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First Aid 149-172 Flashcards

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1
Q

Receptors used by CMV

A

Integrins (heparin sulfate)

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2
Q

Receptor used by EBV

A

CD21

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3
Q

Receptors used by HIV

A

CD4, CXCR4, CCR5

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4
Q

Receptor used by Rabies

A

Nicotinic AChR

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5
Q

Receptor used by Rhinovirus

A

ICAM-I

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6
Q

Bunyaviruses acquire their envelope from

A

the golgi

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7
Q

BOAR for segmented viruses

A

Bunyavirus - 3
Orthomyxovirus - 8
Arenavirus - 2
Reovirus - 11

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8
Q

“PERCH” for picornaviruses

A 
Polivirus
Echovirus
Rhinovirus
Coxsackie virus
Hepatitis A
All but rhino (acid labile) are enteroviruses (acid stable)
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9
Q

Yellow fever transmitted by

A

Aedes moasquito

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10
Q

Malaria transmitted by

A

Anopheles mosquito

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11
Q

Black vomit, think

A 
yellow fever;
Flavivirus - ssRNA, positive sense;
jaundice, bloody vomit and diarrhea;
LA vaccine;
Aedes mosquito
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12
Q

Uncommon complication of rotavirus vaccine

A

insussusception

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13
Q

Toxin in rotavirus

A

NSP4 –> villous destruction and atrophy –> Na absorption, K loss –> watery diarrhea

Reovirus - ssRNA positive sense, naked, 11 segments

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14
Q

Eastern Equine Encephalitis

Western Equine Encephalitis

A

Togaviruses
enveloped
ssRNA positive sense

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15
Q

Give what for RSV in infants

A

Ribavarin

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16
Q

Negri bodies of rabies (rhabdovirus) found where?

A

Hippcampus

  • -Purkinje cells
  • -Pyramidal cells
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17
Q

Antigenetic drift

A

Minor changes/point mutations in HA or NA genes

Can cause epidemics (shift –> pandemics)

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18
Q

Only RNA virus that replicates in the nucleus

A

Influenza (orthomyxovirus)

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19
Q

Guillan Barre, think a few causes

A

Influenza

Campylobacter

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20
Q

Influenza virus attaches to

A

sialic acid residues

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21
Q

MOA Amantadine

A

M2 protein inhibitor - prevents viral (influenza) uncoating;

M2 normally allows the virus to manipulate pH to facilitate viral entry into cells

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22
Q

Surface F (Fusion) protein in Paramyxovirus - function

A

causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form syncytia (multinucleated cells)

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23
Q

The live (Sabin) polio vaccine induces what response?

A

IgA

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24
Q

Vitamin A supplementation can reduce morbidity and mortality in children suffering from

Study These Flashcards
A

Measles (rubeola - paramyxovirus)

25
What gene mutation in CMV confers resistance to Ganciclovir?
UL97 kinase use Foscarnet instead latency mostly in monocytes
26
Cutaneous neurofibromas in NF1 are prdominantly composed of
Schwann cells | neural crest
27
(Event rate in control group) - (Event rate in experimental group) =
Absolute risk reduction | c/c+d) OVER (a/a+b
28
Why is anticipation of HD seen more from paternal transmission?
CAG repeat in abnormal HTT gene (chrom 4p) more rapidly increases during spermatogenesis than during oogenesis
29
Which hepatitis viruses are naked?
HAV | HEV
30
What is the reason for antigenic variation of HCV envelope proteins?
No 3'-5' exonuclease activity
31
Smokers develop aversion to to smoking, what virus?
HAV
32
Liver biopsy shows Councilman bodies, what virus?
HAV
33
Liver biopsy shows granular eosinophilic ground glass appearance, cytotoxic T cells mediate damage, what virus?
HBV/HDV
34
Liver biopsy shows lymphoid aggregates with focal areas of macrovesicular steatosis within portal tracts, what virus?
HCV
35
Liver biopsy shows patchy necrosis, what virus?
HEV
36
What hepatitis virus causes fulminant liver failure in pregnant women?
HEV
37
What confers immunity to HIV?
Homozygous mutated CCR5; | Heterozygous mutated CCR5 confers slower infection course
38
What receptor gets infected in the early stages of HIV infection? In the late stages?
CCR5 - early | CXCR4 - late
39
Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused by
EBV | seen in HIV patients CD4
40
Nonenhancing areas of demyelination on MRI; | AIDS illness
JC virus - progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy; | CD4
41
Ring enhancing single lesion on MRI; | AIDS patient
CNS Lymphoma (EBV) - CD20, CD79a
42
Green metallic sheen on EMB agar, organism?
E. Coli
43
What virus can cause hydrops fetalis if exposure during pregnancy?
Parvovirus B19
44
Erythematous sand-paper like rash with fever and sore throat; Childhoos exanthem; Organism?
Strep pyogenes; | Scarlet fever
45
Haemophilus ducreyi - symptoms
PAINFUL genital ulcer with exudate; inguinal adenopathy; Chancroid
46
Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3 - symptoms
painless genital ulcers but painful lymphadenopathy (buboes); Lymphogranuloma venereum
47
Name the antibiotic: | Inhibitor of mRNA synthesis/inhibits RNA polymerase
Rifampin
48
Name the antibiotic: | Makes free radicals that challenge microbe DNA integrity
Metronidazole
49
Name the antibiotic: | inhibit PABA --> DHF = no folid acid synthesis and reduction
Sulfonamides - -Sulfamethoxazole - -Sulfisoxazole - -Sulfadiazine
50
Name the antibiotic: | Inhibits DHF --> THF
Trimethoprim | Methotrexate for human reaction, Pyramethamine for protazoan reaction
51
Name the antibiotic: | Inhibits peptidogylcan *synthesis* - anti-cell wall
Vancomycin | Bacitracin
52
Name the antibiotic class: | Inhibits peptidoglycan cross-linking - anti-cell wall
``` Penicillinase-sensitive penicillins; Penicillinase-resistant penicillins; Antipseudomonals; Carbapenems; Monobactams; Cephalosporins ```
53
Name the antibiotic class: | Inhibit 30S subunit - inhibit protein synthesis
Aminoglycosides; | Tetracyclines
54
Name the antibiotic class: | Inhibit 50S subunit - inhibit protein synthesis
``` Macrolides; Streptogramins; Chloramphenicol; Clindamycin; Linezolid ```
55
Name the antibiotic class: | Inhibit DNA gyrase
Fluoroquinolones; | Quinolone
56
What are the antipseudomonal penicillins?
Ticarcillin; Piperacillin; Use with beta-lactamase inhibitors ie clavulanic acid, sulbactam, tazobactam
57
What cephalosprin is routinely used before surgery to prevent staph wound infections?
Cefazolin | 1st generation
58
"HENS PecK" - explain
``` 2nd generation cephalosporins: Cefeclor, Cefoxitin, Cefuroxime for: H. influenzae Enterobacter Neisseria Serratia Proteus E Coli Klebsiella ```
59
Use what third generation cephalosporin for Pseudomonas?
Ceftazidime; | Only other cephalosporin that covers pseudomonas is Ceftaroline - 5th gen

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