FOCUSED STUDY 2 Flashcards

(136 cards)

1
Q

Naltrexone rx & SE

A

rx alcohol use disorders; reduces craving for alcohol

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2
Q

Bilateral damage to the medial temporal lobe causes__ & includes __ brain regions

A

deficits in declarative memory; incudes the hippocampus & entorhinal cortex; important for long-term declarative memory.

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3
Q

Tx for alcohol use disorder causing unpleasant symptoms when taken w. alcohol

A

disulfiram (Antabuse)

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4
Q

generalized onset seizures always include

A

loss of consciousness

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5
Q

Steven’s Power Law

A

magnitude estimation; depends on relationship between physical stimuli & it’s perceived magnitude

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6
Q

Fechner’s Law

A

magnitude estimation; just noticeable difference increases w/ each degree of intensity

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7
Q

Migraine Tx

A

temperature biofeedback + relaxation trianing is more effective together

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8
Q

Gender Confirmation Surgery is best for (dx + demographic)

A

decreasing symptoms of gender disphoria; trans-male have better outcomes

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9
Q

SE of subcortical NCDs

A

forgetfulness, apathy, & psychomotor retardation (or does not include aphasia)

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10
Q

common cortical NCD SE

A

aphasia

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11
Q

primary goals of DBT

A

address behaviors that interfer w/…
* quality-of-life
* therapy
* life-threatening

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12
Q

repeated acts of aggression dx criteria

A

conduct disorder

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13
Q

2020 suicide rates were highest for

A

men 75+

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14
Q

postpartum depression w/i the first year of birth affect ___% of women

A

7%

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15
Q

__ Therapy is equally effective for Black & White youth

A

Multisystemic Therapy

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16
Q

adding MI to CBT for GAD tx is most effective for

A

reducing worry for those w/ high worry severity than CBT alone

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17
Q

premature ejaculation meds

A

SSRI to increase serotonin

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18
Q

deficits in face recognition are characteristics of

A

ASD

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19
Q

onset for specific phobia is a median age of __ & mean age of__

A

7 to 11y/o; 10y/o

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20
Q

Gestalt boundary distrubances

A
  • Introjection- adopt others’ beliefs/standards
  • Projection- putting own neg traits onto others
  • Reflection- do onto self as do onto others
  • Deflection- avoiding the environment
  • Confluence- blur between self & others
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21
Q

ACT: psychological pain

A

universal & normal

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22
Q

CBT: preventing suicide

A

deactivate “suicidal mode”

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23
Q

transtheoretical model motivation factors

A
  • decision balance- Contemplation (+ self-eval)
  • self-efficacy- Prep + Action
  • tempatation- PC-P
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24
Q

Howard attributed success in the first few session of tx to

A

increased hopefulness

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25
Howard & Co phase model
1. remoralization- 1st few sessions, increased hopefulness 2. remediation- next 16 sessions, reduced symptoms 3. rehabilitation- unlearning behaviors
26
Howard & Co dosage model
* 50% of clients improve in 6-8 sessions * 75% of clients improve in 26 sessions * 85% of clients improve in 52 sessions
27
paralanguage
tone, rhythm, & volume that express emotions & modify/clarify meaning
28
__ & __ lobes have the greatest age-related atrophy
frontal & parietal
29
stranger anxiety starts at ___mo & declines at ___
8 months; declines at 2y/o
30
Moro reflex in infants
occurs as a result from loud noise or sudden movement, they move their head back & arms/legs extend
31
Babinski reflex in infants
occurs when their foot-sole is firmly touched, the big toe goes up & other toes fan out
32
rooting reflex in infants
occurs when the corner of their mouth is touched, they turn to that direction
33
Self-Defining Memories
1. emotional intensity 2. vividness 3. high repetition 4. linkage to similar memories 5. connected to unresolved conflicts
34
Bowlby: infant + caregiver relationship creates ___, these include ___ and affect future relationships
creates internal working models: * self * others * self in relationships * all these affect future relationships
35
Piaget: each stage of cog development is __ & __
discontinuous & active
36
Ethics: treating client's friends
no; multiple relationships
37
Ethics: research deception
informed participants as soon as possisble, ok if study's prospective value if justified, & participants can withdraw anytime
38
Ethics: when informed consent isn't necessary
the study involves normal educational practices
39
Ethics: contingent fees
avoid
40
Ethics: dating clients
* cannot date ever * can only date if it's been 2yrs & nothing about dating each other was discussed during therapy (including termination reasons)
41
implied consent is inferred from
behaviors & circumstances of a person (emergency situations, class participation)
42
Org: transactional vs transformational (gender)
* men- more transactional in active & passive management * women- more transformational; more transactional in contingent rewards
43
Org: forced distribution issues
prespecified performance categories aren't a perfect match
44
components of program logic model
resources, activities, & outputs
45
80% rule (4/5th)
method for determining if a selection test or employment procedure has adverse impact (discrimination)
46
criterion contamination
when measuring performance (criterion) is effected by unrelated factors to job performance (ex: knowledge of performance on previous measures)
47
hardiness 3Cs
control, commitment, & challenge
48
situational leadership theory
* **telling** high task/low relationship style (low willingness, low ability) * **selling** high task/high relationship style (high willingness, low ability) * **participating** low task/high relationship style (low willingness, high ability) * **delegating** low task/low relationship style (high willingness, high ability)
49
path-goal leadership theory SPAD
an effective leader adopts the style that best fits the employee & task: * **supportive** (most effective for high need for affiliation + low job satisfaction subordinates w/ boring tasks) * **participative** * **achievement-oriented** * **directive** (most effective for dogmatic/authoritarian subordinates w/ complex or ambiguous tasks)
50
Kirkpatrick Eval Model
in order from **least to most informative:** 1. **reaction** criteria 2. **learning** criteria 3. **behavior** criteria 4. **results** criteria
51
passive genotype-environment
inherited traits are enhanced by the environment
52
evocative genotype-environment
genetics evoke certain reactions from parents/others that reinforce their genetics
53
active genotype-environment
niche-picking; actively seeking an environment that fits one's genetics
54
Gottesman: reaction range
a gene's reaction is either broad or narrow
55
Dynamic Systems Theory
* Thelen; nature & nurture are essential for development because biology & environment interact; * ex: crawling to walking, everyone goes through same stages in order but may take longer/shorter depending on environment/motivation.
56
PKU is ___% heritability & requires a ____ of low phenylalanine foods
25; diet
57
child babbling at 9mo is of what language
all languages
58
Germinal period
conception to the end of the 2nd week
59
Embryonic period
3rd – 8th week
60
Fetal period
9th week through birth
61
Nativist Theory
humans have language acquisition device; Chomsky’s
62
cooing- __ to __ weeks
6 - 8 weeks
63
Overextension
using words too broadly
64
Underextension
using words too narrowly
65
Overgeneralization of language
misapplying rule of plurals (foots)
66
Canalization
genetics restrict development regardless of environmental circumstances hint: genes are in a can -> that's restrictive
67
babbling- __ to __ months
3 - 6 months
68
echolalia- __ months
9 months
69
first words- __ to __ months
10 - 15 months
70
vocab increase- __months
18 months
71
holophrastic- __ to __ months
12 - 15 months (one word w/ meaning based on context)
72
telegraphic- __ to __ months
18 - 24 months (2+ words)
73
according to social interactionist theory, language is a combo of __ & __
language is a combo of enivornmental & social factors
74
infant brain weight + decrease age
* 25% when born * 80% by 2y/o * 30y/o starts to decrease, then rapid decrease at 60y/o
75
synaptogenesis peak age
2-3y/o
76
___ is the least & ___ is the most developed sense at birth
vision; touch/pain
77
vision & hearing decline __y/o
40y/o (presbyopia & presbycusis)
78
social referencing starts at __ mo
6 - 8 months
79
rank-order stability vs mean-level change (personality in adulthood)
* rank-order stability (positive traits: agreeableness & conscientiousness increase) * mean-level change (specific traits: men higher assertiveness + openness to ideas & women higher neuroticism, agreeableness, warmth, & openness to feelings)
80
Bowlby’s 4 stages of attachment
* preattachment * attachment-in-the-making * clear-cut attachment * formation of reciprocal relationships
81
primary vs secondary emotions
* primary 0-18mos: content, interest, distress * primary 6mos: joy, disgust, anger, fear * secondary 18-24mos: envy, empathy, embarrassment (due to self-awareness) * secondary 30-36mos: shame, guilt, pride
82
looking-time paradigms vs event-related-potential (ERP)
* **looking-time paradigms**: level of attention to facial emotions * **event-related-potential (ERP)**: neural responses to facial emotions
83
Social Information Processing Model (Aggression)
aggression is due to deficiencies & biases at each stage: 1. **encoding cues**: hostile intention 2. **interpretation of cues**: assume others are hostile 3. **clarification of goals**: retaliation is the goal 4. **response search**: identify aggression options 5. **response decision**: choose aggressive response 6. **behavioral enactment**: aggressive kids act aggressively
84
___% of women have "baby blues"
80%
85
postpartum depression between conception & birth affect ___% of women
9%
86
MDD affects ___% of pregnant women prior to delivery
50%
87
depression is associated w/ (brain areas, neurotransmitters, sleep)
* **abnormalities** in the HPA axis, prefontal, thalamus, hippocampus, amygdala, striatum * **low** serotonin, dopamine, & norepinephrine * **high** cortisol * more sleep latency, lower REM latency + lower slow-wave (faster to REM), high REM density
88
Lewinsohn’s Social Reinforcement Theory
* operant-conditioning; depression is the results of low response-contingent reinforcement for social behaviors * leads to social isolation, low self-esteem, pessimism that further decrease likelihood of positive reinforcement
89
infants focus on happy then switch to fear facial expressions at __mos, then this declines at __mo
7mos; 12mos
90
Perseveration symptom is location in the __ lobe & is linked to __, including the middle stage of ___
front lobe; NCDs; Alzheimer's
91
Autoplastic vs Alloplastic
* autoplastic: changing [plastic] self [auto] to fit the enivronment * alloplastic: changing [plastic] environment [environment] to fit the self
92
Personal Construct Therapy includes __ dimensions
biploar (good/bad, friend/enemy)
93
Stimulus control
controlling behavior by using a stimulus
94
Discriminative stimulus
when a stimulus signals that it will reinforce a behavior (stimulus control)
95
Satiation
* when a reinforcer no longer works * switching to intermittent reinforcement reduces the chances of satiation
96
Systematic desensitization
**pairing anxiety-provoking stimulus w/ a relaxing** or other-response **stimulus that’s incompatible w/ anxiety** resulting in no anxiety, but relaxation (or whatever) instead
97
Reciprocal inhibition, also know as counterconditioning, causes
causes systematic desensitization (Wolfe)
98
dismantling studies believe ___ causes systematic desensitization
**extinction** causes systematic desensitization
99
Experimental Neurosis
difficult discriminations cause agitation & aggression in Pavlov’s dogs
100
Delay conditioning
* most effective in making a conditioned response * conditioned stimulus precedes by 1.5sec & overlaps the unconditioned stimulus
101
Trace conditioning
conditioned stimulus is presented & terminated before the unconditioned stimulus
102
simultaneous conditioning is when __
conditioned stimulus is presented & terminated at nearly the same time as the unconditioned stimulus
103
Backward conditioning
* unconditioned stimulus is presented before the conditioned stimulus * doesn't work
104
classical extinction is when __
conditioned stimulus no longer produces the conditioned response after the unconditioned stimulus is taken away
105
spontaneous recovery is due to __
internal inhibition
106
___ will have a less intense response than the unconditioned stimulus.
conditioned stimulus
107
in the Puzzle Box study, ___ found the law of ___, which states that when a __ is followed by a __ they are likely to reoccur but when they are followed by a __ they are less likely to occur.
**Thorndike**; **law of effect**; **behaviors** followed by **reward** are likely to reoccur, **behaviors** followed by **bad things** are less likely to reoccur.
108
in conditioning, __ is less reinforcement & __ is less prompting
thinning; fading
109
Higher-order conditioning
* aka second-order conditioning * occurs when a conditioned stimulus becomes associated with a new unconditioned stimulus
110
in ___ conditioning, __ is to perform each component behavior of a complex task independently
operant conditioning; chaining
111
blocking in classical conditioning occurs because __ & therefore never becomes a __ stimulus
a second neutral stimulus does not provide new info about the conditioned response & therefore never becomes a conditioned stimulus
112
when two neutral stimuli are repeatedly presented together, this is called __ & when presented together will ellicit a __ response
overshadowing; conditioned response
113
in overshadowing, when the two conditioned stimuli are presented individually, the __ stimulus will present the conditioned response & the __ stimulus will not
the "stronger/salient" stimulus will produce a conditioned response but the "weaker/less salient" stimulus will not produce the conditioned response
114
fundamental attribution error
blames disposition
115
in self-serving bias, when things are positive, it's based on __ but when things are negative it's based on __
self disposition; the situation
116
in ultimate attribution error, when things are positive for the in-group, it's based on __ but when things are negative it's based on __
in-group disposition; the situation
117
in group attribution error, the ideas/beliefs of the __ are the same as the __ & vice versa
ideas/beliefs of the **individual** are the same for the **group** & vice versa.
118
actor-observer bias
others are disposition, self is situation
119
when a group has high __, __, & __ they are likely to make an __ attribution
high consensus, consistency, & distinctiveness; external
120
when a group has low __ & __, but high __ they are likely to make an __ attribution
low consensus & distinctiveness; & high consistency; internal
121
automatic cog processing is fast but __
susceptible to errors
122
base rate fallacy
persuaded more by anecdotes than statistics
123
false consensus
belief that others do/think the same as you
124
counterfactual thinking
imagining an alternative outcome that didn't happen
125
illusory control is similar to __
being superstitious
126
spotlight effect is similar to __
imaginary audience
127
representativeness heuristic
ignoring statistics & basing judgment on prototype/stereotype
128
conjunction fallacy
believing the likelihood of two events is more probable than each of those events occurring on their own
129
availability heuristic
frequency of something happening is based on how easy it is to recall how memorable it is (shark attack)
130
anchoring & adjustment heuristic
starting point determine if we're going up or down (negotiating cars price)
131
in simulation heuristic, __ events that could happen to ourselves are seen as ___
easily imagined events; as more likely to occur or to elicit a specific emotional reaction
132
___ heuristic impacts how we believe others view likelihood/emotional reaction of an event
simulation heuristic
133
a ___ variable explains the relationship, while a __ variable effects the direction/strength of the relationship.
mediator explains; moderator affects the direction/strength
134
Arbitrary Inference cog distortion
no factual evidence to support the conclusion
135
Thinning in conditioning is less
reinforcement
136
Fading in conditioning is less
prompting