FARs Flashcards
(174 cards)
1
Q
No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least
A
Six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational system, or passed an instrument proficiency check.
2
Q
To meet instrument experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61, section 61.57(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions. What other qualifying information must be entered?
A
Location and type of each instrument completed and name of safety pilot.
3
Q
What portion of dual instruction time may a certified instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?
A
All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.
4
Q
Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
A
Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
5
Q
To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 calendar months you need
A
six instruments approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft.
6
Q
After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR
A
6 months
7
Q
An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot
A
passes an instrument proficiency check in the category aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector.
8
Q
A pilot’s IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What us the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?
A
December 31, this year.
9
Q
What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?
A
The approaches may be made in an aircraft, approved instrument ground trainer, or any combination of these.
10
Q
When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?
A
Flight into class A airspace.
11
Q
A certified commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least
A
an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft.
12
Q
You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single engine airplane within a 25 mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which rating(s)?
A
A commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine and instrument (airplane) rating.
13
Q
What limitation is imposed on a newly certified commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?
A
The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights of more than 50 NM or at night is prohibited.
14
Q
The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under
A
IFR
15
Q
Verifying that the altimeter meets the requirement of 14 CFR part 91 for an instrument flight is the responsibility of the
A
Pilot in command
16
Q
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including:
A
the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing data.
17
Q
To serve as a safety pilot for simulated instruments flight, you must hold at least a private pilot certificate and an
A
appropriate category and class rating for the aircraft to be flown.
18
Q
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
A
Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
19
Q
What action should you take if you DME fails at FL 250?
A
Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the airport of intended landing.
20
Q
What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?
A
After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport or intended landing where repairs can be made.
21
Q
In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of
A
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle.
22
Q
If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to “maintain VFR conditions on top,” the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the
A
Magnetic course.
23
Q
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR- on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)
A
5SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.
24
Q
What is therequired flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A
3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
25
Figure 92, What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required fro a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for area 3?
3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
26
Figure 92, A flight to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours for area 1?
5 mile; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
27
Figure 92, What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours for area 2?
5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
28
Figure 92, What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours in area 4?
1 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
29
Figure 92, What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in area 6?
1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.
30
Figure 92, What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours in area 5?
1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.
31
During preflight planning for IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.
32
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,00 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
33
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles at flight planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
fly to the alternate , and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
34
Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?
Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace.
35
When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before
entering Class, A, B, C, D, or E airspace.
36
What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport , that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?
800 foot ceiling and 2 statue miles visibility.
37
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030
FM2000 3SM TRSA OVC025CB
FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040
BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000 KT P6SM CLR=
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA
38
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?
From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000 and visibility 3 miles.
39
For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?
Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
40
What are minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?
The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.
41
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?
600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at you ETA.
42
In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue
the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
43
When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airpot, when landing minimums apply?
The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.
44
A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?
The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.
45
When planning your IFR flight, an alternate is required. What are the minimums for the IAP?
The minimums prescribed for the approach , prescribed for the PIC, or appropriate for the equipment used; whichever is higher.
46
What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?
600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
47
When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure.
600 foot ceiling and 2 statue miles visibility.
48
If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is
required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
49
In the case of operations over an are designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of
4 NM from the course flown.
50
An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will
allow for a descent from MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR conditions.
51
If the aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace,
ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.
52
In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above
10,000 feet MSL.
53
If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12,500 feet MSL , but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?
1 hour 50 minutes.
54
Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least
a slip skid indicator.
55
Which of the following requires DME or suitable RNAV system for a flight conducted under IFR?
Operation at or above FL 240 if VOR navigation is required.
56
An aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 19 IFR is required to have which of the following?
Gyroscopic attitude and heading indicators.
57
What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?
15,000 feet.
58
What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?
Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.
59
Figure 89, What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight east bound from Milford on V244 at the lowest appropriate altitude in an unpressurized aircraft?
The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15,000 feet.
60
Figure 91, What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight eastbound on V520 from DBS VORTAC in an unpressurized aircraft at the MEA?
The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen.
61
Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on March 9th of his year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by
March 31, 2 years hence.
62
Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?
NTSB Part 830.
63
Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?
A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker.
64
Which of these facilities may be substituted for an MM during a complete ILS IAP?
Compass locator and precision radar.
65
Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?
LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.
66
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsibility for avoiding other aircraft?
When weather conditions permit.
67
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.
68
You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR on Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180 degrees, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.)
An even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.
69
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR flight over nonmountainous terrain?
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
70
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR flight over mountainous terrain?
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
71
The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.
No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.
72
What service is provided by ATC while on an IFR flight when operating in Class C airspace?
Separation from IFR and participating VFR aircraft.
73
In addition to VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?
An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.
74
No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan
and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.
75
When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within class B airspace?
A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.
76
Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within Class B airspaces?
A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.
77
Where are VFR-on-Tops operations prohibited?
In Class A airspace.
78
When are you required to establish communications with the tower, (Class D airspace) if you cancel you IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?
Before entering Class D airspace.
79
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
80
The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from
18,000 feet to and including FL 600.
81
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
82
Figure 93, What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway?
1,200 feet AGL.
83
Figure 93, Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?
2,500 feet AGL.
84
Figure 93, What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?
700 feet AGL.
85
Figure 93, Which altitude is the upper limit Class A airspace?
60,000 feet MSL.
86
Figure 93, What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?
10,000 feet MSL.
87
Figure 93, What are the normal lateral limits for Class D airspace?
4 NM.
88
Figure 93, What is the floor of Class A airspace?
18,000 feet MSL.
89
What minimum aircraft equipment is required while flying IFR in Class C airspace?
Two-way radio communications and Mode C transponder.
90
MOAs are established to
separate certain military actives from IFR traffic.
91
What should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?
At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.
92
What does declaring 'minimum fuel' to ATC imply?
An advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible.
93
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
500 feet per minute and 1, 500 feet per minute.
94
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads"... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."?
Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.
95
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to assigned altitude?
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.
96
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
97
Which clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)
Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
98
CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED- MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND - SQAUK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE - DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. The abbreviated clearance contains
destination airport and route.
99
When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
When priority has been given.
100
ATC has given you the clearance to "Cruise six thousand." What does this allow you to do?
Operate anywhere from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
101
Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?
VFR and IFR.
102
When can a VFR on Top clearance be assigned by ATC?
Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable.
103
Which ATC clearance should instrument rated pilots request in order to climb thought a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and the continue the flight VFR?
To VFR on Top.
104
When on a VFR on Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on
magnetic course.
105
In which airspace is VFR on Top operation prohibited?
Class A airspace.
106
What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?
Even thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.
107
What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a nonradar environment?
The same reports that are required for any IFR flight.
108
What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on Top clearance?
Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.
109
What is expected of you as a pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.
110
When operating under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?
A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC.
111
When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?
Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR.
112
What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.
113
While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when
average true airspeed changes by 10 knots or 5%.
114
For IFR planning purposed, what are the compulsory points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
Fixes selected to define the route.
115
Figure 38, What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
I.
116
Figure 44, What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
I.
117
Figure 50, What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
I.
118
Figure 69, What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
A.
119
Figure 74, What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
A.
120
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM's?
FAA AFSS/FSS.
121
You are departing a non-towered airport with an IFR clearance containing a void time.
You must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of intentions if not off by the void time.
122
An abbreviated departure clearance"...CLEARED AS FILED..." will always contain the name
of the destination airport filed in the flight plan
123
Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?
To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess either textual or the graphic for of the approved procedure.
124
When not in radar contact, you should always report
departing the FAF inbound.
125
What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR.Localizer/Glide Slope capability , ad the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.
Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
126
Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is
18,000 feet MSL.
127
During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot advised "Radar service terminated." What action is appropriate?
Resume normal position reporting.
128
What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR on Top clearance?
Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.
129
Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?
When the pilot requests it.
130
ATC instructs you to reduce speed to 160. You comply by reducing
IAS to 160 knots and maintaining that speed plus or minus 10 knots.
131
When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?
Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.
132
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure.) The pilot should
immediately declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
133
During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.
134
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time?? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
135
While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions, In this situation, you should continue your flight under
VFR and land as soon as practicable.
136
You are in IMC and have two way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?
Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.
137
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two way radio communications failure?
Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
138
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two way radio communications failure?
Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
139
Figure 87, While holding at STRUT west of LCH of an ILS approach to RWY 15 at Lake Charles Muni airport, ATC advises you to expect clearance for the approach at 1015. At 1000, you experience two- way radio communications failure. Which procedure should be followed?
Squawk 7600, attempt to contact ATC via the previously assigned frequency. Plan to start your approach at 1015.
140
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by
an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors.
141
Which source of aeronautical information would provide the latest status of airport conditions like runway closures, runway lighting, and snow conditions?
(D) NOTAMs
142
Figure 89, What type of airspace exists aboveBryce Canyon Airport from the surface to 1,200 feet AGL?
Class G.
143
Figure 123, What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?
One VOR receiver and DME
144
What facilities, if any, may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during an ILS approach without affecting the straight in minimums?
Substitution not necessary, minimums do not change.
145
How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches.
Flight manual supplement.
146
Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?
For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.
147
To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
entering controlled airspace that includes Class A airspace.
148
Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of airplane in IMC if you hold a Private Pilot Certificate with ASEL, rotorcraft category, with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?
No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport Pilot-Airplane Certificate or an airplane instrument rating.
149
The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operate in
under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums for VFR flight.
150
The PIC should ensure that the pressure altitude reporting system has been inspected within the last
24 calendar months before operating on an IFR flight in controlled airspace.
151
Which additional instrument experience, within the preceding 6 calendar months, is required to meet the requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR if you already have: 3 hours in an instrument simulator (including holding, intercepting, and tracking courses), and 2 instrument approaches in an airplane?
Another 4 instrument approaches in the same category and class.
152
When filling out a flight plan for a composite flight, you should
check both VFR and IFR.
153
A pilot has an IFR flight planned for July 10 of this year. What is the earliest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirements without having to take an IFR proficiency check?
January 10 the year.
154
A pilot intends to act as PIC on an instrument flight on July 10th of this year. That pilot must have performed and logged
the required instrument currency tasks between January 10th this year and the date of the flight.
155
What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly without using supplemental oxygen over 30 minutes?
12,500 feet.
156
A pilot plans to make an IFR flight on July 10th of this year. In order to meet the instrument currency requirements, what must the pilot have?
Performed and logged the required tasks and iterations between January 10th of this year and the date of the planned flight.
157
What are the supplemental oxygen requirements of an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?
The crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet.
158
It has been a month since you last met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.57(c) to act as PIC in IFR. Assuming you do not fly anymore, how long until you need to have an instrument proficiency check to act as PIC in IFR?
5 calendar months.
159
To meet minimum instrument experience requirements to serve as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR, within the last six calendar months, a minimum of six instruments approaches must be conducted
in a powered airplane/approved simulator.
160
On an IFR flight plan from KDAL to KSAT (2 hour ETE), the weather requires you to file an alternate that is 20 minutes from KSAT. You require a minimum fuel supply of
3:05.
161
Who is responsible for collision avoidance?
PIC when weather conditions permit.
162
You have 3 instrument approaches (including holding, intercepting and tracking courses) and 2 hours in a simulator in the last 12 months. What additional experience do you need to be current?
3 approaches in actual or simulated IFR in an airplane of the same category and class.
163
When operating under IFR, you must track the centerline of an ATC assigned airway except
for shallow clearing turns while climbing in VMC.
164
Immediate changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication are disseminated by FDC NOTAMS.
FDC NOTAMS.
165
You are given "CRUISE 7,000 FEET" in your ATC clearance. The IFR route in your clearance has an MEA of 5,000 feet. This clearance authorizes you to
Cruise at any intermediate altitude between 7,00 feet and the MEA without notifying ATC..
166
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 3,000 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to
the first airport of intended landing, fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising altitude.
167
In 2 months preceding you upcoming IFR flight, you have logged 3 hours instrument experience, 3 instrument approaches, intercepting and tracking courses, and holding in an aviation training device. What else is required to be current for the flight?
3 instrument approaches and unusual attitudes in an aviation training device.
168
A person who holds an airplane category commercial pilot certificate without an instrument rating may carry passengers
on a cross-country flight up to 50 nautical miles, but night flights are prohibited with passengers for hire.
169
When flying in an unpressurized aircraft at 16,000 feet MSL, what are the oxygen requirements?
Above 14,000 feet, the required minimum flight crew must use supplemental oxygen.
170
With respect to the flight experience necessary to remain current to act as PIC in IFR, you must fly
the required approaches in an aircraft , flight training device, or simulator representing the aircraft category you wish to remain current in.
171
You have successfully passed you instrument proficiency check. How long are the recency of experience requirements met for if no further IFR flights are made?
6 Calendar months.
172
Figure 226, Departing from Lamar Muni (LAA), ceiling is 300 feet overcast and visibility 2 SM. How can you obtain an IFR clearance?
Contact Flight Service before taxiing.
173
When issued a departure clearance "CLEARED AS FILED", the statement menas
you can fly as filed until/unless ATC amends your clearance.
174
Figure 193, When doing an airborne VOR check at Brownwood Regional Airport over the rotating beacon with the VOR set to 169 degrees, you DME shows 6.2 NM and your VOR receiver shows a 5 degrees deflection to the right. You determine that
the check is correct and both the VOR and the DME are acceptable.
