Final Flashcards
(292 cards)
1
Q
Midgut herniation is considered abnormal past ___ weeks.
A
12
14 according to ppt
2
Q
When is NT abnormal?
A
3mm+
3
Q
When is implantation complete?
A
Day 23
4
Q
When does fertilization occur? Where?
A
24-36 hours after ovulation in the ampulla
5
Q
Blastocyst burrows about ___ days after fertilization.
A
7 days
6
Q
When do the amnion and chorion fuse?
A
12-16 weeks, 14-16 weeks LMP
7
Q
Where is the yolk sac located?
A
chorionic cavity
8
Q
The yolk sac is visualized endovaginally at week ___. It will always be seen when the MSD is ___ mm.
A
week 5, 8mm
9
Q
A missed abortion is defined as:
A
Retention of a dead conceptus for a prolonged period (e.g. 2 months)
10
Q
The CRL measurement may be used through week ___.
A
12
11
Q
The length of time calculated from the first day of the last normal menstrual period to the point at which the pregnancy is being assessed is ______ age and _____ age.
A
gestational and menstrual
12
Q
The interface between the decidua capsularis and echogenic vascular endometrium is ______.
A
the double decidual sign
13
Q
The first site of formation of RBCs that will nourish the embryo is the ____.
A
Primary yolk sac
14
Q
The diameter of the yolk sac should never be more than ___ mm.
A
6 (5.6)
15
Q
After fertilization, the corpus luteum produces
A
estrogen and progesterone
16
Q
The zygote undergoes rapid cell division to form the 12-16 cell
A
morula
17
Q
A pt is 10 weeks and presents with extremely elevated hCG levels and pregnancy induced HTN. You suspect:
A
hydatidiform mole
18
Q
A heterotopic pregnancy is:
A
an ectopic pregnancy with a normal IUP
19
Q
In a ruptured ectopic, which site is more life threatening?
a. interstitial
b. ampulla
c. fimbria
d. isthmus
A
a. interstitial
20
Q
Theca lutein cysts, pregnancy induced HTN, hyperemesis, and large for gestational age are all associated with ____.
A
GTD
21
Q
A molar pregnancy that is invasive but does not metastasize is called ___.
A
chorioadenoma destruens
22
Q
hCG titers with an ectopic
A
will not double every two days, will be lower than normal then start dropping
23
Q
hCG titers with GTD
A
abnormally high
24
Q
What is the most accurate measurement to determine EDD?
A
CRL
25
A gestational sac in which the embryo fails to form is called ____ or _____.
blighted ovum, anembryonic pregnancy
26
Formed at 23 days when the primary yolk sac is pinched off by the extraembryonic coelom
secondary yolk sac
27
cellular, outermost embryonic membrane composed of trophoblast lined with mesoderm
chorion
28
The muscles most frequently mistaken for enlarged ovaries are
Piriformis
29
Where does fertilization usually occur?
ampulla
30
The floor of the pelvis is formed by the _____ muscles
Levator ani
31
Miss Greenfield is 73 years old and asymptomatic. She is NOT on hormone replacement therapy. Her endometrium should not measure more than
5mm
32
Which vessel provides the best landmark for localizing the ovary
internal iliac artery
33
Doppler waveforms of the uterine arterial flow typically show
high velocity, high resistance
34
Doppler waveforms of the ovarian arterial flow typically show
low velocity, low resistance
35
Which muscle groups form the lateral pelvic sidewalls
Obturator Internus
36
Anatomically, the uterus lies _______ to the urinary bladder and ________ to the rectum
posterior, anterior
37
T/F: The broad ligament is a true ligament?
false
38
A double fold of peritoneum that does not provide suspensory support to the uterus is _____
broad ligament
39
The potential space around the cervix is called the
fornix
40
The term used to describe the onset of the first menstrual cycle is
menarche
41
The endometrial echo would appear hypoechoic
during the periovulatory stage
42
Until ovulation, ovarian follicles grow at the daily rate of
2-3mm
43
The phase of the menstrual cycle following ovulation is referred to as the
secretory phase
44
Amenorrhea is
the absence of menses
45
Hematometracolpos
blood in the vagina and uterus
46
What is the most likely cause of Hematometracolpos?
imperforate hymen
47
The drug of choice most commonly used to induce ovulation is
clomid
48
What is GIFT
gamete intrafallopian transfer
49
A procedure involving the transfer of fertilized oocytes into the fallopian tube either laparoscopically or transcervically is
ZIFT
50
The endometrium of a patient receiving HRT would be considered abnormal if it measured more than
8mm
51
On color Doppler sonography, most malignant ovarian tumors yield flow signals that are best characterized as (high/low) impediance?
low
52
How does tamoxifen affect the uterus?
Causes a thickened, cystic appearing endometrium and increases the risk for endometrial carcinoma
53
A small amount of physiologic fluid may be seen in a postmenopausal endometrium. What is this usually due to?
endometrial atrophy
54
The most common gynecological malignant disease?
endometrial carcinoma
55
The functional layers of the endometrium are vascularized by the _______ arteries
spiral
56
In postmenopausal women, the ovaries measure approximately
2 x 1 x 0.5 cm
57
The abdominal circumference is measured at the level of
the stomach, left portal vein, and umbilical vein
58
The BPD is measured at the level of
thalamus and cavum septum pellucidum
59
Holoprosencephaly is associated with trisomy
13
60
The CI (cephalic index) is used to determine
head shape
61
The term double bubble denotes:
dilated duodenum next to stomach
62
T/F: The femur length includes only the femoral diaphysis
true
63
Clinodactyly
permanent curvature or overlapping digits
64
Measurement that includes both orbits at the same time
binocular distance
65
Findings of thickened nuchal fold, shortened femurs, and hypoplasia of the middle phalanx of the 5th digit are most likely associated with
Trisomy 21
66
Fetuses with Turner's syndrome may also have an associated
cystic hygroma
67
an extra set of chromosomes
triploidy
68
A small rounded echogenic structure within the left ventricle of a fetal heart most likely is
papillary muscle
69
euploid
normal, balanced set of chromosomes
70
findings of epicanthal folds, cardiac defects, simian crease, protruding tongue
Trisomy 21
71
The absence of the cavum septum pellucidum and enlargement of the posterior horn of the lateral ventricle is called
tear drop sign/Dandy Walker's malformation
72
nasal hypoplasia
nasal bone is not existent or measures less than 2.5 mm
73
A demonstration of the stomach, intestines, liver or heart in the thorax and associated with a mediastinal shift to the opposite side is called a
diaphragmatic hernia
74
normally situated umbilicus: omphalocele or gastroschesis
gastroschesis
75
Hyperechoic bowel should be compared to the echogenicity of ________ to be definitively diagnosed as "hyperechoic bowel"
the skeleton
76
Open neural tube defects are associated with elevated MS-AFP of ____________
> 2 MOM
77
____ should not be included in femur length measurement
distal femoral epiphysis
78
hypotelorism
eyes too close together
79
hypertelorism
eyes too far apart
80
which occurs with median cleft syndromes and frontal cephaloceles (hypertelorism/hypotelorism)
hypertelorism
81
IUGR is classified as weight below the ___ percentile
10th
82
teratogen
Any substance that causes abnormal structures in an embryo
83
thalidomide is an example of a
teratogen
84
Platycephaly
Flattening of the skull
85
"banana" sign
Refers to the shape of the cerebellum when a spinal defect is present
86
"lemon" sign
Occurs with spina bifida; frontal bones collapse inward
87
Microphthalmos
small eyes
88
The space of Retzius is also known as the
prevesical space
89
The follicles of the ovary are found in the
cortex
90
T/F: The posterior surface of the ovary is not covered by the broad ligament
true
91
Which of the following terms correctly describes the echogenic properties of the normal secretory endometrium in relation to the surrounding myometrium
hyperechoic
92
The primary function of LH is to
ensure the maturation of the Graafian follicle
93
In a uterus bicornis bicollis, there will be
1 uterine body with a septation, 2 cervices and 1 vagina
94
Which hormone supports and maintains the activity of the corpus luteum during the first trimester of pregnancy
progesterone
95
The four parts of the fallopian tubes are the following, in order from ovarian end to uterine end
infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, intramural (interstitial)
96
What layer(s) of the endometrium are sloughed off during menstruation
decidual
97
Ovulaton occurs between the
follicular phase and proliferative phase
98
uterine response
menstrual, proliferative, secretory
99
ovarian response
follicular, ovulatory, luteal
100
menopause
termination of regular menses usually occurring at 45-55 years
101
menarche
onset of menses usually occurring at 11-14 years of age
102
premature menopause
before age 40
103
Many birth control pills work by blocking ______. This inhibits the release of an egg.
LH surge
104
the hormone that stimulates growth and development of ovarian follicles
FSH
105
the hormone that stimulates progesterone production and peaks after ovulation
it also makes the dominant follicle mature in order to rupture and release the egg
LH
106
Follicular response
days 1-14, follicles identified
107
when may a dominant follicle be seen by ultrasound, what might it measure
day 8, 10mm
108
Ovulatory response (ovulation)
day 14, dominant follicle ruptures 24-36 hrs after onset of LH surge
109
luteal response
15-28, ruptured Graafian follicle forms corpus luteum which produces progesterone, maintains the secretory endometrium
110
When does the corpus luteum regress if fertilization does not occur?
14 days
111
What would you not see after ovulation?
a. ) dominant follicle
b. ) corpus luteum cyst
c. ) ectopic pregnancy
a.) dominant follice
112
Menstrual phase
days 1-5, progesterone declines, endometrium sheds
113
what does the endometrium look like before and after the menstrual phase?
before: thick and echogenic, after: thin and slightly irregular measuring less than 2mm post menses
114
Proliferative phase
days 6-14, ovaries are releasing estrogen causing regrowth of the endometrium
115
How does the endometrium appear in the early and late proliforative phase?
early: hypoechoic area around prominent midline echo
late: thichkened, isoechoic endometrium
max ap 6-8mm
116
What is the bight echogenic middle line seen during the proliferative phase?
a reflection of the mucosal and basal layers are touching each other
117
The echogenicity of an IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device) should be
hyperechoic to the myometrium
118
A submucosal leiomyoma is found
under the endometrium
119
The classic appearance of a fibroid is
focal hypoechoic mass with poor sound through transmission
120
By the 10th day, the invading trophoblast has formed 2 distinct layers called
cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast
121
The function endocrine units of the placenta are
chorionic villi
122
Put the following in order:
| embryo, zygote, blastocyst, morula
zygote, morula, blastocyst, embryo
123
In the first trimester, herniated bowel will return within the abdominal cavity by week ____
12
124
________ refers to the number of deliveries of viable infants
parity
125
The first reliable indicator of IUP is the
yolk sac
126
The triad of findings in Meckel-Gruber syndrome is:
occipital encephalocele, polycystic kidneys and polydactyly
127
The most common clinical indications for an ectopic pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT
A.) painful adnexal region and vaginal bleeding
B.) painless, vaginal bleeding
C.) amenorrhea and adnexal mass
D.) abdominal tenderness and amenorrhea
B.) painless, vaginal bleeding
128
"bunch of grapes"
sonographic findings of a complete hydatidiform mole
129
landmarks for BPD
falx, 3rd ventricle, cavum septum pellucidum, thalami
130
Decreased head circumference after 38 weeks is associated with
asymmetrical IUGR
131
In transabdominal scanning, a normal gestational sac can be consistently demonstrated when the beta hCG level is:
1800 mIu/ml
132
With a CVS procedure, ______________ is/are obtained either transcervially or transabdominally.
trophoblastic cells
133
Which structure is located directly posterior to the vagina?
rectum
134
Menorrhagia
abnormally heavy or prolonged periods
135
Dysmenorrhea
painful periods
136
Amenorrhea
absence of menses (primary or secondary)
137
This benign uterine disease caused by the development and extension of endometrial tissue into the myometrium is called
adenomyosis
138
The double bleb sign is an uncommon transient phenomenon in an early pregnancy. It represents the ____ and ____
amniotic sac and yolk sac
139
Triploidy syndrome is when there is a(an
complete extra set of chromosomes
140
The postpartum presentation of an invasive mole is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
1) very enlarged uterus
2) persistent bleeding
3) elevated beta hCG
4) amenorrhea
4) amenorrhea
141
the most sensitive indicator of fetal growth and nutrition
fetal weight
142
shoulder dystocia is related to what
large for gestational age
143
The clinical hallmark for an invasive mole
hemorrhage
144
Theca lutein cysts are associated with _____
GTD
145
Macrosomnia is a fetus measuring in the ____ percentile in growth
90th
146
T/F: Hypertelorism is caused by craniosynstosis or an anterior cephalocele and causes the orbits to be too far apart.
True
147
T/F: Hypotelorism is associated with holoprosencephaly, chromosomal and central nervous system disorders, and cleft palate with abnormally closely spaced orbits.
true
148
T/F: Cleft palate can be associated with chromosomal and congenital anomalies and an incomplete fusion of facial grooves that create a fissure in the roof of the mouth which can communicate with the nasal cavities.
true
149
What is the sonographic appearance of an endometrioma
discrete adnexal mass with enhancement
150
The most common pelvic tumors in women are:
leiomyomas
151
The differential for a solid adnexal mass would include
fibroma
152
An infection that involves the fallopian tube and ovaries is called:
TOA
153
T/F: PID is almost always a bilateral collection of pus and fluid
true
154
T/F: PID includes a vaginal discharge with bleeding
true
155
What is an infection within the fallopian tube called?
salpingitis
156
Early in the disease, the clinical presentation of both PID and endometriosis may mimic:
functional bowel disease
157
The most common etiology of PID is:
STDs
158
Fusion of the inflamed dilated tube and ovary is called:
TOA complex
159
parametritis
Infection within the uterine serosa and broad ligaments
160
Infection within the uterine serosa and broad ligaments is called:
parametritis
161
TOA complex
Fusion of the inflamed dilated tube and ovary
162
Clinical symptoms of PID may include:
fever, dull aching pain, no symptoms
163
The differential considerations of PID may include all of the following EXCEPT:
1) dermoid
2) endometriosis
3) serous cystadenoma
4) ovarian neooplasm
3) serous cystadenoma
164
Enlarged ovaries with multiple cysts and indistinct margins describe:
periovarian inflammation
165
A complex adnexal mass most likely represents:
pyosalpinx
166
Perihepatic inflammation ascending from a pelvic infection is called:
Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome
167
An asymptomatic 32 year old woman is diagnosed with a left adnexal mass on physical examination A prior history of PID has been reported. Transabdominal and endovaginal imaging demonstrates an anechoic tubular structure in the LLQ. This most likely represents:
hydrosalpinx
168
A 24 year old woman presents with a fever, vaginal discharge and intense pelvic pain. Transabdominal and endovaginal imaging demonstrates a complex multi-loculated irregular mass in the pouch of Douglas. This most likely represents:
TOA
169
A 25 year old woman complains of painful menstrual cycles and infertility. Transabdominal and endovaginal imaging demonstrates a hypoechoic well-defined adnexal mass. Normal ovaries are seen bilaterally. This most likely represents:
endometrioma
170
complex cul-de-sac mass that distorts the pelvic anatomy
pelvic abscess
171
Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome is associated with:
PID
172
Large pelvic masses, whether benign or malignant, may cause ________; therefore the _________ should be evaluated also:
urinary obstruction, kidneys
173
Women with a history of PID are at risk for all of the following EXCEPT:
1) tubal scarring
2) endometrial hyperplasia
3) ectopic pregnancy
4) peritonitis
2) endometrial hyperplasia
174
T/F: Infection within the uterine serosa and broad ligaments is called parametritis.
true
175
T/F: Infection within the ovary is called oophoritis.
true
176
While scanning the uterus and ovaries you notice a large pelvic mass. What is another area that will need to be evaluated for any abnormalities?
kidneys for hydronephrosis
177
When you see a crescent or banana shaped cerebellum what do you suspect?
spina bifida
178
Fetal Tachycardia vs Bradycardia
Tachycardia: 200-240 BPM
Bradycardia: usually less than 100 BPM
179
Placenta Accreta vs
Increta vs
Percreta
Accreta: growth of the placenta into the superficial myometrium
Increta: deep invasion of the placenta into the myometrium
Percreta: placenta perforates the myometrium
180
What do you suspect in a fetus with
hypoplasia or agenesis of the spine
Mom has diabetes before gets pregnant (not gestational diabetes)
caudal regression syndrome
181
When is the distal femoral epiphysis routinely visualized?
32 weeks
182
oligohydraminos
<5cm
183
polyhydraminos
>20cm
184
What is the path of the blood into and out of the fetus?
Placenta carries oxygenated blood to fetus through the umbilical vein
Blood leaves fetus through the 2 umbilical arteries and returns to the placenta (not oxygenated)
185
Who is at a greater risk of developing endometrial cancer?
Morbidly obese diabetic female with no children
Average size female with 7 children
Endometrical CA risks
Obese
Diabetic
No children
186
Most common form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Type 1
187
Osteogenesis Imperfecta that manifests deafness
Type 1
188
Osteogenesis Imperfecta with good prognosis
Types 1 & 4
189
most severe form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Type 2
190
Which type of Osteogenesis Imperfecta has
Underdeveloped lungs, multiple bone fractures
Frequently lethal (prior or shortly after birth)
Due to respiratory distress
Type 2
191
Non lethal forms of Osteogenesis Imperfecta
1, 3, & 4
192
Prune Belly Syndrome aka?
AKA Eagle Barrett Syndrome
193
Eagle Barrett Syndrome
Partial or complete absence of abdominal muscles
Urinary tract malformations
Can cause ureters to enlarge
oligohydramnios
194
Monozygotic vs Dizygotic
Monozygotic
One zygote originated forms multiple fetuses
One egg and one sperm
Can be Di-Di, Mono-Di, or Mono-Mono
Dizygotic
Two zygotes originated forms multiple fetuses
Two eggs and two sperm
ALWAYS have 2 amnios, 2 chorions, 2 separate placentas
195
how many placentas with mono-mono
single placenta
196
Twin peak sign is seen with
2 placentas, di/di
197
on u/s looks same as dizygotic
monozygotic di-di
198
monozygotic twinning when division occurs before Day 5 after conception
di-di
199
most common monozygotic twinning
mono-di
200
how many placentas with mono-di?
one
201
how many placentas with di-di?
two
202
monozygotic twinning when division 5-10 days after conception
Mono-di
203
least common monozygotic twinning
mono-mono
204
most dangerous type of twinning
mono-mono
205
Conjoined twins occur when division occurs after day _______.
day 13
206
Twin-twin transfusion
Unique to monozygotic twins
Shared placenta
Anomaly in the vascular supply of the placenta
Artery to vein anastomosis
Arterial blood from donor twin pumped into venous system of receiving twin
207
Donor twin
Small for dates
Oligo
“stuck” twin with empty bladder and decreased movement
208
Recipient twin
Hydropic with ascites
Enlarged liver, heart and kidneys
polyhydramnios
209
Fusion of the amnion and chorion should occur by:
week 16???????????????????????????????????
210
Cisterna magna AP diameter should not exceed:
10mm
211
Secretory Phase
Days 15-28
Increase in progesterone
Endo up to 18 mm
Hyperechoic endo with obscured midline, often with posterior acoustic enhancement
212
Proliferative Phase
Days 6-14
Increase in estrogen
Endo 6-8 mm
Triple line seen on ultrasound
213
Menstrual phase
Days 1-5
Decrease in Progesterone
Max endo post menses 2 mm
214
Follicular phase
Days 1-14
| Follicles grow; any over 11mm likely ovulates
215
Ovulatory phase
Day 14
Sudden decrease in follicular size
FF in cul-de-sac
216
Luteal Phase
Days 15-28
| Small, irregular cystic mass (regressing corpus luteum)
217
What affect does estrogen have on the endometrium?
Causes it to regenerate itself
218
What is relationship between patient on oral contraceptives and their endometrium?
They don’t elevated estrogen levels in their system-therefore, their endometrium doesn’t thicken
Looks thin and echogenic
219
When is the choroid plexus initially visualized as a hyperechoic structure on ultrasound?
week 10
220
The umbilical arteries are branches from what?
internal iliac arteries
221
By seeing this structure in the brain you are able to exclude most midline brain abnormalities.
CSP
222
Which laboratory value will be greatly increased in a fetus with gastroschisis?
AFP
223
```
While scanning a fetus you see the following:
Severely shortened limbs (rhizomelia)
Bowed long bones
Narrow thorax with normal trunk length
Cloverleaf skull
What do you suspect?
```
Thanatophoric dysplasia
| Lethal skeletal dysplasia
224
What is the most common neural tube defect?
anencephaly
225
```
While scanning a 2nd trimester fetus you see the following:
A single large midline ventricle
Proboscis
May see cleft lip or palate
What do you suspect?
```
```
Holoprosencephaly
Associated with Trisomy 13
Associated with facial defects “the face predicts the brain”
Appearance varies based on severity
Alobar – most severe
Semilobar
Lobar – least severe
```
226
Most severe form of holoprosencephaly
alobar
227
What is the most common non-lethal skeletal dysplasia?
achondroplasia
228
Heterozygous form is rhizomelic shortening of limbs (usually UE) and short LE
Later manifestation and spontaneous
Often missed in the 2nd trimester
Heterozygous – non lethal
Homozygous – lethal
rhizomelia; small thorax=pulm hyplasia; possibly cloverleaf skull/large cranium
Achondroplasia
229
While doing an anatomy scan on a 22 week fetus you measure the nuchal fold to be 8 mm. What is a concern?
Trisomy 21/ Down Syndrome
| Nuchal fold measuring over 6mm between weeks 15-21 weeks is abnormal
230
Elevated HCG
| Decreased MFAFP
Down's
231
What is dilated with agenesis of the corpus callosum?
3rd ventricle
232
What is the role of the foramen ovale in a fetus?
This structure allows for communication to occur between the right and left atria.
233
How soon after seeing the cumulus oophorus does ovulation typically occur?
within 36 hours
234
```
While scanning a fetus you see the following:
Lymphedema or cystic hygroma
Cardiac anomalies; aortic stenosis
Horseshoe kidney or only one kidney
What do you suspect?
```
Turner’s Syndrome
Prognosis based on how severe the cardiac and renal abnormalities are
235
Complete or partial absence of the X chromosome in phenotypic females
Turner's
236
What is maternal side of placenta called?
decidua basalis
237
What is fetal side of placenta called?
chorion frondosum
238
What do you suspect when you see that the chorionic plate of the placenta is smaller than the basal plate? A small chorionic ring surrounded by thickened amnion and chorion
Placenta Circumvallate
239
What do you suspect if you see the following while scanning a 24 yr/ old female:
Thick and hypervascular endometrium OR
Complex tubular adnexal mass OR
Ill defined multi locular adnexal mass OR
Everything looks WNL
PID
240
hematoclpos
blood in the vagina - usually because of an imperforate hymen
241
hematometra
blood in uterus
242
What can polyhydraminos be as sign of?
abnormal swallowing abilities
243
An MD has requested a translabial ultrasound. What is the structure you will be focusing mostly on?
The cervix
244
While scanning a 32 week pregnant patient you suspect she has a placenta previa. What do you need to do to ensure you aren’t misleading the Radiologist with your findings?
Make sure her bladder isn’t overdistended
| An overdistended bladder can give the appearance of a placenta previa
245
```
What are the following most likely associated with?
Duodenal atresia
Omphalocele
Neural tube defect
Facial cleft
```
polyhydraminos
246
What is evaluated when doing an umbilical artery Doppler study?
Specifics of PW image
S/D ratio
| Also looking at whether the diastolic flow is reduced or reversed (below the baseline)
247
How should the apex of the fetal heart be positioned?
45 degrees
| left side of body
248
A pregnant patient comes in for an ultrasound due to elevated maternal alpha fetoprotein levels. You are suspicious the fetus might have what complication?
abdominal wall defect
249
THIS IS THE SPACE BETWEEN THE ANTERIOR BLADDER WALL AND THE SYMPHYSIS PUBIS
PREVESICAL SPACE
| AKA: SPACE OF RETZIUS
250
What is the Space of Retzius aka
PREVESICAL SPACE
| AKA: SPACE OF RETZIUS
251
What is the space of Retzius?
THIS IS THE SPACE BETWEEN THE ANTERIOR BLADDER WALL AND THE SYMPHYSIS PUBIS
252
THE ENDOMETRIUM IS _______________ COMPARED TO THE MYOMETRIUM DURING THE SECRETORY PHASE.
hyperechoic
253
THIS HORMONE DOES THE FOLLOWING:
STIMULATES THE ENDOMETRIUM TO THICKEN
MAKES FIBROIDS ENLARGE
CAUSES BREAST DUCTS TO BECOME ENGORGED
STIMULATES THE FALLOPIAN TUBES TO CONTRACT
estrogen
254
MRS. JONES COMES IN WITH A UTERUS BICORNIS BICOLLIS. WHAT DO YOU EXPECT TO SEE?
2 UTERINE BODIES
2 CERVIXES
1 VAGINA
255
WHILE DOING AN OB EXAM YOU NOTICE THERE IS NO CSP AND THE POSTERIOR HORN OF THE LATERAL VENTRICLE IS ENLARGED. WHAT OTHER STRUCTURE IS LIKELY MISSING? THE ENLARGED VENTRICLE WILL CAUSE WHAT APPEARANCE?
ABSENSE OF THE CORPUS CALLOSUM
| TEAR DROP SIGN
256
WHAT IS SUSPECTED WHEN THE FETUS HAS THE FOLLOWING:
SHORT FEMUR
CARDIAC DEFECTS
DOUBLE BUBBLE SIGN
Down's Syndrome
257
TRUE OR FALSE:
| THE FOURTH VENTRICLE IS A SCAN PLANE LANDMARK FOR A BPD MEASUREMNT
False; 3rd
258
WHILE SCANNING THE FETAL HEAD YOU NOTICE AN ANECHOIC AREA INFERIOR TO THE CEREBELLUM. WHAT ARE YOU IMAGING?
Cisterna magna
259
LIST 3 CAUSES OF A DECREASED SERUM HCG LEVEL
FETAL DEMISE
INCORRECT DATES
MISSED ABORTION
260
THE NAME OF THE PROCEDURE WHERE TROPHOBLASTIC CELLS ARE OBTAINED
CVS
261
WHICH LIGAMENT EXTENDS FROM THE UTERINE CORNU, GOES OVER THE PELVIC RIM, THROUGH THE INGUINAL CANAL, AND IS SECURED AT THE LABIA MAJORA?
round ligament
262
WHILE SCANNING A 24 WK FETUS YOU NOTICE HE HAS A CLEFT PALATE, HOLOPROSENCEPHALY AND HEART DEFECTS. WHAT DO YOU SUSPECT?
Trisomy 13
263
WHEN SHOULD CORPUS LETEUM CYSTS RESOLVE DURING THE PREGANCY?
by week 16
264
LOCATION OF GARTNER DUCT CYSTS VS. NABOTHIAN CYSTS
```
nabothian = cx
Gartner = vagina
```
265
TRUE OR FALSE
| PATIENT HAS A SERUM TEST THAT SHOWS A LOWER THAN NORMAL LEVEL OF AFP. YOU SUSPECT A FETUS WITH SPINA BIFIDA
False, tris 21
266
WHEN PERFORMING A TRANSVAGINAL U/S YOU SHOULD SEE A YOLK SAC WHEN THE MSD IS:
8mm
267
70 yr/old F and no symptoms. No HRT. Her endometrium should not measure more than:
8mm
268
The endometrium of a patient receiving HRT should not measure more than:
8mm
269
What is the corpus callosum’s role?
It is a mass of white matter that connects the two cerebral hemispheres
Forms the roof of the lateral ventricles
Sits on top of the CSP
270
Bicornuate uterus vs. Didelphyic uterus:
Both due to “lack of fusion”
Bicornuate : 1 uterus; indented > 1 cm; 1 CX and vagina
Didelphyis : 2 uteri; (may have 1 or 2 CX or vaginas)
271
When is the Nuchal fold abnormal?
6mm
272
When is the Nuchal fold measured?
15-21 weeks
273
fetal papyraceous
when fetal death occurs too late in pregnancy to be reabsorbed
274
name the space around the cervix
fornix
275
What are the 4 d's of enndometriosis?
dysuria
dyschezia
dyspareunia
dysmenorrhea
276
postmenopausal women with simple ovarian cysts are not likely cancer if measuring less than ____
5cm
277
Meig's syndrome
ovarian mass, ascites, pleural effusion
278
chorionic villi invade the myometrium superficially in placenta ______
accreta
279
what forms between the corpus callosum and fornices
CSP
280
what do you suspect when you see ascites, polyhydraminos, pleural effusion, and anasarca?
nonimune hydrops
281
What is measured when you suspect IUGR?
FL/AC
282
Cloverleaf skull
thnatophoric dysplasia
283
What will the placenta look like with fetal demise?
complex, small, deteriorating
284
when the cord inserts into the membranes before it enters the placenta
velamentous
285
What is the most common congenital heart defect?
VSD
286
What is the most common non lethal skeletal dysplasia?
heterozygous achondroplasia
287
What three conditions cause bowel to be echogenic?
Down's, cystic fibrosis, or hx of placental hemorrhage
288
What is the most common entanglement of the cord?
nuchal cord
289
Where is the CSp located?
between the anterior horn of the lateral ventricles
290
Scanning and you don't visualize the CSP and the lateral ventricles posterior horn is dilated
teardrop sign
agenesis of the corpus callosum
291
Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome
Inflammation of the liver due to pelvic infection
292
rhizomelia
shortened limbs
