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Flashcards in Final Exam Clicker Questions Deck (63):
1

Which of the following is likely to have the LONGEST duration of physiologic activity?

A. Methylprednisolone
B. Methylprednisolone Sodium Succinate
C. Methylprednisolone Acetate

C. Methylprednisolone Acetate

Methylprednisolone Sodium Succinate isn't longer duration is just faster because it is given IV. Don't want to give Methylprednisolone Acetate IV.

2

Which of the following best describes the concern with drugs that are known as vesicants?

A. It is not stable after reconstitution
B. Caustic damage to perivascular tissues
C. Causes severe hypotension
D. Cannot be given by the IV route

B. Caustic damage to perivascular tissues

It can ONLY be given IV. If you give those drugs IV then they are diluted faster. If given SQ or IM then they have to absorbed slowly. But if it is very damaging to tissues then you don't want to give IM or SQ. Vesicants are the most potential for damage don't want to give a little bit outside the vein.

3

If the patient has a low heart rate due to reflex bradycardia from increased systemic vascular resistance (vasoconstriction) caused by a drug, what do you think the blood pressure likely is?

A. High
B. Normal
C. Low

A. High
B. Normal

If it effectively balances out. Reflex response the body tries to normalize and go back to normal. She said high to normal ...

4

A healthy, 3 yo MC dog is given a dose of dexmedetomidine and his heart rate decreased from 110 bpm down to 53 bpm. Do you want to give him atropine?

A. Yes
B. No

B. No....

Her stupid answer is "maybe"

5

Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

A. Cyclosporine
B. Azothioprine
C. Dexamethasone
D. Leflinomide
E. Tacrolimus

A. Cyclosporine

6

Which of the following is not true about the
neutrophil nadir observed during chemotherapy?

A. The time to nadir depends on the drug being used
B. Chemotherapy may be halted if the nadir drops much lower than expected
C. If you notice a very low nadir, you should switch to a different chemo drug to see if the animal’s condition improves
D. If animal has a fever or severe neutropenia during nadir you may want to start prophylactic antibiotics
E. Nadir refers to the point where the animal’s neutrophils are at their lowest after the chemo drug is administered

C. If you notice a very low nadir, you should switch to a different chemo drug to see if the animal’s condition improves

7

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated with glaucoma?

A. Physostigmine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Tropicamide
D. Demecarium
E. Echotiophate

C. Tropicamide

8

Which of the following is not a feature of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A. Causes miosis
B. Parasympathomimetics can be used in treatment of glaucoma
C. Lowers intraocular pressure
D. Causes contraction of the ciliary body
E. Parasympathomimetics can be used in treatment of uveitis

E. Parasympathomimetics can be used in treatment of uveitis

9

Tropicamide is commonly used in ophthalmology for what purpose?

A. To dilate the pupil for retinal examination
B. To improve aqueous flow in cases of glaucoma
C. To prevent lens luxation
D. To prevent cycloplegia
E. None of the above

A. To dilate the pupil for retinal examination

10

Which of the following drugs is not metabolized by the liver?

A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Procaine
D. Mepivacaine
E. Ropivacaine

C. Procaine

11

Which of the following is not true about local anesthetics?

A. Clinical effect is terminated by redistribution
B. Effect can be prolonged with concomitant use of epinephrine
C. Lidocaine is the most commonly used local anesthetic in veterinary medicine
D. Aa fibers are the first to be blocked during a differential nerve block
E. Procaine is an ester LA

D. Aa fibers are the first to be blocked during a differential nerve block

12

Which of the following is true?

A. Acetylsalicylic acid is a selective COX-1 inhibitor
B. Flunixin is a COX-2 selective inhibitor
C. Caprofen and meloxicam are nonspecific COX inhibitors
D. Phenylbutazone is a selective COX-1 inhibitor
E. All of the above

A. Acetylsalicylic acid is a selective COX-1 inhibitor

13

Which of the following NSAIDs is labeled for use in bovines?

A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Flunixin meglumine
C. Meloxicam
D. Phenylbutazone
E. Caprofen

B. Flunixin meglumine

14

Which of the following drugs could be used to reverse a NM block?

A. Atropine
B. Propanolol
C. Neostigmine
D. Succinylcholine
E. Phenoxybenzamine

C. Neostigmine

15

Which of the following drugs can cause
malignant hyperthermia in susceptible animals?

A. Neostigmine
B. Succinylcholine
C. Rocuronium
D. Prazosin
E. Atracurium

B. Succinylcholine

16

Which of the following neuromuscular blockers would be best indicated in a patient with kidney disease?

A. Pancuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Rocuronium
D. Atracurium
E. Mivacurium

D. Atracurium

17

Which of the following drugs can be used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

A. Neostigmine
B. Dantrolene
C. Succinylcholine
D. Methocarbamol
E. Guaifenesin

B. Dantrolene

18

What is the recommended dose of guaifenesin to
give in order to avoid thrombophlebitis and other
side effects?

A. 2.5%
B. 5%
C. 7.5%
D. 10%
E. 15%

B. 5%

19

Which of the following is not a side effect of benzodiazepines?

A. Oral diazepam can cause hepatotoxicity in cats
B. Can cause muscle fasciculations in horses
C. Causes respiratory depression in small animals
D. Paradoxical excitement is sometimes seen
E. Diazepam is irritating when injected IM

C. Causes respiratory
depression in small animals

20

What is the mechanism of action of acepromazine?

A. Dopamine antagonist
B. Hyperpolariza7on of GABA receptors
C. Anticholinesterase
D. Nicotinic receptor block
E. Serotonin antagonist

A. Dopamine antagonist

21

Which of the following is not one of the cardiovascular effects that may be seen during the initial phase of a2 agonists?

A. Peripheral vasoconstriction
B. AV block
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotension
E. Increased vagal tone

D. Hypotension

22

Which of the following a2 agonists has the highest a2:a1 selectivity?

A. Xylazine
B. Detomidine
C. Dexmedetomidine
D. Romifidine
E. Clonidine

C. Dexmedetomidine

23

Which of the following opioids has the greatest chance of histamine release when given IV?

A. Butorphenol
B. Hydromorphone
C. Morphine
D. Oxymorphone
E. Buprenorphine

C. Morphine

24

Which of the following drugs could you use for a patient that is experiencing opioid induced respiratory depression without also reversing the analgesia?

A. Neostigmine
B. Naloxone
C. Butorphanol
D. Naltrexone
E. Atropine

C. Butorphanol

25

Which of the following opioids has the fastest onset
and shortest duration when given IV?

A. Morphine
B. Fentanyl
C. Apomorphine
D. Naltrexone
E. Hydromorphone

B. Fentanyl

26

Which of the following injectable anesthetics would
be best indicated for a patient with significant
cardiac disease?

A. Thiopental
B. Propofol
C. Alfaxalone
D. Ketamine
E. Etomidate

E. Etomidate

27

Which of the following generally requires concurrent use of a muscle relaxant?

A. Thiopental
B. Propofol
C. Alfaxalone
D. Ketamine
E. Etomidate

D. Ketamine

28

Which of the following drugs is a neurosteroid?

A. Thiopental
B. Propofol
C. Alfaxalone
D. Ketamine
E. Etomidate

C. Alfaxalone

29

Which of the following drugs reacts with soda lime absorbents?

A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Desflurane
E. Nitric Oxide

C. Sevoflurane

30

Which of the following drugs provides good analgesia?

A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Desflurane
E. Nitrous Oxide

E. Nitrous Oxide

31

Which of the following is not true?

A. Soluble anesthetis have a faster inductin and recovery than insoluble anesthetics
B. The blood/gas coefficient of an inhalant has the greatest effect on speed of induction and recovery
C. The effectiveness of an inhalant anesthetic can be affected by both rate of breathing and cardiac output
D. Most inhalation anesthetics are fat soluble
E. MAC of an anesthetic can be affected by an animal’s level of excitement

A. Soluble anesthetis have a faster inductin and recovery than insoluble anesthetics

32

Which is the most appropriate treatment for a dog experiencing a seizure in your clinic?

A. Oral Midazolam
B. Diazepam CRI
C. Loading dose of
Phenobarbital
D. Wait for seizure to stop
before treatming
E. Levetiracetam IV bolus

B. Diazepam CRI

33

Which of the following is true?

A. Levetiracetam is the drug most commonly given to stop a seizure in progress
B. Anticonvulsants are effective in almost 100% of patients
C. Most anticonvulsants can completely cure the patient when given over a long period of time
D. Phenobarbital requires therapeutic drug monitoring when given for maintenance
E. Maintenance treatment with anticonvulsants is typically considered aber the first time the patient experiences a seizure

D. Phenobarbital requires therapeutic drug monitoring when given for maintenance

34

Which of the following drugs can be used as a appetite stimulant?

A. Metronidazole
B. Maropitant
C. Myclazine
D. Mirtazapine
E. Metoclopramide

D. Mirtazapine

35

Which of the following is not true?

A. Cats generally have more dopamine receptors than dogs
B. Benzodiazepines stimulate
appetite due to potentiation of GABA receptors
C. 3% hydrogen peroxide should not be used to induce vomiting in cats
D. Maropitant is commonly used as an anti-emetic to treat acute vomiting in dogs and cats
E. Serotonin inhibits appetite

A. Cats generally have more dopamine receptors than dogs

36

Which of the following would be the best choice to
centrally induce vomiting in a cat?

A. Apomorphine
B. Maropitant
C. 3% Hydrogen Peroxide
D. Cyproheptadine
E. Xylazine

E. Xylazine

37

Which of the following drugs is a hepatic enzyme inhibitor?

A. Misoprostol
B. Cimetidine
C. Famotidine
D. Metaclopramide
E. Cisapride

B. Cimetidine

38

Which of the following drugs is best indicated for treating NSAID induced gastric ulcers?

A. Metaclopramide
B. Cimetidine
C. Sucralfate
D. Misoprostol
E. Omeprazole

D. Misoprostol

39

Which of the following immunosuppresive drugs should not be used in cats due to risk of liver and bone marrow toxicity?

A. Azothioprine
B. Mycophenolate mofetil
C. Leflinomide
D. Cyclosporine
E. Tacrolimus

A. Azothioprine

40

Which of the following best describes acute tumor lysis syndrome?

A. Tumor cells die too quickly from chemotherapy and the dead cells can plug up vasculature
B. Tumor cells begin dying quickly when the blood supply to the tumor is cut off
C. Tumor cells lyse in response to chemotherapy and release large amounts intracellular contents like K+ and Ca2+ into circulation
D. A desirable response to chemotherapy because it causes the cancer to die quickly and the animal will heal faster
E. None of the above

C. Tumor cells lyse in response to chemotherapy and release large amounts intracellular contents like K+ and Ca2+ into circulation

41

Which of the following is not true?

A. Chemotherapy drugs should always be handled under a fume hood
B. Chemotherapy pills should never be crushed under any circumstances
C. Renal toxicity is the most common side effect seen with chemotherapy drugs
D. In the case of extravasation of a vesicant drug local saline infusion
and a hot or cold pack are indicated
E. Chemotherapy drugs are dosed on body surface area instead of body weight

C. Renal toxicity is the most common side effect seen with chemotherapy drugs

42

Which of the following is not a class of drugs that decreases aqueous humor formation?

A. Alpha agonists
B. Beta antagonists
C. Carbonic anhydrase
inhibitors
D. Prostaglandin analogs
E. Anticholinergics

E. Anticholinergics

43

Which of the following is not true of drugs that act as mydriatics?

A. Act through the mechanisms of the sympathetic nervous
system
B. Decrease intraocular pressure
C. Can be used to treat glaucoma
D. Cause relaxation of the ciliary body
E. Cause contraction of the iris dilator muscle

B. Decrease intraocular pressure
C. Can be used to treat glaucoma

44

Which of the following is not true?

A. Guafenesin acts centrally at the spinal cord to cause
generalized muscle relaxation
B. Methocarbamol is not
generally used as part of an anesthetic protocol
C. Horses are more sensitive to guafenesin than cattle
D. Methocarbamol can darken the urine
E. Dantrolene is the drug of
choice for treating malignant
hyperthermia

C. Horses are more sensitive to guafenesin than cattle

45

In what species of animal would you want to be careful not to exceed a dose of 4mg/kg of lidocaine?

A. Horse
B. Pig
C. Sheep
D. Cat
E. Dog

C. Sheep

46

Which of the following local anesthetics is best to
use for a diagnostic nerve block in a horse?

A. Lidocaine
B. Procaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Mepivacaine
E. Proparacaine

D. Mepivacaine

47

Which of the following is not true about NSAIDs?

A. COX-1 is an inducible enzyme and therefore NSAIDs that selectively block it are preferred
B. Doses should not be
extrapolated between species due to variations in half-life
C. Risk of GI ulceration and
irritation increases with
concurrent use of
glucocorticoids
D. Provide analgesic effect whether inflammation is present or not
E. Some can be used to achieve antineoplastic effects

A. COX-1 is an inducible enzyme and therefore NSAIDs that selectively block it are preferred

48

Which of the following is not an adverse effect associated with use of NSAIDs?

A. GI irritation
B. Renal damage
C. Cardiovascular depression
D. Hepatotoxicity
E. Agranulocytosis

C. Cardiovascular depression

49

Which of the following is not true about phenothiazines?

A. Boxers are especially
susceptible to cardiovascular
effects
B. Commonly used in the
premed section of the
anesthetic protocol
C. Can cause paraphimosis in horses
D. They provide some analgesia in addition to their sedative effects
E. They act as dopamine
antagonists in the CNS

D. They provide some analgesia in addition to their sedative effects

50

Which of the following is not a contraindication for
use of a2 agonists?

A. Late pregnancy
B. Liver disease
C. Emesis
D. Cardiovascular disease
E. Concurrent use of opioids

E. Concurrent use of opioids

51

Which of the following is not true?

A. a2 drugs have a biphasic effect that begins with a peripheral phase and is followed by a central phase
B. A2 drugs can lead to hypoxemia and pulmonary edema in sheep and goats and are therefore contraindicated in these species
C. Pre-emptive use of atropine can help to combat the bradycardia often seen in the peripheral
phase of a2 dugs
D. A2 drugs have some sedative, muscle relaxant and analgesic effects
E. Atipamazole can be used to reverse the effects of a2 agonists

C. Pre-emptive use of atropine can help to combat the bradycardia often seen in the peripheral phase of a2 dugs

52

Which of the following can be administered as a
transdermal preparation?

A. Morphine
B. Hydromorphone
C. Fentanyl
D. Buprenorphine
E. Butorphanol

C. Fentanyl

53

Which of the following animals can experience
hypothermia when given opioids?

A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Cow
D. Horse
E. Sheep

A. Dog

54

Which of the following opioids can be used as an antitussive?

A. Morphine
B. Butorphanol
C. Hydromorphone
D. Fentanyl
E. Apomorphine

B. Butorphanol

55

Which of the following drugs would you use for a patient that has been on a fentanyl CRI and is now showing life-threatening respiratory depression?

A. Morphine
B. Hydromorphone
C. Butorphanol
D. Tramadol
E. Naloxone

E. Naloxone

56

Which of the following drugs is commonly used for euthanasia?

A. Propofol
B. Pentobarbital
C. Phenobarbital
D. Alfaxalone
E. Ketamine

B. Pentobarbital

57

Which of the following drugs does not have potentiation of GABA receptors as its MOA?

A. Propofol
B. Pentobarbital
C. Phenobarbital
D. Alfaxalone
E. Ketamine

E. Ketamine

58

Why is it preferable to use inhalant anesthetics
over injectables for maintenance of anesthesia?

A. Inhalant anesthetics are
cheaper than injectables
B. Inhalant anesthetics offer
better control over waking
C. Inhalant anesthetics require minimal equipment
D. Inhalant anesthetics have a faster induction and recovery
E. Inhalant anesthetics allow
for rapid onset of anesthesia

B. Inhalant anesthetics offer
better control over waking

59

Which of the following anticonvulsants
has the highest toxicity in cats?

A. Phenobarbital
B. Bromide
C. Levetiracetam
D. Zonisamide
E. Gabapentin

B. Bromide

60

Which of the following would be the best choice anticonvulsant for maintenance in a canine patient with hepatopathy?

A. Phenobarbital
B. Bromide
C. Diazepam
D. Zonisamide
E. Gabapentin

B. Bromide

61

Which of the following is not true?

A. Proton pump inhibitors are generally more potent than H2 blockers
B. Sucralfate stimulates
protective prostaglandins and antioxidants
C. Misoprostol is sometimes
used to treat megacolon or megaesophagus in cats
D. Phosphate containing enemas should never be used in cats
E. Erythromycin is an antimicrobial drug that stimulates peristalsis

C. Misoprostol is sometimes
used to treat megacolon or
megaesophagus in cats

62

Which of the following has no prokinetic activity?

A. Metaclopramide
B. Famotidine
C. Domperidone
D. Cisapride
E. Erythromycin

B. Famotidine

63

Which of the following is a simple bulk laxative?

A. Laxatone
B. Bisacodyl
C. Polyethylene glycol
D. Magnesium salts
E. Psyllium

E. Psyllium