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Flashcards in Final Deck (130):
1

In the development of primary hypertension, increased sympathetic nervous system (SNS) activity causes:

Peripheral vasoconstriction

2

The most common consequence of atherosclerosis is:

Obstruction of the blood vessel lumen

3

Which of the following would most likely contribute to your patient's hypertension?

Elevated angiotensin II activity

4

Which of the following is the most common cause of coronary artery disease?

Atherosclerosis

5

Left ventricle afterload is determined by:

Systemic vascular resistance

6

Which of the following forms of dyslipidemia is associated with the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis?

High LDL

7

A patient's coronary blood is insufficient to meet the metabolic demands of the myocytes. Which term will the health care professional use to describe the process?

Myocardial ischemia

8

Atherosclerosis of the aorta can cause isolated systolic hypertension by:

Decreasing arterial distensibility

9

Over time, if a patient has sustained hypertension, which complication should be monitored with this patient?

Left ventricular hypertrophy

10

Which of the following events initiated the process of atherosclerosis?

Endothelial injury and release of cytokines

11

Multiplying heart rate by stroke volume determines:

Cardiac output

12

Arterial baroreceptors are located in the:

Aortic arch

13

The heart chamber that receives blood from the pulmonary circulation is the:

Left atrium

14

The effect of sympathetic nervous stimulation on the heart is to:

Increase the heart rate

15

A cardiologist states that an atherosclerotic plaque is unstable. How should this statement be interpreted?

It has a thin cap and/or rich lipid core

16

According to starling's law of the heart, a small increase in left ventricle end-diastolic volume in the healthy heart will result in:

An increase in cardiac output

17

A nurse is asked how prolonged standing can lead to varicose veins. How should the nurse respond?

Prolonged standing diminishes the action of the muscle pump to return blood to the heart

18

A patient has an embolus lodge in the coronary artery. Which condition should the nurse monitor in this patient?

Myocardial infarction

19

In the cardiac cycle, the ventricles contract during:

Systole

20

In describing the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis, which information should be included? After the fatty streak:

Fibrotic plaque is formed

21

Which set of clinical manifestations is highly characteristic of a septic shock state?

Tachycardia, generalized edema, and warm skin

22

The nurse is administering a diuretic to a patient with systolic heart failure. What is the rationale for administering this drug? Diuretics:

Reduce preload

23

The most common cause of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is:

Septic shock

24

Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:

Bacteria

25

Of the following diseases, which is the most common cause of right heart failure?

Left heart failure

26

Which assessment finding is most typical for a patient with right heart failure?

Peripheral edema

27

Congestive heart failure (CHF) results in which of the following intraventricular hemodynamic changes?

Increased left ventricular preload

28

While reading the history, the nurse notices that the patient has stenosis of a heart valve. How does the nurse interpret this finding? The valve:

Is constricted and narrowed

29

Clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock include all of the following except:

Pulmonary edema

30

All of the following shock states except one are characterized by vasodialation of the systemic arterial tree. Which is the exception?

Cardiogenic

31

Aortic stenosis results in the incomplete emptying of the:

Left ventricle

32

Causes of hypovolemic shock include all of the following except:

Brainstem injury

33

Which of the following shock states manifests with tachycardia, vasoconstriction, and movement of large volumes of interstitial fluid to the vascular compartment?

Hypovolemic

34

Neurogenic shock is caused by:

A lack of sympathetic activity

35

Anaphylactic shock occurs in response to severe:

Allergic reactions

36

A patient has left (congestive) heart failure. Which assessment finding(s) will indicate to the nurse that pulmonary edema has developed?

Dyspnea and cough

37

A patient is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures generally results from this condition?

Right heart failure

38

Many valvular stenosis and regurgitation disorders in adults have a common etiology. Which of the following can result in both types of valve dysfunction?

Rheumatic heart disease

39

Which problem is the pathophysiological consequence common to all shock states?

Hypoperfusion

40

Which of the following shock states is (are) characterized by acute, severe bronchoconstriction?

Anaphylactic

41

Respiratory acidosis can result from:

Reduced tidal volume

42

A primary care provider states the patient has a low V/Q ratio. This means that the patient has:

Inadequate ventilation of well-perfused areas of the lung

43

A patient has restrictive lung disease. Which principle should be remembered while providing care to this patient?

It takes more effort to expand the lungs during inspiration, increasing the work of breathing

44

Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypoventilation?

Hypercapnia

45

A frequent complication of chronic bronchitis related to the hypersecretion of mucus is

Recurrent infections

46

Respiratory failure is defined by which one of the following laboratory alterations?

High PaCO2

47

A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of emphysema. Which information should the include? Emphysema results in:

The destruction of alveolar septa and air trapping

48

Which of the following characteristics is NOT typical of asthma?

Asthma causes alveolar collapse

49

Which assessment finding indicates the patient is experiencing dyspnea?

Feeling short of breath

50

Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is generally the result of:

Thick mucus secretions and smooth muscle hypertrophy

51

Lining the conducting airways in a specialized respiratory epithelium characterized by:

Mucous cells and cilia

52

Air is expelled from the alveoli during exhalation due to the effects of:

Elastin

53

A patient has dyspnea. Which of the following will the nurse observe during the assessment?

Difficulty breathing

54

A decrease in tidal volume results in a decrease in:

Minute ventilation

55

Diffusion of respiratory gases takes place at the membrane between the:

Type 1 alveolar cells and pulmonary capillaries

56

A patient has emphysema. Which topic is most important for the nurse to teach the patient?

Smoking cessation

57

Bronchodilation occurs with:

An increase in sympathetic activity

58

A high ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio can be caused by:

Obstruction to pulmonary blood flow

59

Individuals who have recently developed chronic bronchitis most often present with:

Productive cough

60

A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of chronic bronchitis. Which information should the nurse include? Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is generally the result of:

Goblet cell hyperplasia

61

What percentage of filtered creatinine is excreted in the urine?

100%

62

The major cause of glomerulonephritis is:

Antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on the glomerular membrane

63

In a case of blood loss, the resultant hypotension would affect glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in multiple ways, including all of the following EXCEPT:

Vasodilation of afferent arteriole (causing increased GFR)

64

Which of the following substances are actively secreted by the renal tubules?

Hydrogen and potassium

65

A nurse is asked why hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome. What is the nurse’s best response?

Loss of albumin stimulates lipoprotein synthesis by the liver and hyperlipidemia

66

Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include:

Severe hypotension

67

Individuals with chronic renal failure are at risk for osteomalacia and spontaneous bone fractures because:

Of a vitamin D deficiency

68

What is the cause of the peripheral edema that often manifests with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome?

Loss of plasma proteins in urine

69

What is a primary laboratory finding in chronic renal failure?

Increased serum creatinine

70

What would urinalysis show in a patient who is developing glomerular disease?

Proteinuria

71

Which of the following substances are actively secreted by the renal tubules?

Hydrogen and potassium

72

In a patient with nephrotic syndrome, the edema results from:

Loss of plasma proteins in the urine

73

Increased levels of aldosterone stimulate the reabsorption of which of the following molecules?

Sodium and water

74

In chronic renal failure, which of the following hormones often needs to be therapeutically replicated?

Erythropoietin

75

A patient has prerenal acute renal failure/acute kidney injury. Which of the following would be suspected as the cause of this condition?

Hypovolemia

76

After passing through the proximal convoluted tubule, the urine filtrate flows into the:

Loop of Henle

77

A nurse is describing a glomerular disorder. Which disease is the nurse discussing?

Nephrotic syndrome

78

A patient has chronic renal failure or chronic kidney disease. Which of the following dietary nutrients should be restricted in this patient’s diet?

Protein

79

In describing the pathophysiology of chronic renal failure or chronic kidney disease, which substance should be included?

Angiotensin II

80

A patient with glomerulonephritis has nephritic type sediment. What will be observed in the urine?

Hematuria with red cell casts

81

Common characteristics of Crohn disease include which of the following?

Malabsorption of nutrients (e.g., vitamin B 12)

82

Portal hypertension leads to ascites because:

Back-up of blood in the intra-abdominal veins occurs

83

Functions of the liver include all of the following except:

Secretion of digestive enzymes

84

Although the term hepatitis describes any inflammatory process affecting the liver, it is usually used to describe liver inflammation due to:

Viral infection

85

The most common cause of portal hypertension is:

Liver cirrhosis

86

A patient has jaundice. When reviewing the lab results, which serum level will the nurse find elevated?

Bilirubin

87

Parasympathetic stimulation of the digestive system results in:

Increased gastric and pancreatic secretions

88

A characteristic of ulcerative colitis is:

The disease begins in the rectum and may advance back through the colon in a continuous manner

89

Mucus production in the stomach is blocked by medications that block the release of:

Prostaglandins

90

How does a chronic infection with Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) lead to duodenal ulcers?

H. pylori produces substances that are toxic to the duodenal mucosa

91

How does a chronic infection with Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) lead to duodenal ulcers?

H. pylori produces substances that are toxic to the duodenal mucosa

92

In describing the pathophysiology of duodenal ulcers, which information should be included?

H. pylori releases toxins and enzymes that promote inflammation

93

Which of the following statements explains why portal hypertension leads to ascites?

Back-up of blood in the intra-abdominal veins occurs

94

The most common cause of chronic gastritis is:

Bacterial infection

95

Bilirubin in bile comes from:

Phagocytosis of aged red blood cells

96

A patient has hepatitis. Which of the following does the nurse suspect most likely caused the hepatitis?

Viral infection

97

Which of the following structures are tiny projections of the intestinal mucosal lining that form the brush border and increase the surface area for absorption?

Microvilli

98

Common causes of liver cirrhosis are hepatitis C and:

Alcoholism

99

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDS) can cause duodenal ulcers by:

Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis

100

In the liver, ammonia is converted to:

Urea

101

Hyperglycemia can lead to chronic complication of diabetes through all of the following EXCEPT:

Suppression of oxidative stress

102

Which of the following sight and symptoms will cause the health care provider to suspect that a patient with type 1 diabetes has received too much insulin

Dizziness and confusion

103

Which assessment finding is a classic symptom of diabetes insipidus (DI)?

Low urine osmolarity

104

Which information should a nurse include when describing the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus? The basic pathophysiologic mechanism of type 2 diabetes is:

Insulin resistance

105

The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) involves:

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells

106

When the health care provider is asked what causes polyuria in diabetes mellitus, what is the most appropriate response? This occurs by:

Osmotic diuresis

107

Which of the following conditions would NOT be a chronic complication of diabetes mellitus?

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

108

A health care provider is reviewing the lab results for glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a patient with diabetes. The provider is monitored for:

Long-term serum glucose control

109

A patient with type 1 diabetes develops acute metabolic acidosis from insulin deficiency. Which of the following processes most likely is the cause of the metabolic acidosis?

Fatty acid metabolism with ketone production

110

If a patient with diabetes has advanced glycosylation end products (AGEs), what which of the following is most likely happening in the patient’s body?

Tissue/cellular injury

111

The basic pathophysiology mechanism of type 2 diabetes is:

Insulin resistance

112

A patient with type 1 diabetes has developed nephropathy. Which body system should the nurse assess?

Kidneys-renal system

113

A nurse observes the diagnosis of gestational diabetes documented on the chart. Based upon the diagnosis, which of the following patients is receiving care from the nurse?

Pregnant woman

114

A patient with type 1 diabetes has excessive thirst. Which term should the nurse use to document this finding?

Polydipsia

115

A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes. Which information should the nurse include? ____ cells in the pancreas secrete insulin.

Beta

116

All of the following EXCEPT one are chronic complications of diabetes mellitus (DM). which is NOT a chronic complication of DM?

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

117

When evaluating the kidney function of a patient with diabetes insipidus (DI), ________ would be observed.

High volume urine output

118

Which of the following signs and symptoms can help distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM)? A patient with type 1 diabetes will have:

Weight loss

119

Which of the following would be the best method a clinician could use to diagnosis a patient with type 1 diabetes?

Fasting plasma glucose levels

120

A patient with type 1 diabetes develops acute metabolic acidosis from insulin deficiency. Which of the following processes would be suspected as causing the metabolic acidosis?

Fatty acid metabolism with ketone production

121

An individual with Parkinson disease has:

Neurodegeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the brain

122

Neuromotor disorders include all of the following EXCEPT:

Alzheimer disease

123

In describing the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis, which information should be included?

This is an autoimmune disease mediated by antibodies against the acetylcholine receptors, resulting in defective nerve impulses

124

Alzheimer disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

Loss of control of upper motor neurons

125

In an Alzheimer patient, which of the following would be expected?

Loss of cortical tissue

126

The development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis (MS) is caused by:

Immunologic and inflammatory demyelination of central nervous system neurons

127

The primary motor and sensory areas of the brain are located in:

Cerebral cortex

128

Which of the following substances is released at the neuromuscular junction (motor synapse)?

Acetylcholine

129

In describing the pathophysiology of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), which information should be included? ALS is caused by the degeneration of:

Lower and upper motor neurons

130

Parkinson disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

Spinal cord swelling