final Flashcards

1
Q

Drawing a patient’s blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of a. assault and battery b. breach of confidentiality c. invasion of privacy d. respondeat superior

A

a. assault and battery

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2
Q

Two phlebotomists are discussing a patient’ s condition in the elevator. They are overheard by the patient’ s daughter. This is an example of
a. Failure to exercise reasonable care b. Invasion of privacy c. Improper or unskilled care d. Mistreatment of patient

A

b. invasion of privacy

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3
Q

Which of the following would not violate a patient’s right to confidentiality?
a. Indicating the nature of a patient’s disease on the door b. Listing all HIV+ patients in the laboratory computer c. Sharing collection site information on a difficult patient d. Tracking a patient’s laboratory results on the bulletin board

A

c. sharing collection sire information on a difficult patient

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4
Q

Malpractice is a claim of

A. assault and battery. B. breach of confidentiality. C. improper treatment. D. invasion of privacy.

A

d. improper treatment

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5
Q

If a phlebotomist ________, he or she is negligent.
a. Reports obvious changes in patient condition b. Fails to put the needle in the sharps container c. Puts the bedrail in an upright position when leaving d. reports obvious changes in the patient’s condition

A

b. Fails to put the needle in the sharps container

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6
Q

A national organization that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures is the
a. ASCP b. NAACLS c. NCA d. CLSI

A

d. CLSI

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7
Q

Which action will compromise the quality of a specimen?
A. Drawing electrolytes in an amber tube B. Mixing a serum separator tube five times C. Partially filling a liquid EDTA tube D. Placing a cold agglutinin in a heat block

A

C. Partially filling a liquid EDTA tube

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8
Q

Which one of the following examples is unrelated to quality control?
A. Checking expiration dates of evacuated tubes B. Documenting maintenance on centrifuge C. Employees filling out their time sheets daily D. Recording refrigerator temperature daily

A

C. Employees filling out their time sheets daily

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9
Q

Chilling will adversely affect the quality of test results for which of the following analyte?
A. Ammonia B. Lactic Acid C. Potassium D. Renin

A

C. Potassium

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10
Q

The “standard of care” in the practice of phlebotomy is influenced by which of the following organization?
A. The Environmental Protection Agency B. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration C. The Health Insurance Privacy Agency D. The Joint Commission

A

D. The Joint commission

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11
Q

Three of the following conditions are reasons a specimen could be rejected for analysis, Which one is not?
A. A bilirubin specimen is icteric B. A CBC specimen contains clots C. A fasting glucose specimen is lipemic D. An electrolyte specimen is hemolyzed

A

A. A bilirubin specimen is icteric

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12
Q

The purpose of the Joint Commission’s Office of Quality Monitoring is to:
a. Evaluate and track complaints related to care b. Implement immediate response to safety issues c. Inspect healthcare facilities for accreditation c. Set specific patient safety goals to improve care

A

A. evaluate and track complaints related to care

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13
Q

Some test specimens require immediate cooling in ice and water slurry to
a. prevent activation of cold agglutinins b. prevent the specimen from clotting c. separate serum more completely d. slow down metabolic processes

A

d. slow down metabolic processes

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14
Q

True or False? A good way to avoid lawsuits is to consistently perform venipunctures as rapidly as possible so as to get the results to the physician quickly.

A

FALSE

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15
Q

True or False? Labeling of a specimen must be exact.

A

TRUE

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16
Q

What does the suffix of the term “glycolysis” mean?

a. against b. breakdown c. glucose d. living

A

b. breakdown

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17
Q

The medical term for white blood cell is

a. Erythrocyte b. Hepatocyte c. leukocyte d. thrombocyte

A

c. leukocyte

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18
Q

Which of the following terms mean kidney inflammation?

a. cystitis b. hepatitis c. nephritis d. neuritis

A

c. nephritis

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19
Q

The letter “g” is pronounced like a “j” in

a. gamete b. gestation c. glycolysis d. guaiac

A

b. gestation

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20
Q

The abbreviation “ ESR” means
a. Energy-saving respiration b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate c. Eosinophil survival response d. Estimated survival rate

A

c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

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21
Q

What word means “condition of clotting”?

a. homeostasis b. leukopenia c. thrombosis d. vasoconstriction

A

c. thrombosis

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22
Q

What word means “ hardening of the artery” ?

a. arteriopathy b. arteriosclerosis c. arteriospasm d. arteritis

A

b. Arterioslecerosis

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23
Q

A prefix
a. adds information about a term b. modifies the meaning of a term c. precedes the word root d. All of the above are correct

A

d. all of the above are correct

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24
Q

The word elements of the term “polycythemia” mean
A. blood condition of many cells. B. condition of large blood cells. C. lack of normal red blood cells. D. state of reduced blood cells.

A

a. blood condition of many cells

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25
The "c" sounds like an "s" is which of the following terms? | a. coagulation b. cardiac c. cellular d. culture
c. cellular
26
The Joint commission "Do Not Use" list applies to all of the following except a. electronic laboratory reports b. handwritten laboratory reports c. handwritten medication orders d. writing on preprinted forms
a. electronic laboratory reports
27
Which body plane divides the body into equal portions? | a. Frontal b. Midsagittal c. Cranial d.Transverse
b. midsagital
28
which of the following is a function of the urinary system a. to maintain electrolyte balance b. to receive environmental stimuli c. to remove CO2 from the body d. to return tissue fluid to the blood
to maintain electrolyte balance
29
Which of the following is a test of the urinary system? | a. Cholinesterase b. Creatine kinase c. Creatinine clearance d. Pleuracentesis
c. Creatinine kinase
30
The ability of the body to repair and maintain itself to achieve a "steady state" defines what term? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Hemostasis D. Homeostasis
D. Homeostasis
31
Which of the following type of muscle is under voluntary control? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth D. Visceral
B. Skeletal
32
Which of the following is a test of the respiratory system? | A. ABG B. CSF C. ETOH D. UA
A. ABG
33
``` The term "distal" means A) farthest from the point of attachment. B) higher or above. C) nearest to the center of the body. D) toward the back. ```
A) farthest from the point of attachment
34
When you are facing someone in normal anatomic position, at which body plane are you looking? A. Frontal B. Midsagittal C. Sagittal D. Transverse
A. Frontal
35
``` The layer(s) of the skin containing blood vessels is/are A. epidermis and dermis. B. epidermis only. C. dermis and subcutaneous. D. subcutaneous only. ```
C. dermis and subcutaneous.
36
The avascular layer of the skin is the | A. corium. B. dermis. C. epidermis. D. subcutaneous.
C. epidermis
37
Which gland is often called the "master gland" of the endocrine system? A. Pineal B. Pituitary C. Thymus D. Thyroid
B. Pituitary
38
A specimen would most likely be accepted for testing despite this problem a. expired evacuated tube b. incomplete identification c. no phlebotomist initials d. quantity not sufficient
c. No phlebotomist initials
39
Which of the following is used by the laboratory to identify a specimen throughout the testing process a. accession number b. hospital number c. mnemonic code d. password ID
a. accession number
40
a pneumatic tube is a a. pressurized air transportation system b. temporary computer data storage unit c. tube connection between two computers d. a type of collection tube for blood gases
a. pressurized air transportation system
41
an example of pre analytical error happening during specimen processing is a. faulty collection technique b. inadequate centrifugation c. insufficient specimen d. patient stress and anxiety
b. inadequate centrifugation
42
transporting blood specimens with the stopper up has nothing to do with a. encouraging complete clot formation b. maintaining the sterility of the sample c. minimizing stopper caused aerosols d. reducing agitation caused hemolysis
b. maintaing the sterility of the sample
43
Which of the following would not be considered a preanalytical error? a. failing to mix an additive tube b. mislabeling a aliquot tube c. misreporting patient results d. using the wrong order of draw
c. misreporting patient results
44
which of the following specimens need to be chilled? | a. ammonia b. bilirubin c. cold agglutinin d. serum protein
a. ammonia
45
this organization develops standards for specimen handling and processing a. CDC b. CLIA c. CLSI d. FDA
c. CLSI
46
According to CLSI, the maximum time limit for separating serum or plasma from cells is a. 15 min from time of collection b. 30 min from TOC c. 1.0 hr from TOC d. 2.0 hr from TOC
d. 2.0 hrs from TOC
47
which statement describes proper centrifuge operation? a. centrifuge serum specimen before they start to form noticeable clots b. never centrifuge both serum and plasma specimens in the same centrifuge c. place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another for balance d. remove evacuated tube stoppers before placing them in the centrifuge
c. place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another for balance
48
which specimen can be centrifuged immediately upon arrival in specimen processing a. blood culture in an SPS tube b. calcium in a green top tube c. CBC in a lavender stopper tube d. Creatinine in an SST tube
b. calcium in a green top tube
49
Which of the following represents improper aliquot preparation? a. removing the stopper behind a splash shield b. carefully pouring the contents into a aliquot tube c. covering or capping the aliquot tube immediately d. none of the above
b. carefully pouring the contents into a aliquot tube
50
T/F Accession takes place in central processing or triage
FALSE
51
T/F "ASAP" or "Med Emerg" specimens must be attended to before routine specimens true
TRUE
52
What is the recommended procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine sample?
Void the first morning specimen, start the timing, and collect all other specimens including the next morning's specimen.
53
Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture?
Cerebrospinal
54
What additional information is typically required when labeling a nonblood specimen?
special handling needs
55
Which of the following tests requires a 24-hour urine specimen?
Creatinine clearance
56
A refrigerated stool sample would be unsuitable for this test.
Ova and parasites
57
A urine C&S is typically ordered to detect
Presence of UTI
58
An NP culture swab is collected to detect the presence of organisms that cause
Whooping cough
59
Drugs of abuse can be detected in
Hair, saliva and urine (All of the above)
60
Which type of specimen must be protected from light?
Amniotic fluid
61
Sputum samples are typically collected to diagnose
Tuberculosis
62
This type of urine collection involves the aspiration of urine directly through the wall of the bladder using a sterile needle and syringe.
Suprapubic
63
True or False? Part of a phlebotomist's job may be to instruct a patient on how to collect a clean catch midstream urine specimen. True
TRUE
64
The artery of choice for ABG collection.
radial
65
When performing the Allen test, which artery is released first?
Ulnar
66
What happens to a ABG specimen left at room temperature for a prolonged period?
Blood cells continue to consume oxygen; continued metabolism proceduces acids and levels of carbon dioxide increase
67
After performing a arterial puncture, check the pulse
distal to the puncture site
68
Which of the following is the most common arterial puncture complication even when proper technique is used
Ateriospasm
69
Which of the following patients would be considered to be in a "steady state" for ABG specimen collection?
A patient who has been asleep for 30 minutes while breathing room air
70
Which of the following is the proper needle insertion angle for radial artery puncture?
45 degree
71
Which of the following is the best way to tell that a specimen is arterial? As the specimen is collected, the blood should
pulse into the syringe
72
A proper cleaning solution for preparing an aterial puncture site is
isopropyl alcohol
73
True or False? It is safe to draw an ABG specimen from a limb that has an A-V Shunt or fistula.
FALSE
74
True or False? The ulnar artery is the first choice for drawing and ABG specimen.
FALSE
75
True or False? To perform ABG punctures, a phlebotomist must under extensive training.
TRUE
76
True or False? ABG pretreated with EDTA to prevent clotting.
FALSE
77
True of False? The normal needle size for ABG collection is 20 gauge.
FALSE
78
Another name for blood bank is?
Immunohematology
79
With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring?
Pharmacy
80
Electrolyte testing includes?
sodium, potassium
81
Promoting good public relations is part of the pantomimist's role because?
Promoting good public relations is part of the pantomimist's role because? A phlebotomist is representative of the laboratory throughout the facility. Good public relations promotes a harmonious relationship with the staff. Patients often equate venipuncture experiences with the overall hospital care.
82
Which department is responsible for administering oxygen therapy?
Respiratory Therapy
83
The term 'phlebotomy' is derived from Greek words that literally translated mean?
Vein Incision
84
Which of the following is not a phlebotomist's duty?
Starting intravenous (IV) lines.
85
What are the credentials for an ASCP-certified phlebotomist?
PBT
86
Proof of participation in workshops to upgrades skills required by some agencies to renew certification is called?
CEUs
87
Which of the following is an example of barrier to effective communication with a patient? The patient
Does not speak English
88
Which of the following is an example of confirming response to a patient?
I understand how you must be feeling.
89
Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics?
Frowing
90
Which of the following communicates unprofessionalism?
Intense odor of cologne
91
It is improper telephone protocol to?
Hang up on angry callers
92
Which duty is not performed by local public health agencies?
Licensure of healthcare personnel
93
The federal law that defines the responsibilities of medical laboratory personnel is the?
CLIA (Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988)