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EPPP > FOCUSED STUDY 2 > Flashcards

FOCUSED STUDY 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Naltrexone rx & SE

A

rx alcohol use disorders; reduces craving for alcohol

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2
Q

Bilateral damage to the medial temporal lobe causes__ & includes __ brain regions

A

deficits in declarative memory; incudes the hippocampus & entorhinal cortex; important for long-term declarative memory.

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3
Q

Tx for alcohol use disorder causing unpleasant symptoms when taken w. alcohol

A

disulfiram (Antabuse)

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4
Q

generalized onset seizures always include

A

loss of consciousness

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5
Q

Steven’s Power Law

A

magnitude estimation; depends on relationship between physical stimuli & it’s perceived magnitude

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6
Q

Fechner’s Law

A

magnitude estimation; just noticeable difference increases w/ each degree of intensity

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7
Q

Migraine Tx

A

temperature biofeedback + relaxation trianing is more effective together

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8
Q

Gender Confirmation Surgery is best for (dx + demographic)

A

decreasing symptoms of gender disphoria; trans-male have better outcomes

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9
Q

SE of subcortical NCDs

A

forgetfulness, apathy, & psychomotor retardation (or does not include aphasia)

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10
Q

common cortical NCD SE

A

aphasia

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11
Q

primary goals of DBT

A

address behaviors that interfer w/…
* quality-of-life
* therapy
* life-threatening

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12
Q

repeated acts of aggression dx criteria

A

conduct disorder

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13
Q

2020 suicide rates were highest for

A

men 75+

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14
Q

postpartum depression w/i the first year of birth affect ___% of women

A

7%

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15
Q

__ Therapy is equally effective for Black & White youth

A

Multisystemic Therapy

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16
Q

adding MI to CBT for GAD tx is most effective for

A

reducing worry for those w/ high worry severity than CBT alone

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17
Q

premature ejaculation meds

A

SSRI to increase serotonin

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18
Q

deficits in face recognition are characteristics of

A

ASD

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19
Q

onset for specific phobia is a median age of __ & mean age of__

A

7 to 11y/o; 10y/o

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20
Q

Gestalt boundary distrubances

A
  • Introjection- adopt others’ beliefs/standards
  • Projection- putting own neg traits onto others
  • Reflection- do onto self as do onto others
  • Deflection- avoiding the environment
  • Confluence- blur between self & others
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21
Q

ACT: psychological pain

A

universal & normal

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22
Q

CBT: preventing suicide

A

deactivate “suicidal mode”

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23
Q

transtheoretical model motivation factors

A
  • decision balance- Contemplation (+ self-eval)
  • self-efficacy- Prep + Action
  • tempatation- PC-P
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24
Q

Howard attributed success in the first few session of tx to

A

increased hopefulness

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25
Q

Howard & Co phase model

A
  1. remoralization- 1st few sessions, increased hopefulness
  2. remediation- next 16 sessions, reduced symptoms
  3. rehabilitation- unlearning behaviors
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26
Q

Howard & Co dosage model

A
  • 50% of clients improve in 6-8 sessions
  • 75% of clients improve in 26 sessions
  • 85% of clients improve in 52 sessions
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27
Q

paralanguage

A

tone, rhythm, & volume that express emotions & modify/clarify meaning

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28
Q

__ & __ lobes have the greatest age-related atrophy

A

frontal & parietal

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29
Q

stranger anxiety starts at ___mo & declines at ___

A

8 months; declines at 2y/o

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30
Q

Moro reflex in infants

A

occurs as a result from loud noise or sudden movement, they move their head back & arms/legs extend

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31
Q

Babinski reflex in infants

A

occurs when their foot-sole is firmly touched, the big toe goes up & other toes fan out

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32
Q

rooting reflex in infants

A

occurs when the corner of their mouth is touched, they turn to that direction

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33
Q

Self-Defining Memories

A
  1. emotional intensity
  2. vividness
  3. high repetition
  4. linkage to similar memories
  5. connected to unresolved conflicts
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34
Q

Bowlby: infant + caregiver relationship creates ___, these include ___ and affect future relationships

A

creates internal working models:
* self
* others
* self in relationships
* all these affect future relationships

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35
Q

Piaget: each stage of cog development is __ & __

A

discontinuous & active

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36
Q

Ethics: treating client’s friends

A

no; multiple relationships

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37
Q

Ethics: research deception

A

informed participants as soon as possisble, ok if study’s prospective value if justified, & participants can withdraw anytime

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38
Q

Ethics: when informed consent isn’t necessary

A

the study involves normal educational practices

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39
Q

Ethics: contingent fees

A

avoid

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40
Q

Ethics: dating clients

A
  • cannot date ever
  • can only date if it’s been 2yrs & nothing about dating each other was discussed during therapy (including termination reasons)
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41
Q

implied consent is inferred from

A

behaviors & circumstances of a person (emergency situations, class participation)

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42
Q

Org: transactional vs transformational (gender)

A
  • men- more transactional in active & passive management
  • women- more transformational; more transactional in contingent rewards
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43
Q

Org: forced distribution issues

A

prespecified performance categories aren’t a perfect match

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44
Q

components of program logic model

A

resources, activities, & outputs

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45
Q

80% rule (4/5th)

A

method for determining if a selection test or employment procedure has adverse impact (discrimination)

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46
Q

criterion contamination

A

when measuring performance (criterion) is effected by unrelated factors to job performance (ex: knowledge of performance on previous measures)

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47
Q

hardiness 3Cs

A

control, commitment, & challenge

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48
Q

situational leadership theory

A
  • telling high task/low relationship style (low willingness, low ability)
  • selling high task/high relationship style (high willingness, low ability)
  • participating low task/high relationship style (low willingness, high ability)
  • delegating low task/low relationship style (high willingness, high ability)
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49
Q

path-goal leadership theory
SPAD

A

an effective leader adopts the style that best fits the employee & task:
* supportive (most effective for high need for affiliation + low job satisfaction subordinates w/ boring tasks)
* participative
* achievement-oriented
* directive (most effective for dogmatic/authoritarian subordinates w/ complex or ambiguous tasks)

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50
Q

Kirkpatrick Eval Model

A

in order from least to most informative:
1. reaction criteria
2. learning criteria
3. behavior criteria
4. results criteria

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51
Q

passive genotype-environment

A

inherited traits are enhanced by the environment

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52
Q

evocative genotype-environment

A

genetics evoke certain reactions from parents/others that reinforce their genetics

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53
Q

active genotype-environment

A

niche-picking; actively seeking an environment that fits one’s genetics

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54
Q

Gottesman: reaction range

A

a gene’s reaction is either broad or narrow

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55
Q

Dynamic Systems Theory

A
  • Thelen; nature & nurture are essential for development because biology & environment interact;
  • ex: crawling to walking, everyone goes through same stages in order but may take longer/shorter depending on environment/motivation.
56
Q

PKU is ___% heritability & requires a ____ of low phenylalanine foods

A

25; diet

57
Q

child babbling at 9mo is of what language

A

all languages

58
Q

Germinal period

A

conception to the end of the 2nd week

59
Q

Embryonic period

A

3rd – 8th week

60
Q

Fetal period

A

9th week through birth

61
Q

Nativist Theory

A

humans have language acquisition device; Chomsky’s

62
Q

cooing- __ to __ weeks

A

6 - 8 weeks

63
Q

Overextension

A

using words too broadly

64
Q

Underextension

A

using words too narrowly

65
Q

Overgeneralization of language

A

misapplying rule of plurals (foots)

66
Q

Canalization

A

genetics restrict development regardless of environmental circumstances
hint: genes are in a can -> that’s restrictive

67
Q

babbling- __ to __ months

A

3 - 6 months

68
Q

echolalia- __ months

A

9 months

69
Q

first words- __ to __ months

A

10 - 15 months

70
Q

vocab increase- __months

A

18 months

71
Q

holophrastic- __ to __ months

A

12 - 15 months (one word w/ meaning based on context)

72
Q

telegraphic- __ to __ months

A

18 - 24 months (2+ words)

73
Q

according to social interactionist theory, language is a combo of __ & __

A

language is a combo of enivornmental & social factors

74
Q

infant brain weight + decrease age

A
  • 25% when born
  • 80% by 2y/o
  • 30y/o starts to decrease, then rapid decrease at 60y/o
75
Q

synaptogenesis peak age

A

2-3y/o

76
Q

___ is the least & ___ is the most developed sense at birth

A

vision; touch/pain

77
Q

vision & hearing decline __y/o

A

40y/o (presbyopia & presbycusis)

78
Q

social referencing starts at __ mo

A

6 - 8 months

79
Q

rank-order stability vs mean-level change (personality in adulthood)

A
  • rank-order stability (positive traits: agreeableness & conscientiousness increase)
  • mean-level change (specific traits: men higher assertiveness + openness to ideas & women higher neuroticism, agreeableness, warmth, & openness to feelings)
80
Q

Bowlby’s 4 stages of attachment

A
  • preattachment
  • attachment-in-the-making
  • clear-cut attachment
  • formation of reciprocal relationships
81
Q

primary vs secondary emotions

A
  • primary 0-18mos: content, interest, distress
  • primary 6mos: joy, disgust, anger, fear
  • secondary 18-24mos: envy, empathy, embarrassment (due to self-awareness)
  • secondary 30-36mos: shame, guilt, pride
82
Q

looking-time paradigms vs event-related-potential (ERP)

A
  • looking-time paradigms: level of attention to facial emotions
  • event-related-potential (ERP): neural responses to facial emotions
83
Q

Social Information Processing Model (Aggression)

A

aggression is due to deficiencies & biases at each stage:
1. encoding cues: hostile intention
2. interpretation of cues: assume others are hostile
3. clarification of goals: retaliation is the goal
4. response search: identify aggression options
5. response decision: choose aggressive response
6. behavioral enactment: aggressive kids act aggressively

84
Q

___% of women have “baby blues”

A

80%

85
Q

postpartum depression between conception & birth affect ___% of women

A

9%

86
Q

MDD affects ___% of pregnant women prior to delivery

A

50%

87
Q

depression is associated w/ (brain areas, neurotransmitters, sleep)

A
  • abnormalities in the HPA axis, prefontal, thalamus, hippocampus, amygdala, striatum
  • low serotonin, dopamine, & norepinephrine
  • high cortisol
  • more sleep latency, lower REM latency + lower slow-wave (faster to REM), high REM density
88
Q

Lewinsohn’s Social Reinforcement Theory

A
  • operant-conditioning; depression is the results of low response-contingent reinforcement for social behaviors
  • leads to social isolation, low self-esteem, pessimism that further decrease likelihood of positive reinforcement
89
Q

infants focus on happy then switch to fear facial expressions at __mos, then this declines at __mo

A

7mos; 12mos

90
Q

Perseveration symptom is location in the __ lobe & is linked to __, including the middle stage of ___

A

front lobe; NCDs; Alzheimer’s

91
Q

Autoplastic vs Alloplastic

A
  • autoplastic: changing [plastic] self [auto] to fit the enivronment
  • alloplastic: changing [plastic] environment [environment] to fit the self
92
Q

Personal Construct Therapy includes __ dimensions

A

biploar (good/bad, friend/enemy)

93
Q

Stimulus control

A

controlling behavior by using a stimulus

94
Q

Discriminative stimulus

A

when a stimulus signals that it will reinforce a behavior (stimulus control)

95
Q

Satiation

A
  • when a reinforcer no longer works
  • switching to intermittent reinforcement reduces the chances of satiation
96
Q

Systematic desensitization

A

pairing anxiety-provoking stimulus w/ a relaxing or other-response stimulus that’s incompatible w/ anxiety resulting in no anxiety, but relaxation (or whatever) instead

97
Q

Reciprocal inhibition, also know as counterconditioning, causes

A

causes systematic desensitization (Wolfe)

98
Q

dismantling studies believe ___ causes systematic desensitization

A

extinction causes systematic desensitization

99
Q

Experimental Neurosis

A

difficult discriminations cause agitation & aggression in Pavlov’s dogs

100
Q

Delay conditioning

A
  • most effective in making a conditioned response
  • conditioned stimulus precedes by 1.5sec & overlaps the unconditioned stimulus
101
Q

Trace conditioning

A

conditioned stimulus is presented & terminated before the unconditioned stimulus

102
Q

simultaneous conditioning is when __

A

conditioned stimulus is presented & terminated at nearly the same time as the unconditioned stimulus

103
Q

Backward conditioning

A
  • unconditioned stimulus is presented before the conditioned stimulus
  • doesn’t work
104
Q

classical extinction is when __

A

conditioned stimulus no longer produces the conditioned response after the unconditioned stimulus is taken away

105
Q

spontaneous recovery is due to __

A

internal inhibition

106
Q

___ will have a less intense response than the unconditioned stimulus.

A

conditioned stimulus

107
Q

in the Puzzle Box study, ___ found the law of ___, which states that when a __ is followed by a __ they are likely to reoccur but when they are followed by a __ they are less likely to occur.

A

Thorndike; law of effect; behaviors followed by reward are likely to reoccur, behaviors followed by bad things are less likely to reoccur.

108
Q

in conditioning, __ is less reinforcement & __ is less prompting

A

thinning; fading

109
Q

Higher-order conditioning

A
  • aka second-order conditioning
  • occurs when a conditioned stimulus becomes associated with a new unconditioned stimulus
110
Q

in ___ conditioning, __ is to perform
each component behavior of a complex task independently

A

operant conditioning; chaining

111
Q

blocking in classical conditioning occurs because __ & therefore never becomes a __ stimulus

A

a second neutral stimulus does not provide new info about the conditioned response & therefore never becomes a conditioned stimulus

112
Q

when two neutral stimuli are repeatedly presented together, this is called __ & when presented together will ellicit a __ response

A

overshadowing; conditioned response

113
Q

in overshadowing, when the two conditioned stimuli are presented individually, the __ stimulus will present the conditioned response & the __ stimulus will not

A

the “stronger/salient” stimulus will produce a conditioned response but the “weaker/less salient” stimulus will not produce the conditioned response

114
Q

fundamental attribution error

A

blames disposition

115
Q

in self-serving bias, when things are positive, it’s based on __ but when things are negative it’s based on __

A

self disposition; the situation

116
Q

in ultimate attribution error, when things are positive for the in-group, it’s based on __ but when things are negative it’s based on __

A

in-group disposition; the situation

117
Q

in group attribution error, the ideas/beliefs of the __ are the same as the __ & vice versa

A

ideas/beliefs of the individual are the same for the group & vice versa.

118
Q

actor-observer bias

A

others are disposition, self is situation

119
Q

when a group has high __, __, & __ they are likely to make an __ attribution

A

high consensus, consistency, & distinctiveness; external

120
Q

when a group has low __ & __, but high __ they are likely to make an __ attribution

A

low consensus & distinctiveness; & high consistency; internal

121
Q

automatic cog processing is fast but __

A

susceptible to errors

122
Q

base rate fallacy

A

persuaded more by anecdotes than statistics

123
Q

false consensus

A

belief that others do/think the same as you

124
Q

counterfactual thinking

A

imagining an alternative outcome that didn’t happen

125
Q

illusory control is similar to __

A

being superstitious

126
Q

spotlight effect is similar to __

A

imaginary audience

127
Q

representativeness heuristic

A

ignoring statistics & basing judgment on prototype/stereotype

128
Q

conjunction fallacy

A

believing the likelihood of two events is more probable than each of those events occurring on their own

129
Q

availability heuristic

A

frequency of something happening is based on how easy it is to recall how memorable it is (shark attack)

130
Q

anchoring & adjustment heuristic

A

starting point determine if we’re going up or down (negotiating cars price)

131
Q

in simulation heuristic, __ events that could happen to ourselves are seen as ___

A

easily imagined events; as more likely to occur or to elicit a specific emotional reaction

132
Q

___ heuristic impacts how we believe others view likelihood/emotional reaction of an event

A

simulation heuristic

133
Q

a ___ variable explains the relationship, while a __ variable effects the direction/strength of the relationship.

A

mediator explains; moderator affects the direction/strength

134
Q

Arbitrary Inference cog distortion

A

no factual evidence to support the conclusion

135
Q

Thinning in conditioning is less

A

reinforcement

136
Q

Fading in conditioning is less

A

prompting

EPPP (15 decks)

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