Final Flashcards Preview

Theriogenology > Final > Flashcards

Flashcards in Final Deck (148):
1

Which one of the following species of Leptospira is host adapted and most commonly found in the USA?
a) L. Pomona
b) L. grippo
c) L. ictero
d) L. interrogans hardjo-prajitno
e) L. borgpetersenii hard-bovis

d) L. interrogans hardjo-prajitno

2

Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA) is transmitted by which of the following routes?
a) Aerosol
b) Venereal/semen
c) Fomites
d) Aborted fetus/placenta
e) All of the above

e) All of the above

3

A bitch with cystic endometrial hyperplasia (CEH)-pyometra complex can present with which of the following signs:
a) Polydipsia
b) Polyuria
c) Lethargy
d) Leukocytosis
e) All of the above

e) All of the above

4

Which of the following is true about eclampsia?
a) The bitch may present with seizures
b) Treatment is the supplement calcium throughout pregnancy
c) Eclampsia tends to occur two weeks pre-partum
d) The bitch will be flaccid and recumbent
e) Large dogs are predisposed to eclampsia

a) The bitch may present with seizures

5

A stallion is presented to you with scrotal swelling with raised plaques over the skin of his thorax. What is your top differential diagnosis?
a) Trypanosoma equiperdum
b) EHV-1
c) EHV-4
d) EVA

a) Trypanosoma equiperdum

6

In order to be persistently infected with BVD, a fetus must be infected in utero before acquiring immunocompetence. Which of the following strains must a calf be infected with to become persistently infected?
a) Cytopathic
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Non-cytopathic
e) A and B

d) Non-cytopathic

7

During the bitches LH surge, progesterone is at concentration between ___ and her ovulation will occur ___ after the LH surge. Maturation of the oocyte occurs ___ after ovulation.
a) 2-3 ng/mL; 4-6 days; 2-3 days
b) 2-3 ng/mL; 2-3 days; 4-6 days
c) 4-6 ng/mL; 2-3 days; 2-3 days
d) 2-3 ng/mL; 2-3 days; 2-3 days
e) 4-6 ng/mL; 4-6 days; 2-3 days

d) 2-3 ng/mL; 2-3 days; 2-3 days

8

A dog with Brucella canis may present with which of the following?
a) Testicular atrophy
b) Uveitis
c) Discospondylitis
d) A and B
e) All of the above

e) All of the above

9

You are presented with a dam, which normally produces nice and healthy offspring. Today she produces a litter of puppies that are crying, producing greenish stool, and showing abdominal pain, you suspect fading puppy syndrome. What can confirm the in-utero infection with canine herpes virus (CHV) in these puppies?
a) Intranuclear inclusion bodies (INIB) on histopathology
b) Positive AGID test
c) Positive PCR
d) Positive RCAT test

a) Intranuclear inclusion bodies (INIB) on histopathology

10

In which of the following situations does the mortality rate for canine herpes virus (CHV) become closest to 100% for the puppy?
a) dam exposed during breeding
b) Dam exposed 1 week after breeding
c) Dam exposed 1 week after parturition
d) Puppy exposed at 3 months of age

c) Dam exposed 1 week after parturition

11

Which of the following is not consistent with CEH-pyometra complex in bitches?
a) P4 is elevated
b) Primary cause is E. coli
c) There's a hallmark leukocytosis of 37,000
d) OHE is the treatment of choice

C) There's a hallmark leukocytosis of 37,000

12

Most bitches present with CEH-pyometra complex within ___ of the onset of previous estrus.
a) 3 hours
b) 3 days
c) 3 weeks
d) 3 months

d) 3 months

13

What is the soonest a queen may come into estrus and conceive after pregnancy?
a) 1 day
b) 1 week
c) 1 month
d) 1 year

b) 1 week

14

Uterine inertia in the bitch is most commonly secondary to ___.
a) Exhaustion of uterus after prolonged contractions
b) Fetal death
c) Fetal malpositioning
d) Uterine torsion

a) Exhaustion of uterus after prolonged contractions

15

Which of the following best describes the dam's condition in chronic mastitis?
a) Painful
b) Life-Threatening
c) Asymptomatic
d) Failure to thrive

c) Asymptomatic

16

When does eclampsia most commonly occur?
a) 2 days pre-partum
b) 2 weeks pre-partum
c) 2 days postpartum
d) 2 weeks postpartum

d) 2 weeks postpartum

17

How does the bitch present in eclampsia?
a) Flaccid
b) Rigid

b) Rigid

18

Which of the following is incorrect about sub-involution of placental sites (SIPS)?
a) It occurs because trophoblastic cells don't shut down
b) Bitches will be systemically ill
c) Incidence is highest in primiparous bitches
d) Bitches present with prolonged hemorrhagic vaginal discharge
e) SIPS may last for 8 weeks in chronic cases

b) Bitches will be systemically ill

19

When does canine metritis usually occur?
a) 3 hours postpartum
b) 3 days postpartum
c) 7 hours postpartum
d) 7 days postpartum

d) 7 days postpartum

20

Which of the following is consistent with canine metritis?
a) Reddish-brown, odorless discharge
b) Degenerative neutrophils on vaginal cytology
c) Watery greenish discharge
d) None of the above are consistent with canine metritis

b) Degenerative neutrophils on vaginal cytology

21

T/F: Normal postpartum vaginal hemorrhage can last for 6 weeks in the bitch.

True

22

Supplementation of what is indicated to aid oxytocin in stimulating uterine contractions in the bitch?
a) Calcium
b) Vitamine D
c) Glucose
d) Prostaglandin F2a
e) A and B

a) Calcium

23

What is the first day of gestation to see the canine fetal skeletons on radiographs?
a) 35
b) 41
c) 45
d) 50

c) 45

24

T/F: Normal canine fetal heart beat is between 200-250 bpm.

True

25

What is (are) the acute phase protein(s) that are thought to increase due to embryonic trophoblastic cell invasion of the endometrium?
a) Albumin
b) C-reactive protein
c) Fibrinogen
d) A and C
e) B and C

e) B and C

26

Relaxin is the most specific hormone used to detect pregnancy in the bitch. At what part of the gestation does relaxin begin to rise?
a) 10-20 days gestation
b) 20-30 days gestation
c) 30-40 days gestation
d) The premise is false; progesterone is the most specific hormone used to detect pregnancy in the bitch

b) 20-30 days gestation

27

Stage 2 of parturition usually lasts around 3-6 hours and may possibly extend up to 24 hours. However, stage 2 should never extend past 24 hours. this statement describes parturition for which of the following species?
a) Cow
b) Dog
c) Mare
d) The statement is true for all three of the animals

b) Dog

28

The pubertal bitch is more likely to show irregular heats. There are three possible presentations of the cycling pubertal bitch. Which of the following is not one of the presentations?
a) Split heat: shows signs of estrus/proestrus, signs recede, reappear
b) False heat: 1st opportunity for ovulation did not occur
c) Aggressive heat: bitch tries to mount the male
d) Silent heat: Ovulation occurs but the bitch does not display the signs of estrus/proestrus

c) Aggressive heat: bitch tries to mount the male

29

Which of the following is not indicative of dystocia in the pregnant bitch?
a) When there have been 2-3 hours of weak and infrequent expulsive efforts failing to produce a pup
b) When there are 30 minutes of strong contractions without delivering pups
c) When the body temperatures drops 24 hours prior to whelping
d) When there are 4 or more hours between the delivery of each pup

c) When the body temperature drops 24 hours prior to whelping

30

Which of the following is false regarding persistent anovulatory follicles in mares?
a) Occurs early in season
b) Prolonged diestrus is a common presenting complaint
c) Develop a snow globe appearance on US
d) Treatment is hCG

d) Treatment is hCG

31

For which of the following is prostaglandin F2a not a treatment in the mare?
a) Post-mating induced endometritis
b) Endometriosis
c) Metritis
d) Pyometra

c) Metritis

32

Which the following is correct in regards to a mare pregnancy and parturition?
a) Early Embryonic Death occurs between days 45-300
b) Abortion occurs between days 0-45
c) Premature foals are born after 320 days of gestation with signs of prematurity
d) Dysmature foals are immature foals associated with placentitis
e) Post-mature foaling is foaling anytime after 300 days

d) Dysmature foals are immature foals associated with placentitis

33

What is the number one cause of non-infectious cause of abortion in the mare?
a) Twinning
b) Red bag
c) Poor nutrition
d) Uterine torsion

a) Twinning

34

Which of the following is not true of contagious metritis?
a) It is a true venereal disease caused by Taylorella equigenitalis
b) Stallions are asymptomatic, but the carrier state is not limited to stallions
c) 3 cultures 1 week apart is sufficient for importing stallions in the US
d) Samples for culture are to be taken from the urethral fossa, urethral sinus, urethra, distal penis (glans penis) and prepuce, and pre-ejaculatory fluid in the stallion, and should be taken from the clitoral fossa, clitoral sinuses, cervix and uterus in the mare
e) The causative agent is kept in Amies transport prior to being cultured in chocolate blood agar

c) 3 cultures 1 week apart is sufficient for importing stallions in the US

35

Case: You are presented with a mare that aborted her fetus on the 6th month of her gestation. You examine her placenta and notice that the chorionic surface is brown, sticky, mud-like and mucoid at the junction between the body and horn. There cervical star has no remarkable lesions. How will you proceed?
a) Gram stain, followed by culture on chocolate blood agar
b) Silver stain along with fluorescent antibody test
c) PCR
d) H and E stain, followed by dextrose agar

a) Gram stain, followed by culture on chocolate blood agar

36

Considering the characteristic placentitis, what do you suspect is the causative agent?
a) Aspergillus fumigateurs
b) Equine Herpesvirus 1
c) Equine Herpesvirus 3
d) Nocardioform actinomycetes - Crossiella equi ade Amycolatopis spp

d) Nocardioform Actinomycetes - Crossiella qui and Amycolatopis spp

37

Which of the following would you treat the mare with?
a) No treatment
b) Nystatin
c) Petercillin
d) Penicillin

a) No treatment

38

Which of the following is more common in goats that in sheep?
a) Abortion caused by Campylobacter jejune and Campylobacter fetus
b) Cache Valley virus
c) Pregnancy toxemia
d) Sperm granuloma
e) Vaginal prolapse

d) Sperm granuloma

39

Which of the following is more common in sheep than goats?
a) Abortions and mastitis caused by Brucella spp
b) Intersex
c) Pseudopregnancy
d) Ringwomb
e) Toxoplasmosis

d) Ringwomb

40

You are called to a sheep farm that had an outbreak of abortion. Upon examination of a placenta of one of the ewes, you see lesions suggestive of a necrotizing placentitis on the cotyledonary and intercotyledonary areas. You take a look at the feed and see nice good quality hay. What is the most likely zoonotic causative agent?
a) Toxoplasma gondii
b) Coxiella burnetti
c) Listeria monocytogenes
d) Chlamoydophila abortus

d) Chlamoydophila abortus

41

What are you going to do for treatment?
a) No treatment
b) Ceftiofur
c) Tetracyclines
d) Vaccinate

c) Tetracyclines

42

A farmer presents to you a lamb with arthrogryposis that was born about 3 hours ago. Which of the following is not going to be on your differential list?
a) Mosquito transmitted virus (Cache valley disease)
b) Culicoides transmitted virus (Bluetongue)
c) Plant toxicity (Locoweed, Broomweed, Veratum californium)
d) Borders Disease virus

d) Borders disease virus

43

Which of the following is false regarding small ruminants?
a) A does estrus is characterized as the time from the moment she stands to be mounted to the time she refuses. A doe's estrus involves tail wagging, bleating, restlessness, pacing, and vulvar swelling
b) In the ewe, the placenta will take over as the course of progesterone during gestation
c) a scrotal circumference between 15-20 cm is considered satisfactory
d) The antibiotic of choice for bacterial reproductive diseases is tetracycline

c) a scrotal circumference between 15-20 cm is considered satisfactory

44

Trevor South calls you out to his hog farm in Greenwood, Arkansas because his sow has aborted her fetuses. which of the following is the most likely zoonotic causative agent?
a) Brucella suis
b) Leptospira interrogans pomona
c) Leptospira interrogans bratislava
d) Listeria spp

b) Leptospira interrogans pomona

45

Which of the following is incorrect regarding swine reproductive anatomy?
a) Sows have long uterine bodies
b) Uterotubular junction is not well defined
c) Boars have a spiral shaped penis
d) In the boar, the head of the epididymus is directed cranioventral and the tail of the epididymus is directed caudodorsal

a) Sows have long uterine bodies

46

Which of the following pairs of animals has a vesicular gland, bulbourethral gland, ampulla and prostate?
a) Dog and ram
b) Cow and mare
c) Boar and dog
d) Dog and cat
e) None of the above

e) None of the above

47

Which of the following is true of the male accessory sex glands?
a) Bulls, stallions and small ruminants have prostate, vesicular gland and bulbourethral gland
b) Toms don't have an ampulla or vesicular gland
c) Boars don't have an ampulla
d) Dogs only have a prostate
e) All of the above

e) All of the above

48

Which of the following is most likely the causative agent in an aborted swine fetus with splenic infarction and necrosis of tonsillar tissue?
a) Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome Virus (PRRSV)
b) Pseudorabies, Aujesky's disease, Mad itch
c) Hog cholera, Classical swine fever
d) Brucella suis
e) Porcine parvovirus (PPV)

c) Hog cholera, Classical swine fever

49

Which of the following is most likely in a hog house where most of the first parity gilts deliver mummified fetuses?
a) Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome virus (PRRSV)
b) Pseudorabies, Aujesky's disease, Mad itch
c) Hog cholera, Classical swine fever
d) Brucella suis
e) Porcine parvovirus (PPV)

e) Porcine parvovirus (PPV)

50

Which of the following most notably causes a palpably firm orchitis?
a) Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome virus (PRRSV)
b) Pseudorabies, Aujesky's disease, Mad itch
c) Hog cholera, Classical swine fever
d) Brucella suis
e) Porcine parvovirus (PPV)

d) Brucella suis

51

Which of the following most notably causes neonatal pigs to present with CNS signs like trembling, shaking, paddling and sneezing?
a) Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome virus (PRRSV)
b) Pseudorabies, Aujesky's disease, Mad itch
c) Hog cholera, Classical swine fever
d) Brucella suis
e) Porcine parvovirus (PPV)

b) Pseudorabies, Aujesky's disease, Mad itch

52

Which of the following is the most likely cause of a group of aborted piglets that presented with periocular edema and conjunctivitis?
a) Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome virus (PRRSV)
b) Pseudorabies, Aujesky's disease, Mad itch
c) Hog cholera, Classical swine fever
d) Brucella suis
e) Porcine parvovirus (PPV)

a) Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome virus (PRRSV)

53

Which of the follows is (are) usually asymptomatic in boars?
a) Hog cholera
b) Pseudorabies, Aujesky's disease, Mad itch
c) Rubulavirus (Blue eye disease)
d) Porcine Reproductive Respiratory Syndrome virus (PRRSV)
e) A and B

d) Porcine Reproductive Respiratory Syndrome virus (PRRSV)

54

Which of the following is (are) reportable reproductive disease of swine?
a) Hog cholera
b) Pseudorabies, Aujesky's disease, Mad itch
c) Rubulavirus (Blue eye disease)
d) Porcine Reproductive Respiratory Syndrome virus (PRRSV)
e) A and B

e) A and B

55

Which of the following can you not palpate in the bull?
a) Urethralis muscle
b) Seminal vesicles (vesicular glands)
c) Ampulla
d) Bulbourethral gland
e) Inguinal rings

d) Bulbourethral gland

56

T/F: Increased echogenicity inside of the ampulla is seen in ampullar impactions.

True

57

Which of the following is the most common method of semen collection in the bull?
a) AV (artificial vagina)
b) Electroejaculation
c) Manual massage
d) Chemical ejaculation

b) Electroejaculation

58

Which of the following is a primary abnormality?
a) Detached head
b) Distal droplet
c) Kinked tail
d) Proximal droplet

a) Detached head

59

Which of the following is correct about dystocia in the mare?
a) Foal is usually dead
b) It's a common problem
c) It's not usually an emergency situation like it is in the cow
d) Usually, it's the result of abnormal fetal posture

d) Usually, it's the result of abnormal fetal posture

60

T/F: Fetal oversize is an uncommon cause of dystocia in the mare.

True

61

T/F: Rupture of the prepubic tendon is a maternal cause of dystocia.

True

62

T/F: 16% of the time draft horses give birth the fetus is in caudo-longitudinal presentation.

True

63

What causes CEM?

Taylorella equigenitalis

64

T/F: It is more difficult to correct fetal positioning in the cow rather than the mare.

False

65

T/F: There is never an indication to use a calf jack in horses.

True

66

What's the most common tumor in the stallion?
a) Interstitial cell tumor
b) Seminoma
c) Sertoli cell tumor
d) Leydig cell tumor

b) Seminoma

67

Which stage of the cycle does progesterone begin to rise in the bitch?
a) Proestrus
b) Estrus
c) Diestrus
d) Metestrus

a) Proestrus

68

How would you deliver a foal with contracted tendons?

Partial fetotomy

69

Which of the following should be included as a differential when you have a foal in a dog sitting position?

Twins

70

Of all the species, which one has the most variable gestation length?

Mares

71

What species has a preputial diverticulum?

Boar

72

What is the most accurate blood test you can run in the bitch to detect pregnancy?

Relaxin

73

By what days do you want to detect twins in the mare?

Days 12-14

74

If you have an EED past day 38 in the mare, when would you expect her to come back into heat?

100-120 days because of endometrial cups

75

When are you most likely to see numerous anovulatory follicles in a mare?
a) Fall transition
b) Spring transition
c) Summer solstice
d) A and B
e) A and C

d) A and B

76

What is the number one cause of non-infectious pregnancy loss (abortion) in the mare?

Twinning

77

Is Taylorella equigenitalis gram positive or negative?

Gram negative coccobacillus

78

What is the most important cause of abortion in a mare?

EHV-1

79

Which herpesvirus does not cause abortion in the mare?

EHV-3

80

Which herpesvirus causes rhinopneumonitis and sporadic abortions in the mare?

EHV-4

81

What are 2 methods of evolution of sperm motility?

- Direct observation under a light microscope
- Computer aided sperm analysis (CASA)

82

T/F: A non-compensable spermatozoa defect will give the animal a poor prognosis for any recovery.

True

83

Which of the following is a method for counting sperm?
a) Hemocytometer
b) Makler counting chamber
c) Spectrophotometer
d) Image-based particle counter
e) All of the above

E) All of the above

84

Which of eat following is false regarding the Sperm Chromatic Structure Assay (SCSA)?
a) It assesses sperm morphology
b) It assesses the amount of DNA
c) The percent of chromatic acid denaturation is negatively correlated with fertility
d) Two of the above

a) It assesses sperm morphology

85

When do the fetal lungs develop in a foal?

Last 5 days of gestation

86

What day of gestation does the mare have to be in to give oxytocin to induce parturition?

330 days gestation

87

What is the most reliable predictor of fetal readiness for birth in the mare?

Presence of colostrum

88

What is the drug of choice for parturition in mares?

Oxytocin

89

Fetal mummification is most commonly associated with what?

Twins

90

Which of the following is true of BOTH fetal mummification and maceration in the mare?
a) There is no bacterial contamination
b) The mare is not systemically ill
c) The fetus will present as a pile of bones
d) Treating this condition with intrauterine antibiotics is contraindicated

b) The mare is not systemically ill

91

Which of the following is true of hydrops of the allantois and hydrops of the amnion?
a) Distention develops over the course of 10-14 days
b) It's rare in the equid
c) Treatment is prostaglandin
d) All of the above

b) It's rare in the equid

92

Which of the following is true of hydrops of the allantois?
a) Presents after the 7th month of gestation
b) Distention develops slower than hydrops pf the amnion
c) It is easier to palpate the fetus than in hydrops of the amnion
d) The goal of treatment is to deliver a live foal

a) Presents after the 7th month of gestation

93

Which of the following is try of hermaphrodites?
a) Male pseudohermaphrodites are more common than female pseudohermaphrodites
b) Female pseudohermaphrodites have ovaries and male pseudohermaphrodites have testes
c) Male pseudohermaphrodites are genetically female and female pseudohermaphrodites are genetically male
d) A and B
e) All of the above

e) All of the above

94

Which of the following compounds would, in your judgement, be best for treating a bitch with false pregnancy which is nest making and lactating and in general being a nuisance to the owner:
a) Bromocriptine
b) Acetyl promazine
c) Dobutamine
d) Cabergoline
e) Domperidone

a) Bromocriptine

95

The luteal phase of the estrous cycle of the mare is how many days long:
a) 21
b) 8
c) 10
d) 15
e) 24

d) 15

96

Which of the following best describes the palpable and ultrasonographic changes in early to mid estrus in the mare genital tract:
a) Dominant follicle in the ovary, tone in the uterus, fluid in the uterine lumen, edema in the endometrial folds
b) Dominant follicle in the ovary, flaccid uterus, fluid in the uterine lumen, edema in the endometrial folds
c) Corpus lute in ovary, tone in the uterus, edema in the uterine folds
d) Dominant follicle in the ovary, "grapefruit-like" edema in the endometrial folds, flaccid uterus

d) Dominant follicle in the ovary, "grapefruit-like" edema in the endometrial folds, flaccid uterus

97

The time for introduction light in order to induce cyclicality in the TB mare for early breeding is:
a) late January
b) mid March
c) early October
d) early december
e) late June

d) early December

98

Which of the following is the most common tumor of the testicles of the dog:
a) Sertoli cell tumor
b) Seminoma
c) Melanoma
d) Interstitial cell tumor
e) Teratoma

d) Interstitial cell tumor

99

False pregnancy in the mare:
a) Occurs following failure of fertilization
b) Occurs only when a pregnancy fails after day 16 but before day 37
c) Occurs when a pregnancy fails after day 16 but can also occur after day 37
d) Does not occur
e) Occurs following a second ovulation in the late diestrus

c) Occurs when a pregnancy fails after day 16 but can also occur after day 37

100

T/F: Estradiol 17b is the signal for pregnancy in the mare.

False

101

Proestrus in the bitch normally lasts for how many days?
a) 14
b) 2
c) 5
d) 9
e) 20

d) 9

102

T/F: The normal range of gestation length in the mare is 335-345 days.

False - 310-370 days

103

At which of the following times or periods is estrus most likely to be seen i the cow?
a) When being herded for transportation
b) During pregnancy
c) 25 days postpartum
d) When being fed in the parlor
e) Between 10pm and 6am

e) Between 10pm and 6am

104

Which of the following is not usually a sign of estrus in the TB mares presented to the stallion?
a) Winking the vulva
b) Squirting urine
c) Semi-squatting stance
d) Clapping of the mouth
e) Raising of the tail

d) Clapping of the mouth

105

Which of the following is the best indicator for stallion sperm quality?
a) Volume
b) pH
c) Morphology
d) Motility
e) Color

d) Motility

106

Which of the following is not stimulatory on ovulation:
a) beta endorphin
b) LH
c) Estradiol surge around early estrus
d) GnRH
e) plasminogen

e) plasminogen

107

T/F: Cysts of the uterus do not occur in the mare.

False

108

The best treatment out of the following for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the dog is:
a) progestin
b) GnRH
c) Estradiol
d) Antibiosis
e) FSH

c) Estradiol

109

Parturition in the cow normally occurs around which day after breeding?
a) 250
b) 275
c) 300
d) 220
e) 320

b) 275

110

T/F: there is a live vaccine for equine rhinopneumonitis.

True

111

Which of the following is the best for inducing parturition in the mare:
a) GnRH
b) Oxytocin
c) Stilbestrol
d) FSH
e) Corticosteroids

b) Oxytocin

112

Intrauterine fluid in the postpartum mare uterus usually diapers by day:
a) 15
b) 20
c) 5
d) 10
e) 25

a) 15

113

The cervix of the postpartum mare:
a) Closes with the preovulatory surge of estrogen at the foal heat
b) Closes immediately after delivery of the foal and opens at the foal heat
c) Remains open after delivery of the foal until day 5 postpartum
d) Remains open after delivery of the foal and closes after the foal heat
e) Closes at delivery and opens at the foal heat and then closes in diestrus

d) Remains open after delivery of the foal and closes after the foal heat

114

Which of the following causes abortion in late pregnancy in cows with few premonitory signs or systemic signs in the heard and sometimes causes dystocia?
a) Ponderosa pine
b) Nitrate
c) Brassica plants
d) Lead
e) Tritrichomonas spp

e) Tritrichomonas spp

115

T/F: Milk progesterone concentration in cows can be used to determine when to breed (time of insemination).

False

116

The main testis-determing gene is though to be:
a) PPpp
b) Sox9
c) XY
d) SrY
e) AMF

d) SrY

117

T/F: Overall foaling rate at the end of a breeding season in TBs is about 50-80%.

True

118

Intersex animals occur most frequently in which of the following:
a) Morgan horse
b) Saanen goat
c) Barbados blackbelly sheep
d) Holstein cattle
e) German Shepherd dog

d) Holstein cattle

119

You palpate the ovaries of a dairy cow at 45 days postpartum and presented as in anestrus. You find a large 4cm x 4cm ovary with a large cystic structure. US reveals it to be a thin-walled non-luteinized structure. You decide it is a follicular cyst. Progesterone levels are low, which of the following is the best course of action:
a) Inject FSH to activate the ovaries
b) Inject estradiol
c) Use a progestin
d) Leave it alone as it will regress later
e) Aspirate the cyst with US sided needle

c) Use a progestin

120

Although modern methods of pregnancy diagnosis allow ever earlier ID of the presence of a pregnancy, very early detection of pregnancy (such as between days 22 and 35) are not recommended int eh cow because:
a) Fetal abnormalities occur later
b) Sexing of the embryo by US has to be done around day 60
c) Twinning must be determined later
d) There are losses of pregnancy up to around day 40 with low losses after that
e) It is too expensive until day 45-50

d) There are losses of pregnancy up to around day 40 with low losses after that

121

Which of the following species retains unfertilized ova in the uterine tube (oviduct)?
a) Bitch
b) Cow
c) Mare
d) Sow
e) Queen

e) Queen

122

Poor heat detection in cattle could be the cause of each of the following except:
a) Poor conception rates
b) Irregular cycles
c) Repeat breeding
d) Anestrus
e) Cystic ovarian disease

e) Cystic ovarian disease

123

T/F: Oxytocin is useful in treating retention of fetal membranes in cows.

False

124

The endometrial cups:
a) Are formed from the amniotic girdle
b) Produce eCG
c) Are active from days 25 to 150
d) Produce prostaglandin E
e) Form precursors for dehydroepiandrosterone

b) Produce eCG

125

Which of the following about the ovum or early embryo in the mare is false:
a) the conceptus is mobile from days 12-16
b) the purpose of conceptus mobility is to aid spreading of the luteotrophic signal
c) the allantois starts to develop from day 21
d) the ovum is released from the ovulation fossa of the ovary
e) fixation of the embryo takes place through attachment of the chorioallantoic villi

b) the purpose of conceptus mobility is to aid spreading of the luteotrophic signal

126

The zona pellucida glycoprotein (ZP3) has as its main function:
a) Site for nutrient absorption
b) The site for hatching of the blastocyst
c) Binding site for sperm
d) Attachment site for placentation
e) LH receptor site

c) Binding site for sperm

127

The cow has how many learns in its placenta?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2
e) 6

e) 6

128

T/F: The palpable swelling of the early equine pregnancy is situated halfway up the horn at a turkey egg size at day 19 after ovulation.

True

129

Which of the following methods would be most accurate to determine the best time to have a bitch mated:
a) Progesterone in plasma
b) LH in urine
c) Vaginoscopy
d) Vaginal smear
e) Estradiol in plasma

a) Progesterone in plasma

130

Which of the following is the best therapy for closed pyometra in the bitch:
a) Oxytocin
b) Estradiol and prostaglandin F2a
c) Prostaglandin F2a
d) Prostaglandin E
e) Ovariohysterectomy and fluid therapy

c) Prostaglandin F2a

131

T/F: Sugar should be used to reduce swelling in the everted uterus in bovine uterine prolapse.

False

132

The two-cell model for steroid production in the ovary has the granulose cell as the main site for estradiol production because of the presence of:
a) Phospholipase A2
b) 3b HSD
c) C17, 20 Lyase
d) Aromatase
e) Cyclo-oxygenase

d) Aromatase

133

You are presented with a mare that foaled an hour ago. There are fetal membranes hanging form the vulva, you should:
a) Lavage the chorioallantois lumen with antiseptic solution
b) advise that the mare might still pass the membranes and you inject oxytocin
c) Begin pulling on the fetal membranes
d) Insert a hand between the membranes and uterine walls
e) Advise that the membranes will be passed within the next 7 days and do nothing now

b) Advise that the mare might still pass the membranes and you inject oxytocin

134

It has been shown that injection of prostaglandin F2a into the cervix of sheep will cause cervical dilation. However, in practice it is more economic and convenient to use:
a) Relaxin
b) GnRH prostaglandin E
c) Estradiol
d) Bromocriptine

c) Estradiol

135

T/F: A good body condition score will shorten the calving to first estrus interval.

False

136

Which of the following are considered venereal pathogens rather than opportunist or occasional pathogens of the mare uterus:
a) Candida
b) Proteus
c) Streptococcus zooepidemicus
d) Klebsiella
e) Streptococcus equisimilis

d) Klebsiella

137

Which of the following species ovulates the least mature female gamete:
a) Bitch
b) Cow
c) Mare
d) Sow
e) Queen

a) Bitch

138

Which of the following can be used in the treatment of ejaculation failure in the stallion:
a) epinephrine and carazolol
b) prostaglandin E
c) Oxytocin
d) GnRH
e) eCG and hCG

d) GnRH

139

Estrus int eh bitch lasts on average for how many days:
a) 5
b) 9
c) 14
d) 2
e) 20

b) 9

140

Which of the following volumes falls within the normal range for stallion ejaculates:
a) 35 mL
b) 60 mL
c) 10 mL
d) 30 mL
e) 250 mL

b) 60 mL

141

Which of the following about twinning in mare is NOT true:
a) most twins are lost before the endometrial cups form
b) those born to term are usually born dead or are less viable than singleton foals
c) twin ovulations occur in up to 25% of mare cycles
d) there is up to 90% reduction of towns in uterus by day 50 of pregnancy
e) most twins are dizygotic and fix bilaterally

e) most twins are dizygotic and fix bilaterally

142

Which of the following can be used in the treatment of spermiostasis in the stallion:
a) prostaglandin E
b) prostaglandin F
c) oxytocin
d) amoxicillin
e) GnRH

e) GnRH

143

You examine a vaginal smear from a bitch, which contains red blood cells, superficial cells, one or two white blood cells and cornified epithelial cells and bacteria. Which of the following is more probable:
a) she is in diestrus
b) the bitch is in estrus
c) the bitch is in proestrus
d) she has endometritis
e) the bitch is in anestrus

d) she has endometritis

144

You examine a vaginal smear from a bitch which contains parabasal cells, intermediate cells and many white blood cells. Which of the following is more probable:
a) The bitch is in estrus
b) The bitch is in proestrus
c) She has endometritis
d) She is in diestrus
e) The bitch is in anestrus

d) She is in diestrus

145

Which of the following is most likely used for synchronizing estrus in sheep?
a) Prostaglandin F
b) Estradiol
c) eCG
d) Progestin
e) GnRH

d) Progestin

146

The best time to take a uterine swab in the mare is:
a) late estrus
b) diestrus
c) proestrus
d) early estrus

d) early estrus

147

On US examination of a mare, you see free fluid accumulated in the uterine lumen. In which of the following stages is it considered non-pathological:
a) late diestrus
b) early pregnancy
c) early estrus
d) early diestrus
e) late estrus

b) early pregnancy

148

Which of the flooding species has a false pregnancy termed "cloudburst"?
a) mare
b) sow
c) doe
d cow
e) bitch

c) doe