Final Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

core vx in dogs

A

rabies
distemper
adenovirus
parvovirus

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2
Q

cat core vx

A

rhinotracheitis
calicivirus
panleukopenia
rabies

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3
Q

cat less than 10 should have a PE every?

A

every 12 mo

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4
Q

cat more than 10 should have a PE every?

A

every 6 mo

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5
Q

FeLV tests test for?

A

antigen

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6
Q

FIV tests test for?

A

antibodies

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7
Q

it takes how long for FeLV to be detected

A

<30 days

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8
Q

it takes how long for FIV to be detected

A

<60 days

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9
Q

what tests are used to test for FelV and FIV

A

ELISA
rapid immunomigration (RIM)

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10
Q

a 5 yr old dog got his1 yr rabies at 16 weeks and 3 yr rabies at 1 yr. What vx do u give now?

A

rabies 3 yr

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11
Q

common clinical signs of strangles

A

pyrexia/fever
pharyngitis
anorexia
lethargy
lymphadenopathy
bilateral nasal discharge

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12
Q

nasal shedding begins ___ after onset of fever and persists for _____

A

2-3 days

2-3 weeks

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13
Q

strangles transmission

A

direct & indirect

esp viable in water 4-6 weeks, not feces or soil

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14
Q

optimal samples of strangles

A

FNA of enlarged/abscessed LN

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15
Q

overweight horses affected by which diseases

A

metabolic syndrome/laminitis
insulin resistance
osteoarthritis

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16
Q

egg counts for ascarid infections have what?

A

high Sp
moderate Se
no correlation was found between egg counts and number of worms in SI

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17
Q

parascaris equorum prepatent period

A

70 days

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18
Q

what antihelmintic CAN worsen foal SI impactions with ascarids

A

ivermectin
pyrantel pamoate

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19
Q

what antihelmintic can you give for ascarid impaction

A

benzimidazoles like fenbendazole
dose-determining (higher dose required)

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20
Q

deworming protocol for foals vs adult equids

A

foals - recommended treatment with benzimidazoles at 60-90 days old

acquired immunity usually develops before the horse is 2 yrs old - ascarid control efforts are not required in mature horses

monthly frequency of ivermectin is excessive -> resistance

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21
Q

EHV-1 & 4 clinical signs

A

1st - biphasic fever

neurologic (EHM)
respiratory
neonatal death
abortion

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22
Q

diagnostic choice for EHV

A

nasopharyngeal swab or blood in PTT

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23
Q

equine core vx

A

EEE/WEE
rabies
tetanus
west nile virus

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24
Q

prevention for EHV

A

isolate
keep pregnant mares away
biosecurity
vaccination - does not prevent neuro signs

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25
cause of calf death < 2 days
non-infectious physiological derangements
26
cause of calf death > 3 days
infectious
27
what is the most influential manageable factor of calf health and survival
colostrum acquistition
28
what does colostrum feed provide
warmth fluids standard nutrients micronutrients immunoglobulins non-immunoglobulin immune factors (cells, cytokines, enzymes)
29
what is the majority immunoglobulin provides in colostrum
IgG1
30
does colostrum or milk have a higher... specific gravity total solids fat total protein Ig minerals
colostrum
31
5 key things about colostrum management
quality quantity cleanliness quickness quantify
32
what does categorizing variables improve
communication w manager progress in managing changes recognition of management success at risk populations and cutoff for groupings
33
what is suggestive of FPT
serum IgG < 10 g/L in 24-48hrs of age
34
what affects the mass of Ig consumed in the calf?
quality volume
35
what affects the absorption of colostrum in the calf?
quality time
36
what is suggestive of high quality colostrum for IgG and Brix refractometer
IgG > 50g/L Brix >22% (18-23%)
37
best way to measure serum IgG? what is easiest to measure at the farm?
ideally radial immunodiffusion (RID) farm - STP with optical refractometer or optical or digital Brix refractometer
38
optical refractometer reading
5.0-5.5 cutoff for FPT
39
Brix readings
8.1-8.5% cuttoff for FPT
40
____ calves should have STP <5.1 _____ calves should have STP > 5.8
<10% >70%
41
what causes Psittacosis and how is it spread
Chlamydia psittaci ocular and nasal discharge & feces
42
most important management strategy for controlling disease in herpetariums and avaries
quarantine area
43
what 4-5 designated areas should be present
quarantine nursery isolation breeding food storage/supply
44
quarantine for avians
45 days
45
quarantine for reptiles
unknown hx 90 days known hx maybe 14 days
46
major clinical signs of Psittacosis
non-specific anorexia, ruffled feathers, ocular/nasal discharge, diarrhea
47
transmission to humans of Psittacosis
inhaling dust handling infected birds
48
when should the quarantine areas be serviced in an aviary
last area of the day
49
higher risk groups for salmonella
children < 5 immunocompromised
50
6 most common enteric zoonotic parasites in cats and dogs.
Toxocariasis Echinococcosis Giardiasis Hookworm infections Cryptosporidiosis Toxoplasmosis
51
does giardia or crypto have more zoonotic potential
cryptosporidum
52
difference in infective stages of giardia and cryptosporidium
giardia - cyst cyrptosporidum - sporulated oocyst
53
cryptosporidum higher risk population vs giardia
crypto - immunosuppressed, vets, farm workers, vet students, children and neonatal animals giardia - young animals and children, kennels, catteries, breeders, immunosuppressed
54
best diagnostic for cryptosporidium
immunofluorescent assay (fluorescent Ab assay) - also detects giardia cysts
55
best diagnostic for giardia
fecal float w centrifugation NOT ELISA bc can remain + after treatment for variable period of time
56
when to treat for giardia
only if diarrhea present always do fecal float to see if treatment worked treat with fendendazole NOT metronidazole
57
most common cause of foodborne disease/outbreak in US
virus (norovirus)
58
goal of FSMA
aims to ensure US food supply safe by shifting focus from responding to contamination to PREVENTING IT
59
danger zone
41-135 degrees F
60
what are the 6 sustainability goals
net zero warning a good life for animals diverse and abundant wildlife enough clean water for all no waste health and happiness
61
what is the best way to categorize climate associated illness in animals
by exposure pathway
62
Which of the following best describes a no-cost action that all veterinarians can take to protect the health of wildlife?
advocate for protection of appropriate wildlife habitat
63
ways to reduce water
flow restriction devices low flow toilets proper plumbing - no leak leg-operated surgical scrub rather than elbow drought resistant plans minimize laundry
64
ways to minimize anesthesia
anesthetic gasses with less green house potency total IV and/or regional instead of inhalational anesthesia avoid pre-emptive drawing up of meds
65
type of care: Integrating an understanding of the client’s financial and lifestyle realities into a fully developed treatment plan to meet their goals for patient care and health outcomes.
contextualized care
66
type of care: Offering a continuum of treatment plan options from those that are less complex and require less financial and time investment to those that are complex and involve high financial and time investment, so the animal caregiver can pick a path to follow that meets their goals and means.
spectrum of care
67
type of care: Implementing diagnostics and treatments in steps, one by one, in an intentional sequential manner that become more costly and complex over the timeline of care for the animal , where the next steps respond to the client’s expectations and financial constraints and change based on the patient’s response to initial treatment.
incremental care
68
5 determinants of health according to DHHS
1. economic stability 2. education access 3. health care access 4. neighborhood & built environment 5. social and community
69
what are the conditions in the environments where people are born, live, learn, work, play, worship, and age that affect a wide range of health, functioning, and quality-of-life outcomes and risks.
DHHS definition of social determinants of health (SDOH)