Final Study Flashcards

1
Q

Risk factors for development of delirium include

A

Sensory deprivation/ isolation, sensory impairment, infection/ fever, presence of indwelling devices

b.
All of the above

c.
Functional impairment, polypharmacy, cognitive impairment, fecal impaction

d.
Dehydration, electrolyte imbalances and poor nutrition

e.
Anemia, hypoxia, uncontrolled Pain, urinary retention

Feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Best treatment for delirium

A

Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

C-Diff is a bacterial infection of the intestines causing diarrhea. A significant risk factor for developing C-diff includes a history of frequent use of what type of medication?

A

Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fall prevention Acronym SAFE

A

Safe environment: bedrails removed/down based on assessed need, clutter-free, brakes on, lights on.

Assist with needs: mobility, scheduled toileting, eyeglasses and aids, minimize restraints

Fall risk reduction

Engage residents and families

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is TB spread?

A

Droplet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pain assessment tools

A

Body mapping

c.
Faces

d.
PAINAD

e.
Pain scale 0-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Common side effect of most narcotic analgesics

A

Consitipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Tardive Dyskinesia and what is it caused by (rhythmic, involuntary movement of the tongue, head, trunk, extremities, jaw, mouth)?

A

Adverse med effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Annual screening test recommended for men

A

digital rectal exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

three different broad categories of treatment for cancer

A

Surgery, chemo and radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Palliative care is

A

Palliative care is specialized medical care provided to individuals living with life-limiting illnesses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Example of an advanced directive

A

Living Will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most common form of elder abuse

A

Financial taking advantage of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In what setting do older adults experience the most function decline

A

In what setting do older adults experience the most function decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Health disparities

A

significant differences with regard
to the rates of disease incidence, prevalence, morbidity, mortality
or life expectancy between one population and another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

4 different ways of defining age

A

Subjective
Perceived
Chroological
Functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

nurse’s questions addresses an important contributor to successful aging?

A

“Do you feel like you actively engage with life?”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SPICES (example)
Minimum Data Set (MDS) are examples of

A

Comprehensive Geriatric Assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Percieved age

A

Other peoples estimations of someone elses age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Older Indigenous Canadians are

A

More likely to live alone than any population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which population is most strongly tied to low health status

A

Low socioeconomic status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

3 components to successful aging

A

An active engagement with life, high
cognitive and physical function, and low probability of disease
and disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The most common mental status assessment

A

Mini-mental state examination (MMSE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why are health assessments in older adults more complicated

A

It is common to have more than one chronic acute issue

Manifestation of illnesses or adverse medication effects tend to be obscure less predictable

For ever change there may be multiple possible causes

Treatments often directed at symptoms not source of problem,

Cognitive impairment affet accurate reporting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Geriatrics vs gerentology
Geriatrics is internal medicine focused on old people, a subset of gerentology, which is the study of aging as a whole
26
Cultural recognition and competence
Recognizing that clients from different cultures may have different customs and behaviours and being sufficiently knowledgeable to interact with a member of that cultural with respect and understanding
27
Largest specific cultural groups in Canada
Asian Canadians and Indigenous
28
TUG acronym related to fall-risk
Timed UP and Go
29
Intrapersonal
Inside of person
30
Interpersonal
Between people
31
Stress
The sum of all effects of factors that act on the body
32
Three stages of stressors
Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion *coping can come before stress
33
The better a person is a coping _____
The less impact stress will have on the body
34
How does the importance of spirituality change throughout life?
Increases as people age
35
Culture bound syndrome
A belief system can create a limit of acknowledgement of emotional/mental health
36
What percentage of adult Canadians do not have proficient health literacy
6/10 - especially ture of immigrants
37
What does level 1: primary spiritual care
Self awareness, assessing, compassionate presence, making referrals
38
What does level 2: spiritual care look like
Administration of religious rites, counselling etc.
39
Mini Mental status exam (MMSE) Assesses?
Assess 5 areas of cognitive function Orientation * Attention * Memory * Language * Spatial-visual skills
40
Delusion, vs illusion, vs hallucination
Delusion: Fixed false beliefs Illusion: Misperception of an external stimuli, have SOME basis in reality Hallucination: Sensory experiences that have no external stimulus
41
Life Review
Form of psychosocial therapy a progressive return to consciousness of past experiences, particularly unresolved conflicts, for reexamination and reintegration. If the reintegration process is successful, the process gives new significance and meaning to life and prepares the person for death by alleviating fear and anxiety
42
Confabulation
the process of making up information,
43
Circumstantiation
involves the use of excessive details and roundabout answers in responding to questions.
44
Executive Function
involves an interrelated set of abilities that include cognitive flexibility, concept formation and self-monitoring; but it does not necessarily involve memory impairment
45
Leading cause of death in canada
Heart Disease
46
Coronary Artery Disease
CAD When major blood vessels that supply the heart struggle to send enough blood O2 and nutrients to theheart muscle
47
Middle and thickett layer of heat wall Responsible for pumping action
Myocardium
48
Age related changes to myocardium
Decreasing cardiac contractility * More time is required for diastolic filling and systolic emptying * Less responsive to sympathetic nervous system (fight or flight) Less pacemaker cells * Irregularity in the shape of pacemaker cells * Increased deposits of fat, collagen and elastic fibers around SA node
49
Age related changes to vasculature
Diameter of lumen of aorta increases to compensate for arterial stiffening Veins, like arteries, become thicker, more dilated, and less elastic * Increased vascular resistance causes a slight increase in the systolic BP
50
Why does left ventricle hypertrophy occur with ag
Increased peripheral resistance caused by changes to vasculature affecting flow to vital organs
51
Baroreflex mechanism age related changes
Decreased compensatory responses in both hyper- and hypotensive stimuli (ie heart rate does not increase or decrease as efficiently in older adults as in younger adults) Baroreceptors in the large arteries (carotid and aorta) less effective in controlling BP, especially during postural changes
52
Functional consequences of age-related changes to the cardiovascular system for the older adult?
Decreased adaptive response to exercise * Slightly lower hear rate * Increased susceptibility to hyper AND hypotension * Increased susceptibility to arrhythmias (ie. atrial fibrillation) * Decreased cerebral blood flow
53
Ventricular Fibrillation
An arrhythmia when lower heart chambers controcat in very rapid uncoordinated manner mean heart doesn’t pump blood to rest of body
54
Atherosclerosis
disorder of the medium and small arteries in which deposits of lipids and atherosclerotic plaques reduce or obstruct blood flow Atherosclerotic changes begin in childhood and progress to plaque formation Lesions can rupture or remain stable
55
Myocardial Infarction
Happens when one or more heart muscledont get enough O2 bc blood flow to heart is blocked
56
Definition of physical inactivity
Definition: <30 mins of moderate physical activity 5x/ week or <20 mins of vigorous physical activity 3x/ week
57
Non-smokers exposed to second-hand smoke increase their risk for developing CAD by
25-30%
58
High intake of _____ increases risk for CV
saturated fats
59
Number 1 Hypertensive risk factor
Hereditary
60
Hypertension risk factors
Age ethnicity heredity - NUMBER 1 thing weight physical inactivity psychosocial stressors sleep apnea low education and socioeconomic factors
61
Metabolic Syndrome
Group of clinically identifiable conditions that double risk of CV disease and increases the risk of Non insulin dependent Diabetes Melitus
62
Dyslipidemia
A broad term of lipoprotein metabolism * HDL cholesterol (good cholesterol) - good to have a high number * LDL cholesterol (bad cholesterol) - good to have a low number * Non-HDL cholesterol (total cholesterol – HDL cholesterol) - good to have a low number * Triglycerides - high reading is bad
63
What age related change results in Orthostatic and postprandial hypotension?
Changes to baroreflex mechanism
64
Numerical defintion of Orthostatic hypertension
Orthostatic hypotension is a reduction in 20 mmHg systolic or 10 mmHg diastolic within three minutes of standing after being recumbent for at least five minutes.
65
Postprandial Hypertension numerial defintion
a reduction in systolic BP of 20mmHg or more within 2 hours of eating a meal
66
Atypical SS of CVD
*Fatigue * Nausea * Anxiety * Headache * Cough * Visual change * Shortness of breath * Pain in arm, jaw, neck or throat (vs “typical” chest or shoulder pain)
67
The flu affects what body sysyems?
Systemic, paired with Resp illness
68
Age related changes affecting resp function
Degenerative structural changes in the nose Diminished blood flow to nose Thicker mucus in nasopharynx Stiffening of trachea due to calcification of cartilage Blunted cough and laryngeal reflexes Atrophy of laryngeal nerve endings
69
Chest wall and musculoskeletal changes affecting resp function
Ribs and vertebrae become osteoporotic - Intercostal cartilage calcifies and resp muscles weaken Kyphosis Chest wall expansion is compromised adn older adults need to expend more energy to achieve resp efficiency`
70
Age related changes to lungs
Become Smaller + more fatty Alveoli enlage and walls thin = gradual increase in anatomic dead space Pulmonary artery gets wider, thicker, and less elastic # of caps decrease Cap blood volume decrease Mucosal bed, site of diffusion, thickens
71
Older adults breathe more or less?
More shallow breathing
72
Hypercapnia
Too much CO2
73
Systems stimulating breathing
Response to hypercapnia and hypoxia
74
Summary of age related changes to resp system
Summary of age related changes to resp a Increased stiffness of chest wall Enlarged alveoli Weaker respiratory muscles Decreased response to hypercapnia or hypoxia
75
COPD
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Chronic obstruction interfering with normal breathing Including both chronic bronchitis (inflammation of bronchi) and emphysema (chronic progressive lung disease)
76
Functional consequences of age related changes to resp system?
Increased susceptibility to resp infections Frailty and dysphagia Poor Oral Care Aspiration Pneumonia
77
TB
Eats away at the tissue in the lungs Lung tissue bleeds up through resp tract Opportunistic illness
78
Pneumonia
An infection in one or both lungs causing alveoli to fill with fluid or pus making breathing difficult
79
Older adult symptoms of pneumonia
Present atypically in older adults acute delirium/ confusion ◦ dizziness ◦lower than normal body temperature (cold vs warm sepsis, with T < 36 C)
80
Difference bw endemic and pandemic
Endemic does not have an end
81
Symptoms of TB
Persistent coughing that lasts three or more weeks Coughing up blood Chest pain, or pain with breathing or coughing Unintentional weight loss Fatigue Fever Night sweats Chills
82
Universal Falls Risk SAFE
Safe environment (5 safety checks) Assist with mobility (mobilize at LEASSt BID) Fall and injury risk reduction Engage [ateint and family/caregivier
83
Osteoperosis
Porous Bone When the body loses too much bone or does not make enough bone Silent disease High risk of bone fracture`
84
Damage to joints in RA is due to
Inflammation
85
Theory of multiple causation regarding OA
Infection, autoimmunity, genetic factors, environmental factors, hormonal factors
86
Non modifiable risk factors for osteoperosis
Female gender Caucasian race Northern European ancestry Advanced age Family history of osteoporosis Previous fragility and > 40 yrs of age
87
Most common type of arthritis
RA
88
Synovitis
(congestion/edema of synovial membrane and joint capsule) 1st stage of RA
89
Pannus Formation
2nd stage of RA (thickened layers of granulation tissue that covers and invade cartilage, destroy the joint capsule)
90
Fibrous Ankylosis
(fibrous invasion of the pannus and scar formation that occludes joint space) 3rd Stage of RA
91
4th stage of RA
Calcification of fibrous tissue (total ankylosis, immobilizing the joint) Ankylosis
92
RA is ___ times more common in women
2-3 times
93
Difference bw OA and RA
OA: Bone ends rub together bc of thinned cartilage (Asymmetrical effect, weight bearing joints) RA: Swollen inflamed synovial membrane and bone erosion (Symmetrical symptoms, occurs at younger age)
94
What is specific abt arthritis tylonel
Slow release
95
Parkinsons Disease characterized by
Tremor Rigidity + stooped posture Bradykinesia (slow movement)* Hypophonia (lowered voice volume) * Micrographia (small, cramped writing) * Pain * Depression and dementia are common comorbidities
96
What is unique abt PD meds "Wearing off effect"?
Parkinsons meds have short half life and thus are prescribed close together Since there are intact neurons usually during parkinosns, the wearing off effect can be sudden and cause great anxiety to clients
97
Conductive hearing loss
Breakdown of parts of the inner ear
98
Ototoxicity
An adverse med effect involving hearing loss
98
Cataracts can cause
Sensitivity to glare Double vision Halos Diminished colour perception Dim and blurred vision
99
Characteristic and cause of Glaucomoa
Loss of peripheral vision Cortisol steroid use, danger of diabetes
100
NSAIDs and anticholernergics are a risk of causing
Vision side affects
101
Mac degen
Loss of central vision Blurred Vision and wavy lines
102
Meds that can affect gustatory function and olfactory and cause dry mouth
ACE inhibitors and diuretics
103
Xerostomia caused by
Decreased salivary production
104
Are use of dentures a nutriotional danger
If they are not fitted properly or missing there is a risk for nutrioitonal defficiency
105
Stress incontinence
Leakage of urine under activities that increase interdominal pressure
106
Benign prostatic hyperplasia symptoms
difficulty starting urination and a weak urine stream, frequent nocturia
107
UTI risk factors
Age Catheter Urinary incontinence
108
Age related changes to urine system
Increased production of urine at night
109
Impaired calcium absorption related to renal funciton
Kidneys help with activating vit D Vit D helps with absopriton of calcium When there is less Vit D, cannot absorb calcium Kidneys become less effective with age, and therefore cannot manage calciumas well
110
Pelvic floor disorder
Sensation of pressure in pelvis resulting in flulness feeling and incontinence
111
Age related changes to myocardium
Increased time for diastolic filling Decreased cardiac contrallity
112
Aorta lumen with age
Increases
113
What happnees to entothelial cells with age invasculature
Become irregularlly shaped
114
Barorecpters involved
in BP regulation Register fight/flight ...
115
Which Cholesterol is good
HDL High LDL associated with increased risk of heart disease HDL puts bad cholesterol where it belongs
116
Alveoli enlarge and thinner with age true or false
True
117
Anticholinergics side affect
Dry mouth and upper airway
118
Sacropenia
Decreased muscle mass
119
PD gait
Reduced arm swing Shuffling gait Propulsion gait
120
Tobacco smoking affects mobilitiy how
Affects lungs and response to activity
121
Basal Cell Carcinoma arises from which layer of skin
Stratum basal
122
Squamous cell carcinoma looks like
Scaly red papulles and nodules usually on face and neck
123
Sleep affect by age
More light sleep, lesss deep sleep
124
Temp regulation affected by age why?
Decreased peripheral circulation
125
Risk factors decreasing sexual fuction
Societal attutudes Adverse effects of meds Functional impairments and chronic illness
126
Stage 3 cancer
Has grown, but has not spread to distant organs Distant organs is stage 4
127
Purpose of a wound dressing
Protects wound from microorganism contamination. Correct. b. Provides a moist environment for the wound bed, Correct. c. Aids in hemostasis. Yes, this is why we apply pressure to a bleeding wound. d. Absorbs drainage and supports auto-lytic debridement. Think about the consequences if drainage is not removed from the wound. e. Protects patient from seeing the wound (if perceived as unpleasant). Correct. f. Physically supports the wound site. Correct. g. Promotes thermal insulation of the wound surface.
128
Two types of tissue healing
Primary intention: The skin edges are approximated or closed and the risk of infection is low. There is little tissue repair required Secondary Intention: In this type of wound healing there is loss of tissue which must be filled with scar tissue. Chance of infection is greater.
129
Proliferation phase of wound healing lasts
3-24 days
130
A description of a hydro-colloid dressing is:
A dressing that forms a gel that interacts with the wound surface.
131
1 tbsp
15 ml
132
Examples of types of meds administered by topical route?
Ointments, Liniments, Lotions, Pastes, Transdermal discs or patches
133
What should the nurse do to maximize the effectiveness of medicated lotions or ointments?
First wash area with nondrying soap and water
134
Good habit when working with nitrate patches
It is recommended that nitroglycerin transdermal patches be removed after 10 to 12 hours to allow for a nitrate-free interval.
135
Application of a skin barrier cream to the perineal area can or cannot be delegated to NHCP?
Can
136
Standard IM injection needle size
22 G 1-1.5 "
137
3 signs of UTI
Cloudy +foul smelling urine, abdominal pain, and fever
138
An order is required to administer oxygen to a patient.
Yes
139
effluent
Stool discharged from an ostomy
140
When pouching an ostomy and cleansing the peristomal skin, a good vigorous scrub with soap and water is required to remove any bacteria or stool residue from the skin. T or F
False
141
Is dehydration a risk accosiated with suctioning a patient?
No
142
The earliest indications of IV fluid infiltration include:
Pallor and coolness
143
Nurses assess the IV site and fluid administration every ________ hours.
Every Hour
144
When a patient's IV site has marked erythema and pain, it is called:
Phlebitis
145
_________ occurs when IV fluids enter the surrounding space around the venipuncture site.
Infiltration
146
Normal saline as an IV Fluid is also known as
0.9% NS a crystalloid d. NaCl e. sodium chloride
147
One of the most common electrolyte imbalances is:
Hypokalemia Low potassium
148
Mr Frank is an 82 year old patient who has had a three day history of vomiting and diarrhea. Which symptom would you expect to find on a physical examination?
Tachycardia
149
Successful Aging
an active engagement with life, high cognitive and physical function, and low probability of disease and disability
150
Stages of change
Pre-contemplation: Denial Contemplation: Intention to change bc of acknowledgement of negative consequences Preparation: Strong inclination to change to healthier behaviour Action: Behaviour change is made Maintenance: When health behaviour has been continued for greater than 6 months
151
Skilled home care vs nonmedical home care
Skilled home care services address the needs of people who are recovering from an illness or injury and have potential for returning to their previous level of functioning. In contrast, nonmedical home care services address needs of people with chronic or declining conditions who do not qualify for skilled care.`
152
To qualify for skilled care in a nursing home, people must meet the following THREE criteria:
Have a medical condition that is associated with the need for skilled care e Have a physician referral for services that must be provided by licensed professionals, such as nurses or therapists ® Require daily skilled care that can be provided appropriately in a skilled nursing facility
153
pharmacokinetics
how the drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized and excreted
154
pharmacodynamics
how the body is affected by the drug at the cellular level and in relation to the target organ).
155
Elimination half-time
is the time required to decrease the drug concentration by one half of its original value. It takes five half times to reach steadystate concentrations after a drug is initiated or to completely eliminate a drug from the body after a drug is discontinued.
156
It takes ____ half times to reach steadystate conc. after drug is initiated or to completly eliminate drug from body
5
157
Clearance Rate
measures the volume of blood from which the drug is eliminated per unit of time.
158
Major age related change affecting medication clearance rate
Decrease GFR
159
Beers Criteria
medications are deemed inappropriate if they are ineffective or have poor safety profiles, or if better drugs are available in relation to older adults
160
anticholinergic adverse effects
Many OTC agents commonly used for coughs, colds and sleep problems contain anticholinergic ingredients. anticholinergic agents have been identified as a causative factor for significant and long-term cognitive impairment in older adults, including delirium and mild cognitive impairment
161
Tardive dyskinesia
a constellation of rhythmic and involuntary movements of the trunk, extremities, jaw, lips as a result of antipsychotic medication
162
Medication Reconciliation
the process of identifying a patient’s medication errors, such as omissions, duplications, dosing errors or drug interactions during transitions in care. The three steps involved in the process follow: (1) verification by collecting an accurate list; (2) clarification of questions about drugs, dosages, frequency and other pertinent information and (3) reconciliation of any discrepancies
163
Learned helplessness
the experience of uncontrollable events that leads to expectations that future events will also be uncontrollable.
164
Executive function
multifaceted and involves an interrelated set of abilities that include cognitive flexibility, concept formation and self-monitoring; but it does not necessarily involve memory Executive function deficits begin in the early stages of dementia (difficulty with abstract thought)
165
affective function.
refers to his or her expressions of emotions, particularly facial expressions of underlying emotions.
166
CAM
Confusion assessment method - Diagnosis tool for delirium 1 Acute onset/fluctuating course AND 2 Inattention AND ONE of: 3 Disorganized thinking 4 Altered LOC
167
Anosognosia
Anosognosia, which is the diagnostic term for lack of awareness, is assessed by having the person who is being evaluated and a family member or caregiver independently answer questions related to the person’s behaviours and daily activities
168
Distinguishing characteritistcs of delirium
Acute Sudden Temporary Preventable Treatable
169
PD is what type of dementia?
Lewy body
170
AD is caused by
Plaque in the brain
171
Pharm approach to dementia
Cholinesterase inhibitors
172
Slow drug clearance in oldr adults related to
increased body fat Decreased lean muscle Decreased body water Reduced hepatic blood flow Decreased serum albumin
173
Otosclerosis
is the sensorineural hearing loss associated with an abnormality of the auditory structures - associated with younger age hearing loss
174
Presbycusis
is the sensorineural hearing loss associated with an age-related degeneration of the auditory structures.
175
health care proxy (
responsible for communicating the person’s wishes if he or she becomes incompetent or unable to communicate them.
176
Which layer of the heart is associated with hypertension
hypertension
177
Ductectasia
Enlargement of the aveoli
178
Ostopenia
Milder osteoperosis
179
Which medication is a risk for fall relatd injuries
Anticoagulants Anticholinergics
180
Chronic pain length
Lasting 3-6 months longer than expected healing time
181
PAINAD (stands for)
Pain assessment in Advanced Dementia
182
183
AND
Allow Natural Death
184
Most common type of elder abuse
Financial exploitation and emotional abuse
185
32. When using the PAIN-AD for assessing pain in patients with Advanced Dementia, what are two of the five items being assessed?
a. Breathing (labored breathing, long period of hyperventilation) b. Negative vocalization (moans, crying, negative low voice speech, repeatedly calling out) c. Facial expressions (flat affect, grimacing, confused look, change of demeanor, etc.) d. Body language: (tense, fidgeting, pacing, fist clenched, pulling away) * e. Consolability (Can you console or not?) 0, 1 or 2 (0 being normal/baseline, two be Always)
186
Non-Opioid Analgesics typically better for what type of pain
Bone and inflammation
187
Adjuvant Analgesics
Medication that have a primary indication other than treatment of pain but relieve pain in some conditions. Caffiene helps relieve pain IN the presence of acetiminaphin
188
36. What assessments are critical to perform when evaluating the effect of a narcotic analgesic?
Sedation + VS
189
POSS Scale is?
Pasero Opiod induced Sedation Scale
190
PACSLAC
Pain Assessment Checklist for Seniors with a Limited Ability to Communicate
191
S/S at end of life
Altered breathing patterns: Changing circulation: Decreased muscle tone: Decreased senses (except hearing)