Final Exam pt 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Hormones:
a. are used by the endocrine system to communicate signals
b. must bind to a receptor to cause a response in the target cells
c. travel through the bloodstream to reach their target
d. all of the above
A
d. all of the above
2
Q
Examples of ways that animals and plants increase surface area for exchange include:
a. the flat body plans of flatworms
b. folding of the thylakoid discs in chloroplasts
c. branched filaments of fungi mycelium
d. all of the above
A
d. all of the above
3
Q
Compared with a smaller cell, a larger cell of the same shape has:
a. less surface area per unit of volume
b. the same surface area-to-volume ratio
c. less surface area
d. a more specialized function
A
a. less surface area per unit of volume
4
Q
When you touch a hot pan on the stove, temperature sensors in the skin send a message to the spinal cord, which directs your skeletal muscles to pull your hand away. In this scenario, the spinal cord is the:
a. receptor
b. conductor
c. control center
d. defender
A
c. control center
5
Q
After you eat, your blood glucose rises. Your body then releases a hormone that triggers mechanisms to reduce your blood sugar to homeostatic levels. This regulation of blood glucose is an example of:
a. positive feedback
b. negative feedback
c. doubleback feedback
d. not an example of feedback
A
b. negative feedback
6
Q
You are studying a large tropical reptile that has a high and relative stable body temperature. Which of the following describe the best way to determine whether this animal is a regulator or conformer for temperature:
a. You observe that its environment has a high and stable temperature. Because its body temperature matches the environmental temperature, you conclude that it is a conformer.
b. You subject the reptile to various temperatures in the lab and find that its body temperature and metabolic rate change with the environmental temperature. You conclude that it is a conformer.
c. You know from its high and stable body temperature that it must be a regulator.
d. You subject the reptile to various temperatures in the lab and find that its body temperature and metabolic rate do not change with the environmental temperature. You conclude that it is a conformer.
A
b. You subject the reptile to various temperatures in the lab and find that its body temperature and metabolic rate change with the environmental temperature. You conclude that it is a conformer.
7
Q
On a hot day, you feel cooler when there is a breeze blowing than when there is not. This is because:
a. radiant heat waves from the sun are being absorbed by the body
b. heat is being moved away from the body through convection
c. heat is being moved into the body through convection
d. heat is being moved away from the body through conduction
A
b. heat is being moved away from the body through convection
8
Q
- For animals who have their extremities (fins, feet, etc.) in extended contact with cold water:
a. heat loss is minimized by radiation between the water and the extremities
b. heat loss is minimized by heat transfer from the blood in the arteries to that of the veins
c. heat loss is minimized by evaporation
d. heat loss is maximized by heat transfer from the blood in the arteries to that of the veins
A
b. heat loss is minimized by heat transfer from the blood in the arteries to that of the veins
9
Q
Behavioral adaptations for thermoregulation include:
a. physical contact with other organisms (huddling)
b. hibernation
c. migration
d. all of the above
A
d. all of the above
10
Q
Which of the following would decrease the amount of heat lost from an animal to its environment:
a. fur
b. vasodilation of surface vessels
c. perspiration
d. all of the above
A
a. fur
11
Q
Consider a human, a mouse, and an elephant. Which of the following are true:
a. the human has the greatest total energy expenditure
b. the mouse has the greatest energy expenditure per kg
c. all three animals are endotherms, and therefore expend the same total amount of energy
A
b. the mouse has the greatest energy expenditure per kg
12
Q
On a hot day, temperature sensors send a signal to the hypothalamus that the body temperature is increasing. The hypothalamus:
a. triggers sweating to cool the body through evaporation
b. triggers contraction of the skeletal muscles to generate heat
c. is functioning as the deffector in the internal control mechanism
d. both a and c
e. all of the above
A
a. triggers sweating to cool the body through evaporation
13
Q
Based on the example illustrated above:
a. the body temperature of the snake would be expected to go up as the number of contractions per minute increases
b. oxygen consumption increases as the number of contractions per minute increases
c. ectotherms have some limited ability for thermogenesis in certain situations
d. all of the above
A
d. all of the above
14
Q
Consider the energy budgets for a 4 kg penguin, a 0.025 kg mouse, and a 4 kg snake. Which of the following would you predict:
a. the penguin will have the same metabolic rate as the snake
b. the mouse will spend a smaller proportion of its energy on thermoregulation than the penguin
c. the snake will spend about the same proportion of energy on thermoregulation as the penguin
d. none of the above
A
d. none of the above
15
Q
As the size of some animals has evolved to greater sizes, the effectiveness of their adaptations that promote exchanges with the environment have also increased. For example, in many larger organisms, evolution has favored lungs and a digestive tract with _____.
a. more branching or folds
b. increased thickness
c. larger cells
d. decreased blood supply
A
a. more branching or folds
16
Q
- Epithelium that functions in secretion or absorption would most likely:
a. be stratified epithelium
b. consist of multiple layers of cells
c. consists of a single layer of cells
d. both a and b
e. both a and c
A
c. consists of a single layer of cells
17
Q
Some animals have no gills when young, but then develop gills that grow larger as the animal grows larger. What is the reason for this increase in gill size?
a. The young of these animals are much more active than the adult, which leads to a higher BMR (basal metabolic rate) and, therefore, a higher need for oxygen.
b. Relative to their volume, the young have more surface area across which they can transport all the oxygen they need.
c. The young have a higher basal metabolic rate.
d. Relative to their surface area, the young have more body volume in which they can store oxygen for long periods of time.
A
b. Relative to their volume, the young have more surface area across which they can transport all the oxygen they need.
18
Q
Sheets of tightly packed cells attached on one side to a basement membrane:
a. is a description of connective tissue
b. describes the lining of the hollow organs, such as the stomach
c. always contracts when stimulated by nervous signals
d. all of the above
A
b. describes the lining of the hollow organs, such as the stomach
19
Q
Interstitial fluid is _____.
a. the internal environment inside animal cells
b. identical to the composition of blood
c. a common site of exchange between blood and body cells
d. found only in the lumen of the small intestine
A
c. a common site of exchange between blood and body cells
20
Q
Skeletal muscle
a. pumps blood
b. propels substances through the digestive tract and other hollow organs
c. moves the skeletal parts
A
c. moves the skeletal parts
21
Q
Much of the coordination of vertebrate body functions via chemical signals is accomplished by the _____.
a. respiratory system
b. endocrine system
c. integumentary system
d. excretory system
A
b. endocrine system
22
Q
- Bone:
a. is a form of epithelial tissue
b. provides physical support to the body
c. secretes an extracellular matrix rich in chondroitin sulfate
d. all of the above
A
b. provides physical support to the body
23
Q
Loose connective tissue:
a. contains collagen and elastin
b. examples include tendons and ligaments
c. is comprised of adipocytes
d. is not a real type of tissue
e. all of the above
A
a. contains collagen and elastin
24
Q
The type of muscle tissue surrounding the intestines and blood vessels is _____.
a. skeletal muscle
b. cardiac muscle
c. intercalated cells
d. smooth muscle
A
d. smooth muscle
25
When food is broken down into nutrients:
a. the energy released when bonds are broken is stored as ATP
b. heat is produced
c. carbon atoms from the nutrients may be used to build new molecules
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
26
Metabolic rate is affected by:
a. size of the organism
b. activity level of the organism
c. whether the organism is an endotherm or ectotherm
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
27
An animal’s diet must:
a. provide fuel for cells
b. provide organic materials for the synthesis of proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids
c. supply both enough calories and essential nutrients
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
28
Elimination:
a. is taking food into the digestive tract
b. is the chemical breakdown of food particles into absorbable nutrients
c. is the exit of undigested material from the digestive tract
d. is the process of cells taking up small molecules from the digestive tract
c. is the exit of undigested material from the digestive tract
29
29. Extracellular digestion:
a. occurs in bacteria
b. occurs frequently in single-cell eukaryotes
c. Is defined as the breakdown of proteins within each body cell
d. occurs in alimentary canals
e. all of the above
d. occurs in alimentary canals
30
A gastrovascular cavity:
a. both digests and circulates nutrients
b. has specialized regions for different tasks
c. has two openings
d. all of the above
a. both digests and circulates nutrients
31
A maggot lives in its food source (rotting meat). This makes it a:
a. a bulk feeder
b. a filter feeder
c. a fluid feeder
d. a substrate feeder
d. a substrate feeder
32
A fatty acid that has been absorbed into an intestinal cell:
a. is hydrolyzed to smaller fragments
b. is packaged with phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins into a chylomicron
c. was originally a carbohydrate
d. will be added to fat located in the earlobe
b. is packaged with phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins into a chylomicron
33
An herbivore:
a. has a shorter digestive tract than a carnivore
b. unlike carnivores, has enzymes that are capable of digesting cellulose
c. typically has a larger cecum than a carnivore
d. all of the above
c. typically has a larger cecum than a carnivore
34
A carnivore:
a. typically has larger, more pointed incisors and canines than an herbivore
b. have broad, ridged molars and premolars
c. has teeth adapted to eating both plants and animals
d. generally has more teeth than a herbivore
a. typically has larger, more pointed incisors and canines than a herbivore
35
Which of the following correctly describes the path of food through the digestive system of a cow:
a. digestion by microorganisms in the reticulum & rumen, regurgitation into the oral cavity for more chewing, movement into the omasum & abomasum for digestion by the cow’s own digestive enzymes
b. digestion by microorganisms in the reticulum & rumen, movement into the omasum & abomasum for digestion by the cow’s own digestive enzymes, regurgitation into the oral cavity for more chewing
c. movement into the omasum & abomasum for digestion by the cow’s own digestive enzymes, digestion by microorganisms in the reticulum & rumen, regurgitation into the oral cavity for more chewing
a. digestion by microorganisms in the reticulum & rumen, regurgitation into the oral cavity for more chewing, movement into the omasum & abomasum for digestion by the cow’s own digestive enzymes
36
36. An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight, and both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade and rest, the mouse will cool to its normal temperature faster.
a. True
b. False
a. True
37
Cholecystokinin (CCK):
a. inhibits the release of gastric juices from the stomach if chime is rich in fats
b. stimulates the release of bicarbonate from the pancreas when food arrives in the small intestine
c. is produced by the stomach
d. all of the above
a. inhibits the release of gastric juices from the stomach if chime is rich in fats
38
Glucagon:
a. is released in response to elevated blood glucose stimulates the liver to break down glycogen and release the glucose into the bloodstream
b. tells the liver to make more glycogen
c. tells the brain that it needs more sugar
d. A & C
a. is released in response to elevated blood glucose stimulates the liver to break down glycogen and release the glucose into the bloodstream
39
Diabetes mellitus:
a. results in high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia)
b. results in symptoms of decreased urination and thirst
c. results in the production of basic metabolites that increase blood pH
d. all of the above
a. results in high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia)
40
Type 1 diabetes mellitus:
a. is the result of decreased response to insulin by the cells
b. can be treated with diet and exercise
c. is the result of destruction of the beta cells, which leads to an insulin deficiency
d. both b and c
c. is the result of destruction of the beta cells, which leads to an insulin deficiency
41
The term that best describes the relationship between humans and the bacteria living within the alimentary canal is:
a. parasitic
b. predatory
c. mutualistic
d. pathological
c. mutualistic
42
From a scientific standpoint, the organs that carry out physiological functions in animals can best be thought of as:
a. acclimations
b. adaptations
c. evidence for divine creation
d. good luck
b. adaptations
43
The fact that growth and development of both animals and plants is controlled by hormones is evidence for the common ancestry of all life
a. True
b. False
a. True
44
An example of a properly functioning homeostatic control system is seen when _____.
a. the core body temperature of a runner rises gradually from 37°C to 45°C
b. the kidneys excrete salt into the urine when dietary salt levels rise
c. a blood cell shrinks when placed in a solution of salt and water
d. the blood pressure increases in response to an increase in blood volume
b. the kidneys excrete salt into the urine when dietary salt levels rise
45
Sharks, penguins, and aquatic mammals such as seals:
a. have fusiform body shapes
b. have similar body shapes because they face similar environmental challenges and the same body form is an advantage
c. have a similar body form due to natural selection
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
46
You are dissecting a fish in your biology laboratory section. Your teaching assistant points out a long oval structure and tells you it is an endocrine gland. Which of the following would you then know is a true statement about this structure?
A) It secretes a product that is released through a series of ducts.
B) The gland's product will only interact with receptors on the cell membrane.
C) The gland's product is lipid soluble.
D) The gland produces and secretes its product into the blood.
D) The gland produces and secretes its product into the blood.
47
```
What is the only type of chemical signal that does not alter the physiology of the animal producing that signal?
A) neural
B) paracrine
C) neuroendocrine
D) pheromones
```
D) pheromones
48
```
4) Testosterone is an example of a chemical signal that affects the very cells that synthesize it, the neighboring cells in the testis, along with distant cells outside the gonads. Thus, testosterone is an example of _____.
I) an autocrine signal
II) a paracrine signal
III) an endocrine signal
A) only I and II
B) only II and III
C) only I and III
D) I, II, and III
```
D) I, II, and III
49
```
Prostaglandins are local regulators whose chemical structure is derived from _____.
A) oligosaccharides
B) fatty acids
C) steroids
D) amino acids
```
B) fatty acids
50
```
A cell with membrane-bound proteins that selectively bind a specific hormone is called that hormone's _____.
A) secretory cell
B) endocrine cell
C) target cell
D) regulatory cell
```
C) target cell
51
Different body cells can respond differently to the same peptide hormones because _____.
A) different target cells have different sets of genes
B) a target cell's response is determined by the components of its signal transduction pathways
C) the circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets
D) the hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through the circulatory system
B) a target cell's response is determined by the components of its signal transduction pathways
52
When a steroid hormone and a peptide hormone exert similar effects on a population of target cells, then _____.
A) the steroid and peptide hormones must use the same biochemical mechanisms
B) the steroid and peptide hormones must bind to the same receptor protein
C) the steroid hormones affect the synthesis of effector proteins, whereas peptide hormones activate effector proteins already present in the cell
D) the steroid hormones affect the activity of certain proteins within the cell, whereas peptide hormones directly affect the processing of mRNA
C) the steroid hormones affect the synthesis of effector proteins, whereas peptide hormones activate effector proteins already present in the cell
53
Based on their effects, which pair below would NOT be expected to be active at the same time and place?
A) prostaglandin and nitric oxide
B) endocrine and exocrine glands
C) hormones and target cells
D) neurosecretory cells and neurotransmitters
A) prostaglandin and nitric oxide
54
```
Polypeptides can have which of the following types of effects?
I) autocrine
II) paracrine
III) endocrine
A) only I and III
B) only II and III
C) only I and II
D) I, II, and III
```
D) I, II, and III
55
```
A cluster of tumor cells that produces and secretes growth factors to induce surrounding cells to grow and divide is showing which type of cell-to-cell signaling?
A) autocrine
B) paracrine
C) endocrine
D) neuroendocrine
```
B) paracrine
56
14) Growth factors are local regulators that _____.
A) are modified fatty acids that stimulate bone and cartilage growth
B) are found on the surface of cancer cells and stimulate abnormal cell division
C) bind to cell-surface receptors and stimulate growth and development of target cells
D) convey messages between nerve cells
C) bind to cell-surface receptors and stimulate growth and development of target cells
57
```
The steroid hormone that coordinates molting in arthropods is _____.
A) ecdysteroid
B) glucagon
C) thyroxine
D) growth hormone
```
A) ecdysteroid
58
Insect hormones and their receptors _____.
A) act independently of each other
B) are a focus in pest control research
C) utilize cell-surface receptors only
D) are active independently of environmental cues
B) are a focus in pest control research
59
During mammalian labor and delivery, the contraction of uterine muscles is enhanced by oxytocin. This is an example of _____.
A) a negative feedback system
B) a hormone that acts in an antagonistic way with another hormone
C) a hormone that is involved in a positive feedback loop
D) signal transduction immediately changing gene expression in its target cells
C) a hormone that is involved in a positive feedback loop
60
```
Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine activity?
A) the pituitary gland
B) parathyroid glands
C) salivary glands
D) the pancreas
```
D) the pancreas
61
When the beta cells of the pancreas release insulin into the blood, _____.
A) the skeletal muscles and the adipose cells take up glucose at a faster rate
B) the liver catabolizes glycogen
C) the alpha cells of the pancreas release glucose into the blood
D) the kidneys begin gluconeogenesis
A) the skeletal muscles and the adipose cells take up glucose at a faster rate
62
```
The steroid hormone that coordinates molting in arthropods is _____.
A) ecdysteroid
B) glucagon
C) thyroxine
D) growth hormone
```
A) ecdysteroid
63
An example of antagonistic hormones controlling homeostasis is _____.
A) thyroxine and parathyroid hormone in calcium balance
B) insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism
C) progestins and estrogens in sexual differentiation
D) epinephrine and norepinephrine in fight-or-flight responses
B) insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism
64
The relationship between the insect hormones ecdysteroid and PTTH is an example of _____.
A) an interaction of the endocrine and nervous systems
B) competitive inhibition of a hormone receptor
C) how peptide-derived hormones have more widespread effects than steroid hormones
D) homeostasis maintained by antagonistic hormones
A) an interaction of the endocrine and nervous systems
65
```
33) Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the _____.
A) cerebellum
B) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
D) medulla oblongata
```
C) hypothalamus
66
The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are especially apparent in a _____.
A) steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex
B) neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus
C) brain cell in the cerebral cortex
D) cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes
B) neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus
67
Portal blood vessels connect two capillary beds found in the _____.
A) hypothalamus and thalamus
B) anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary
C) hypothalamus and anterior pituitary
D) posterior pituitary and thyroid gland
C) hypothalamus and anterior pituitary
68
```
If a person loses a large amount of water in a short period of time, he or she may die from dehydration. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can help reduce water loss through its interaction with its target cells in the _____.
A) anterior pituitary
B) posterior pituitary
C) bladder
D) kidney
```
D) kidney
69
```
A product of the anterior pituitary gland that causes color changes in its target cells is _____.
A) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B) luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
```
D) melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
70
In a lactating mammal, the two hormones that promote milk synthesis and milk release, respectively, are _____.
A) prolactin and calcitonin
B) prolactin and oxytocin
C) follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
D) luteinizing hormone and oxytocin
B) prolactin and oxytocin
71
41) Which endocrine disorder is correctly matched with the malfunctioning gland?
A) dwarfism — the adrenal cortex
B) gigantism — the anterior pituitary gland
C) goiter — the adrenal medulla
D) diabetes mellitus — the parathyroid glands
B) gigantism — the anterior pituitary gland
72
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for hypothyroidism in a patient whose iodine level is normal?
A) greater production of T3 than of T4
B) hyposecretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) hypersecretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) a decrease in the thyroid secretion of calcitonin
B) hyposecretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
73
When a person drinks alcohol, the rate of urination increases. This suggests that antidiuretic hormone (ADH) may be affected by alcohol consumption in some way. Which of the following best accounts for the increase in urination?
A) Alcohol stimulates the release of ADH.
B) Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH.
C) Alcohol inhibits the binding of ADH to receptors in the nephron.
D) Alcohol could inhibit ADH release or the binding of ADH to receptors in the nephron.
B) Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH.
74
Removing which of the following glands would have the most wide-reaching effect on bodily functions of an adult human?
A) adrenal glands
B) pituitary gland
C) thyroid gland
D) ovaries (in female) or testes (in male)
B) pituitary gland
75
```
Glucocorticoids do which of the following?
A) promote the immune response
B) promote the release of fatty acids
C) increase blood glucose levels
D) increase insulin production
```
C) increase blood glucose levels
76
```
Nitric oxide and epinephrine _____.
A) both function as neurotransmitters
B) both function as steroid hormones
C) bind the same receptors
D) both cause a reduction in the blood levels of glucose
```
A) both function as neurotransmitters
77
Fight-or-flight reactions include activation of the _____.
A) parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
B) anterior pituitary gland, leading to cessation of gonadal function
C) adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine
D) pancreas, leading to a reduction in the blood sugar concentration
C) adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine
78
```
The amino acid tyrosine is a starting substrate for the synthesis of _____.
A) epinephrine
B) steroid hormones
C) parathyroid hormone
D) acetylcholine
```
A) epinephrine
79
```
A disease that destroys the adrenal cortex should lead to an increase in the plasma levels of _____.
A) glucocorticoid hormones
B) epinephrine
C) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
D) acetylcholine
```
C) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
80
```
Of the following types of molecules, which can function as both neurotransmitters and hormones?
A) glucocorticoids
B) second messengers
C) catecholamines
D) adipocytes
```
C) catecholamines
81
Predict the effects of a drug that increases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) synthesis.
A) increase in glucocorticoid production
B) increase in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
C) decrease in cortisol release
D) decrease in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
A) increase in glucocorticoid production
82
```
58) Osteoporosis is a condition in which the density of bones is decreased so much that the individual is at a higher risk of fractures. The more calcium in the bones, the better the bone density. Which of the following would produce the greatest increase in bone calcium levels?
A) calcitonin injection
B) calcitonin receptor blocker
C) parathyroid hormone injection
D) glucagon receptor blocker
```
A) calcitonin injection
83
People with type II diabetes mellitus have defective insulin receptors that cannot respond to insulin properly. Relative to normal individuals, what would be the effect on blood glucose levels under conditions of chronic stress that kept blood cortisol levels high? There would be _____.
A) a greater increase in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes mellitus than in normal individuals
B) less increase in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes mellitus than in normal individuals
C) be a greater decrease in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes mellitus than in normal individuals
D) less decrease in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes mellitus than in normal individuals
A) a greater increase in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes mellitus than in normal individuals
84
```
In an experiment, rats' ovaries were removed immediately after impregnation and then the rats were divided into two groups. Treatments and results are summarized in the table above. The results most likely occurred because progesterone exerts an effect on the _____.
A) general health of the rat
B) metabolism of the uterus
C) gestation period of rats
D) number of eggs fertilized
```
B) metabolism of the uterus
85
```
Epinephrine is an example of _____.
A) an androgen
B) an estrogen
C) a catecholamine
D) a glucocorticoid
```
C) a catecholamine
86
```
DES is called an "endocrine disrupting chemical" because it structurally resembles, and interferes with, the endocrine secretions of the _____.
A) thyroid gland
B) adrenal medulla
C) ovaries
D) hypothalamus
```
C) ovaries
87
Melatonin is secreted by the_____.
A) hypothalamus during the day
B) pineal gland during the night
C) autonomic nervous system during the winter
D) posterior pituitary gland during the day
B) pineal gland during the night
88
```
In response to stress, the adrenal gland promotes the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate substrates via the action of the steroid hormone _____.
A) glucagon
B) cortisol
C) thyroxine
D) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
```
B) cortisol
89
During a stressful interval, _____.
A) thyroid-stimulating hormaon (TSH) stimulates the adrenal cortex and medulla to secrete acetylcholine
B) the alpha cells of islets secrete insulin and simultaneously the beta cells of the islets secrete glucagon
C) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex, and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the adrenal medulla
D) the calcium levels in the blood are increased due to actions of two antagonistic hormones, epinephrine and norepinephrine
C) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex, and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the adrenal medulla
90
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the lack of a filter blocking the passage of alcohol between the maternal and fetal circulations in humans?
A) There has not been enough time to evolve such a barrier.
B) Such a barrier would probably also block important molecules that need to be passed to the fetus.
C) The maternal and fetal blood mix directly together in an area with many villi, so a barrier is impossible.
D) Alcohol has some positive effects on the fetus, so evolution has resulted in an intermediate level of filtering that blocks all but the worst abuses of alcohol.
B) Such a barrier would probably also block important molecules that need to be passed to the fetus.
91
An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants somewhere other than in the lining of the uterus. Usually it implants in the oviduct. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation for such a pregnancy being unsuccessful?
A) The orientation of the baby would be sideways.
B) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) cannot be produced in the oviduct.
C) The lining of the oviduct is unable to support the developing fetus.
D) The necessary hormones cannot reach the developing fetus in the oviduct.
C) The lining of the oviduct is unable to support the developing fetus.
92
Based on the figure above, showing fetal (A) and adult (B) oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curves, which of the following conclusions is true?
A) The mother binds oxygen with greater affinity than the fetus.
B) Adult saturation occurs at lower partial pressures of oxygen than fetal saturation does.
C) At 50 percent saturation, fetal blood will have a higher affinity for oxygen than adult blood will.
D) As the partial pressure of oxygen increases, adult hemoglobin approaches saturation faster than fetal hemoglobin does.
C) At 50 percent saturation, fetal blood will have a higher affinity for oxygen than adult blood will.
93
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A pregnant woman comes into the hospital past her due date. The doctor decides it is time for the baby to be delivered. Before performing a cesarean section, the doctor wants to try to induce labor. Which of the following would she most likely inject?
A) progesterone
B) luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) oxytocin
```
D) oxytocin
94
Imagine that a woman is in the final week of her pregnancy. Her doctor gives her an injection of oxytocin. The likely result of this is that the pregnant woman would _____.
A) stop secreting prostaglandins from the placenta
B) undergo vigorous contractions of her uterine muscles
C) increase the synthesis and secretion of progesterone
D) be prevented from lactation
B) undergo vigorous contractions of her uterine muscles
95
```
A vasectomy _____.
A) eliminates spermatogenesis
B) eliminates testosterone synthesis
C) prevents implantation of an embryo
D) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra
```
D) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra
96
Tubal ligation _____.
A) reduces the incidence of ovulation
B) prevents fertilization by preventing sperm from entering the uterus
C) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra
D) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus
D) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus
97
Two contraceptive methods that are generally irreversible and which block the gametes from moving to a site where fertilization can occur are _____.
A) the male condom and female condom
B) the male condom and oral contraceptives
C) vasectomy and tubal ligation
D) the diaphragm and subcutaneous progesterone implant
C) vasectomy and tubal ligation
98
```
In excreted urine, a reliable "marker" that a pregnancy has initiated is _____.
A) progesterone
B) estrogen
C) follicle-stimulating hormone
D) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
```
D) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
99
```
Labor contractions can be increased by the medical use of a synthetic drug that mimics the action of _____.
A) inhibin
B) luteinizing hormone
C) oxytocin
D) prolactin
```
C) oxytocin
100
Menopause is characterized by _____.
A) the loss of responsiveness by the ovaries to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) a decline in production of the gonadotropin hormones by the anterior pituitary gland
C) wearing away of the uterine endometrium
D) a halt in the synthesis of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the brain
A) the loss of responsiveness by the ovaries to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
101
The primary function of the corpus luteum is to _____.
A) nourish and protect the egg cell
B) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred
C) stimulate the development of the mammary glands
D) support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters
B) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred
102
```
In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human uterine cycle are _____.
A) follicular → luteal → secretory
B) menstrual → proliferative → secretory
C) follicular → ovulation → luteal
D) proliferative → luteal → ovulation
```
B) menstrual → proliferative → secretory
103
```
A primary response by the Leydig cells in the testes to the presence of luteinizing hormone is an increase in the synthesis and secretion of _____.
A) inhibin
B) testosterone
C) oxytocin
D) progesterone
```
B) testosterone
104
```
A reproductive hormone that is secreted directly from a structure in the brain is _____.
A) estradiol
B) progesterone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
```
D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
105
```
In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human ovarian cycle are _____.
A) follicular → luteal → secretory
B) menstrual → proliferative → secretory
C) follicular → ovulation → luteal
D) proliferative → luteal → ovulation
```
C) follicular → ovulation → luteal
106
The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is that _____.
A) the endometrium shed by the uterus during the estrous cycle is reabsorbed with no extensive fluid flow out of the body, whereas the shed endometrium of menstrual cycles is excreted from the body
B) behavioral changes during estrous cycles are much less apparent than those of menstrual cycles
C) season and climate have less pronounced effects on estrous cycles than they do on menstrual cycles
D) copulation normally occurs across the estrous cycle, whereas in menstrual cycles copulation only occurs during the period surrounding ovulation
A) the endometrium shed by the uterus during the estrous cycle is reabsorbed with no extensive fluid flow out of the body, whereas the shed endometrium of menstrual cycles is excreted from the body
107
A male's "primary" sex characteristics include _____.
A) deepening of the voice at puberty
B) development of the seminal vesicles and associated ducts
C) elongation of the skeleton prior to puberty
D) onset of growth of facial hair at puberty
B) development of the seminal vesicles and associated ducts
108
A physician finds that a nine-year-old male patient is entering puberty much earlier than is usual. Such a condition is most likely the result of a tumor in the _____.
A) hypothalamus, producing elevated levels of testosterone
B) anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of testosterone
C) testes, producing elevated levels of estrogen
D) anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
Answer: D
D) anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
109
Which statement about human reproduction is correct?
A) Fertilization occurs in the uterus.
B) In humans, spermatogenesis and oogenesis function best at normal, core body temperatures.
C) A human oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it.
D) The earliest stages of spermatogenesis occur closest to the lumen of the seminiferous tubules.
C) A human oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it.
110
For which of the following is the number the same in spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
A) timing of meiotic divisions
B) functional gametes produced by meiosis
C) meiotic divisions required to produce each gamete
D) different cell types produced by meiosis
C) meiotic divisions required to produce each gamete
111
The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely _____.
A) cause sterility because sperm would not be produced
B) cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body
C) greatly reduce the volume of semen
D) cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity
C) greatly reduce the volume of semen
112
```
Human sperm cells first arise in the _____.
A) prostate gland
B) vas deferens
C) seminiferous tubules
D) epididymis
```
C) seminiferous tubules
113
```
Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the _____.
A) vas deferens
B) seminal vesicle
C) urethra
D) ureter
```
C) urethra
114
```
Among mammals, the male and female genital structures that consist mostly of erectile tissue include the _____.
A) penis and clitoris
B) vas deferens and oviduct
C) testes and ovaries
D) prostate and ovaries
```
A) penis and clitoris
115
Which of the following correctly describes a difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
A) Spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells, while oogenesis results in one mature egg cell.
B) Spermatogenesis results in one mature sperm cell, while oogenesis results in four mature egg cells.
C) In spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis once, while in oogenesis, mitosis occurs once and meiosis twice.
D) Spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells, while oogenesis results in one mature egg cell. In spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis once, while in oogenesis, mitosis occurs once and meiosis twice.
A) Spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells, while oogenesis results in one mature egg cell.
116
Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that they _____.
A) both have the same number of chromosomes
B) are approximately the same size
C) each have a flagellum that provides motility
D) are produced from puberty until death
A) both have the same number of chromosomes
117
In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that _____.
A) oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity, whereas spermatogenesis begins during embryonic development
B) oogenesis produces four functional haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one functional spermatozoon
C) cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis, whereas it is equal in spermatogenesis
D) oogenesis ends at menopause, whereas spermatogenesis is finished before birth
C) cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis, whereas it is equal in spermatogenesis
118
```
At the time of fertilization, the maturation of the human oogonium has resulted in _____.
A) one secondary oocyte
B) two primary oocytes
C) four secondary oocytes
D) four zygotes
```
A) one secondary oocyte
119
In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become _____.
A) the ovarian endometrium that is shed at the time of the menses
B) a steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum
C) the thickened portion of the uterine wall
D) the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus
B) a steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum
120
```
Which of the following structures in females is analogous in function to the vas deferens in males?
A) urethra
B) oviduct
C) uterus
D) vagina
```
B) oviduct
121
Which of the following is a challenge to the hypothesis that bats, which produce an unusually large number of sperm, increase the probability of conception when females engage in multiple matings?
I) Female bats can eject the sperm of certain males after mating.
II) A female can actively choose which male mates with her last, thus increasing the odds of conception with that male's sperm.
A) Only I is correct.
B) Only II is correct.
C) Both I and II are correct.
C) Both I and II are correct.
122
You decide to study two species of birds, both of which form monogamous pairs (one male and one female). In species 1, you find that the eggs in a pair's nest are in fact almost always the offspring of that pair. In species 2, you are surprised to find that many of the eggs in a nest were actually fathered by males of neighboring pairs. Apparently, mating outside of monogamous pairings is widespread in species 2. Given this information, what would be the logical prediction to make before comparing testes size of males of the two species?
A) Testes of species 1 are larger than testes of species 2.
B) Testes of species 2 are larger than testes of species 1.
C) There is no relationship between this observation and the size of testes.
B) Testes of species 2 are larger than testes of species 1.
123
In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than does internal fertilization. However, internal fertilization typically offers the advantage that _____.
A) it requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction
B) the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental investment
C) it permits the most rapid population increase
D) it requires expression of fewer genes and maximizes genetic stability
B) the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental investment
124
```
Animals that have external fertilization are most likely to reproduce in which of the following areas?
A) sand dune
B) polar ice sheet
C) shallow lake
D) tallgrass prairie
```
C) shallow lake
125
```
Females of many insect species, including honeybee queens, can store gametes shed by their mating partners in _____.
A) their nests
B) the abdominal tract
C) the uterus
D) the spermatheca
```
D) the spermatheca
126
Among non-mammalian vertebrates, the cloaca is an anatomical structure that functions as _____.
A) a specialized sperm-transfer device produced only by males
B) a shared pathway for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems
C) a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes
D) a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening
B) a shared pathway for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems
127
For water fleas of the genus Daphnia, switching from a pattern of asexual reproduction to sexual reproduction coincides with _____.
A) environmental conditions becoming more favorable for offspring
B) greater abundance of food resources for offspring
C) periods of temperature or food stresses on adults
D) exhaustion of an individual's supply of eggs
C) periods of temperature or food stresses on adults
128
Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual reproduction when _____.
A) pathogens are rapidly diversifying
B) there is some potential for rapid overpopulation
C) a species is expanding into diverse geographic settings
D) a species is in stable and favorable environments
D) a species is in stable and favorable environments
129
Genetic mutations in asexually reproducing organisms lead to more evolutionary change than do genetic mutations in sexually reproducing ones because _____.
A) asexually reproducing organisms, but not sexually reproducing organisms, pass all mutations on to their offspring
B) sexually reproducing organisms can produce more offspring in a given time than can asexually reproducing organisms
C) more genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually than is present in those that reproduce sexually
D) asexually reproducing organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that reproduce sexually
A) asexually reproducing organisms, but not sexually reproducing organisms, pass all mutations on to their offspring
130
In an animal that switches between sexual and asexual reproduction, when is sexual reproduction more likely to occur?
A) when conditions for survival are favorable
B) when conditions for survival are unfavorable
C) when males and females find each other
D) What conditions favor sexual over asexual remains a complete mystery.
B) when conditions for survival are unfavorable
131
Evidence that parthenogenic whiptail lizards are derived from sexually reproducing ancestors includes _____.
A) the requirement for male-like behaviors in some females before their partners will ovulate
B) the development and then regression of testes prior to sexual maturation
C) the observation that all of the offspring are haploid
D) the persistence of a vestigial penis among some of the females
A) the requirement for male-like behaviors in some females before their partners will ovulate
132
Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by _____.
A) increasing the body temperature
B) providing access to water for external fertilization
C) increasing ambient temperature most favorable for sex
D) direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms
D) direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms
133
Which of the following is most true of sexual reproduction?
A) Only half of the offspring from sexually reproducing females are also females.
B) Asexual reproduction produces offspring of greater genetic variety.
C) Sexual reproduction is completed more rapidly than asexual reproduction.
D) Asexual reproduction is better suited to environments with extremely varying conditions.
A) Only half of the offspring from sexually reproducing females are also females.
134
```
On a submarine expedition to the ocean bottom, you discover a population of fish that are only female. What type of reproduction does this fish most likely use?
A) sexual
B) budding
C) cloning
D) parthenogenesis
```
D) parthenogenesis
135
```
Which of the following aspects of eukaryotic reproduction are found only among invertebrate animals?
A) sexual and asexual reproduction
B) external and internal fertilization
C) hermaphroditism and parthenogenesis
D) fission and budding
```
D) fission and budding
136
Asexual reproduction results in offspring that are genetically identical to their parent. What type of cell process occurs to generate this type of offspring?
A) mitosis
B) meiosis
C) cell fusion
A) mitosis
137
```
Regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows _____.
A) all types of asexual reproduction
B) fission
C) fragmentation
D) parthenogenesis
```
C) fragmentation
