Fiser ABSITE CH. 13 Inflammation and Cytokines Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Fiser ABSITE CH. 13 Inflammation and Cytokines Deck (51):
1

Inflammation phases: injury leads to exposed ___; ____ release, tissue factor release from ____

collagen, platelet-activating factor, endothelium

2

In inflammation platelets bind and release ___ which leads to PMN and macrophage recruitment.

PDGF

3

Play a dominant role in wound healing, release important growth factors (PDGF) and cytokines IL-1 and TNF-a.

Macrophages

4

Similar effect as TGF-beta. Chemotactic and activates inflammatory cells (PMNs and macrophages). Chemotactic and activates fibroblasts -> collagen and ECM proteins. Angiogenesis. Epithelialization. Chemotactic for smooth muscle cells. Has been shown to accelerate wound healing.

PDGF; (EGF and FGF also help chemotaxis, angiogenesis and epithelialization)

5

Stimulates angiogenesis and is involved in tumor metastasis.

V-EGF

6

Not stored, generated by phospholipase in endothelium and other cells. Stimulates many types of inflammatory cells; chemotactic; increased adhesion molecules

Platelet activating factor (PAF)

7

PMNs last ____ days in tissues, ___ days in blood

1-2, 7

8

Platelets last ___ days

7-10

9

Have IgE receptors that bind allergen. Release major basic protein which stimulates basophils and mast cells to release histamine. Increased in parasitic infections.

Eosinophils

10

Have IgE receptors. Main source of histamine in blood. Not found in tissue.

Basophils

11

Primary cell type in type I reactions. Main source of histamine in tissues other than stomach.

Mast cells

12

Vasodilation, tissue edema, postcapillary leakage. Primary effectors in type I hypersensitivity reactions (allergic reactions)

Histamine

13

Vasodilation, increased permeability, pain contraction of pulmonary arterioles. ACE inactivates.

Bradykinin

14

Has arginine percursor. Activates guanylate cyclase and increases cGMP, resulting in vascular smooth muscle dilation. Also called endotheliu-derived relaxing factor (EDRF).

Nitric Oxide

15

What does endothelin do?

vascular smooth muscle constriction

16

Main initial cytokine response to injury and infection is release of ___ and ____

TNF-alpha and IL-1

17

What is the largest producer of TNF?

macrophage

18

What cytokine is responsible for cachexia in cancer patients?

TNF-alpha

19

What is the main source of IL-1

macrophage

20

IL-1 effects are similar to ___ and synergizes with it.

TNF

21

Alveolar macrophages cause fever with atelectasis by releasing ___

IL-1

22

IL-1 also increases what other IL production?

IL-6

23

IL-1 responsible for fever which is mediated by ___ in hypothalamus.

PGE2 (NSAIDs decrease)

24

Which IL increases hepatic acute phase proteins (CRP, amyloid A) and lymphocyte activation.

IL-6

25

Released by lymphocytes in response to viral infection or other stimulates. Active macrophages, natural killer cells and cytotoxic T cells. Inhibit viral replication.

Interferon

26

Name 2 proteins decreased as result of hepatic acute phase response.

albumin, transferrin

27

Provides rolling adhesion. Located on leukocytes, bind to ones on endothelial and platelets

Selectins (L-selectins, E- and P- respectively)

28

On leukocytes; bind ICAMs; anchoring adhesion.

Beta 2 Integrins

29

ICAM, VCAM, PECAM, ELAM on endothelial cells, bind beta-2 integrin molecules located on leukocytes and platelets. These are also involved in ___

endothelial migration

30

In the classic complement pathway, antigen-antibody complexes activate. Which 2 abx? And which 3 factors are found only in the classic pathway?

IgG, IgM
Factors C1, C2, and C4

31

The alternative complement pathway, endotoxin, bacteria, other stimuli activate. What 3 factors are found only in this pathway?

B, D and P (properdin)

32

What is the common convergence point for classic and alternative complement pathways?

C3

33

What electrolyte is required for both complement pathways?

Mg

34

What are the 3 anaphylatoxins in the complement pathway that increase vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction (bronchi); activate mast cells and basophils

C3a, C4a, C5a

35

What forms the membrane attack complex?

C5b-9b

36

What part of the complement cascade functions in opsonization?

C3b

37

What 2 parts of the complement cascade functions in chemotaxis?

C3a and C5a

38

Prostaglandins:
___ and ___ - vasodilation, bronchodilation, increased permeability; inhibit platelets;

___ - vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, increased permeability

PGI2 and PGE2;
PGD2

39

___ inhibit cycloxygenase reversibly;

NSAIDs

40

___ inhibits cycloxygenase irreversibly, inhibits platelets adhesion by decreaseing ___

Aspirin, TXA2

41

Inhibit phospholipase, which converts phospholipids to arachidonic acid -> inhibits inflammation

Steroids

42

What are the slow-reaching substances of anaphylaxis; bronchoconstriction; vasoconstriction followed by increased permeability (wheal and flare)

Leukotrienes

43

Which leukotriene is chemotactic?

LTB4

44

Catecholamines peak how many hours after injury?

24-48

45

What is the primary mediator of reperfusion injury?

PMNs

46

NADPH-oxidase system enzyme defect in PMNs. Results in decreased superoxide radical (O2-) formation.

Chronic granulomatous disease

47

Most potent stimulus for hepatic acute phase response

IL-6

48

T/F CRP is increases in hepatic acute phase response

T

49

T/F Thyroid hormone plays a major role in injury

F

50

T/F RBCs have antioxidant properties

T

51

Antioxidant properties of RBCs

Superoxide dismutase and catalase