d. EEO

Also does device determination and "criminal or accidental" determination.

178

Who is permitted to handle, transport, and ship explosive evidence?

a. EEO, CES, team leader
b. EEO, forensic chemist
c. EEO
d. EEO and CES

d. EEO and CES

179

True/False

A "biohazard" label is required when sending an item to the lab testing for gunshot residue

True

180

True/False

It's important to swab items for DNA as soon as possible at a post blast scene

False

They should not be swabbed in the field:
- latent print evidence could be lost
- laboratory environment is more sterile
- lab analysts are experienced

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