Foundation block Flashcards
(259 cards)
1
Q
Name the 5 isotypes of Ig and what each is specialised for.
A
IgM - First responder. Activates classical pathway of complement cascade.
IgA - present in mucosa. Neutralises
IgG - Most common. Neutralises and opsonises. Antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC); flag for NK cells
IgE - Elevated in parasitic infections and allergy. Degranulation.
IgD - rarest. Expressed on B cells
2
Q
What type of ttissue is this?
A
Skeletal muscle
3
Q
Which three substances mediate vasodilation in inflammation?
A
Histamine, NO, prostaglandin PGE2
4
Q
What is the function of glycoproteins of the basement membrane? What is an example of a glycoprotein?
A
They anchor integrins of epithelial cells to ECM of the underlying connective tissue.
Example: Laminin 5 which links integrins from epitehlial cells
5
Q
What is the structure of elastin?
A
Made of an elastin core surrounded by network of fibrilin myofibrils
6
Q
Name these ligaments
A
A Supraspinous ligament
B Ligamentum flavum
C Posterior longitudinal ligament
D Anterior longitudinal ligament
7
Q
Name these ligaments
A
A Supraspinous ligament
B Ligamentum flavum
C Posterior longitudinal ligament
D Anterior longitudinal ligament
8
Q
What are the 4 functions of surface epitheliia?
A
Protection
Selective barrier
Absorption
Secretion
9
Q
What type of fibres is elastin made of?
A
Thin and branched
10
Q
Name 6 locations where stratified squamous epithelium is found
A
Skin (keratinised)
Oral cavity
Oesophagus
Vagina
Anus
Ectocervix
11
Q
What type of WBC is this?
A
Eosinophil
12
Q
Name 2 types of mononuclear leukocytes. Describe their cell lineage. What progenitor cells are they each derived from?
A
HSC –> MPP –> CLP –> lymphocytes T, NK and B cells (& Dendrites)
HSC –> MPP –> CMP –> Granulocyte monocyte progenitor –> Monocyte progenitor –> monocyte
HSC= haematopoeitic cell MPP= multipotent progenitor
CLP= common lymphoid progentior
CMP= common myeloid progenitor
13
Q
Define autolysis
Why is it relevant to a pathologist?
How is it remedied?
A
When cells are removed from body, they start to break down almost immediately (autolysis).
This would make it hard for pathologist to know whether the tissue was pathological before biopsy.
Treat with formalin to fix the tissue and prevent autolysis; or cool tissue to slow autolysis
14
Q
An acidophilic tissue will have an affinity for which dye?
A
Eosin
15
Q
What is type III collagen also known as?
A
Reticulin
16
Q
What type of WBC is this?
A
Basophil
17
Q
Which two forces (and in which direction) are responsible for oedema in inflammation?
A
1 Increased hydrostatic pressure
2 Decreased coloidal osmotic pressure
18
Q
Define nucleocapsid
A
The capsid most closely associated with the viral nucleic acid.
Nucleic acid + capsid
19
Q
List 5 features of slow twitch fibres (Type I)
A
1 for running a marathon;
2 red because of many mitochondria;
3 aerobic respiration;
4 resist fatigue;
5 low tension developed.
20
Q
What is the function of myoepithelial cells?
A
surround some exocrine glands to squeeze out contents
21
Q
What type of WBC is this?
A
Monocyte
22
Q
What is the size of a virus?
A
0.02 - 0.04 um
= 20 - 40 nm
23
Q
Explain the physiologic basis of muscle contraction
A
Nerve impulse depolarises cell membrane.
T tubules conduct AP from membrane to SR.
AP causes SR to release Ca2+
Actin and myosin detach and reattach to each other, pulling Z discs closer together to shorten sarcomere.
24
Q
What colour will an eosinophilic structure stain?
A
Pink/orange
25
What is the main function of elastin and give 3 examples of tissue it is found in
Provides recoil to certain tissues, esp skin, lungs and large arteries such as aorta
26
Which germ layer(s) is/are connective tissue derived from?
Mesoderm
27
Which germ layer(s) is/are epithelia derived from?
All 3 (endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm)
28
What type of tissue is this?
Cardiac muscle
29
What is the maximum resolving power of a light microscope and of an electron microscope?
0. 2 um
0. 2 nm
30
What are the 3 features of dysentery?
Blood, pus and mucus in stool
31
A Levator scapulae
B Trapezius
C Rhomboid
D Latisimus dorsi
32
How many genes in the human genome?
21,000 to 25,000
33
List 5 features of fast twitch (Type IIb) fibres
1 for sprinting/lifting weights;
2 white because few mitochondria;
3 anaerobic respiration;
4 fatigable;
5 high tension developed
34
CD4+ T cells are also known as what type of T cell?
Helper T cells
35
Where is ciliated, pseudocstratified columnar epithelium found?
Respiratory tract
36
Where is bradykinin derived from?
Plasma proteins
37
Transaminases in the blood indicates what?
Liver damage
38
What are the 3 causes of hypoxia?
1 ischaemic,
1 failure of gas exchange at lung,
2 failure of blood carrying O2
39
Fatty necrosis is classically seen in which condition?
Acute pancreatitis
40
What is the main function of collagen?
Provides tensile strength
41
Where is type 4 collagen found?
Basement membrane
42
What are the 2 main differences between the gram positive and the gram negative bacterial cell wall?
Gram negative bacteria have a smaller/thinner peptidoglycan layer and they have an additional outer/superficial plasma membrane.
43
What is the difference between exudate and transudate?
What is the key pathophysiological reason for this difference?
Transudate is buildup of fluid in interstital compartment, whereas exudate is also rich in proteins and cells.
Key difference is that exudate is formed when interendothelial gaps develop and allow extravasation of proteins
An exudate is an extravascular fluid that has a high protein concentration and contains cellular debris. Its presence implies permeability increase of small blood vessels triggered by injury and an ongoing inflammation reaction
A transudate is a fluid with low protein concentration, little to no cellular material and low specific gravity.
Oedema denotes an excess of fluid in the interstitial tissue and can be either exudate or transudate.
44
What type of bacteria is this?
Spirochete
45
What is the funciton of the bacterial flagella?
Locomotion
46
What are parenchymal cells of an organ?
The functional cells in an organ
47
A raised neutrophil count indicates what?
acute inflammation, especially seen in bacterial infections
48
What type of bacteria is this?
Diplococci
49
What is the diameter of a platelet cell?
2-4 um
50
What type of cell is this?
Lymphocyte
51
Cerebral infarction typically shows which type of necrosis?
Liqueficative
52
What is the function of pericytes?
wrap around capillaries to regulate blood flow
53
Where will lymph from the back drain to?
Axillary lymph nodes
54
What are simple squamous epithelia specialised for?
Diffusion and protection from abrasion
55
Thoracic vertebrae: in what plane are their articular facets and what movement does this permit?
Coronal
Rotation in coronal plane
56
What are transitional epithelia specialised for?
Stretch/elasticity
57
A Annulus fibrosus
B Nucleus pulposus
58
Caseouos necrosis is classically seen in which disease?
Tuberculosis
59
60
List 4 examples of PAMPs
Lipopolysaccharide
Flagellin
Peptidoglycan
Viral DNA
61
What colour does Haematoxylin stain?
Blue
62
Which are the only cells that can produce antibodies?
B cells/plasma cells
63
Lumbar vertebrae: in what plane are their articular facets and what movement does this permit?
Sagittal
Flexion/extension
64
What are the 3 most common sites of microbe entry?
The GI tract, skin and respiratory tracts
65
Which 3 criteria are used to define a virus family?
1 Kind of nucleic acid (ss or ds RNA or DNA)
2 Strategy of replication
3 Morphology of the virion (symmetry of capsid, naked vs enveloped)
66
Which WBC has a bilobed nucleus?
Eosinophils and basophils
67
A = Z disc
B = myosin = thick filament
C = actin = thin filament
D = Sarcomere
68
What type of WBC is this?
Monocyte
69
What type of WBC is this?
Neutrophil
70
Which WBC has a kidney-shaped nucleus?
Basophils OR Monocytes
71
Define metaplasia
One differentiated cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) is reversibly replaced with another cell type
72
Name 5 features of the bacterial genome that are different from the human genome
1) A single chromosome
2) in a nucleoid with no nuclear membrane
3) single double-stranded DNA that is looped and supercoiled,
4) No introns or exons;
5) bacteria may also have plasmids;
73
# Define dystrophic calcification and give an example
Abornal calcium depostits dye to damaged or necrotic tissue that has not been completely removed (eg atherosclerotic plaques)
74
What type of tissue is this?
Cardiac muscle
75
In which 4 locations are simple squamous epithelia found?
Endothelium,
mesothelium,
alveoli,
glomerulus
76
Elevated CRP levels indicates what?
What does CRP stand for?
Acute inflammation
C reactive protein
77
What is the function of microvilli?
Increase surface area for absorption and secretion
78
Define virion
The virus particle
79
What is the diametre of an RBC?
7.2 microns
80
On what basis did Woese classify all living things?
Ribosomal RNA
81
What type of tissue is this?
Cardiac muscle
82
What does a high lymphocyte count indicate?
Viral infection
83
What is the lifespan of an RBC?
120 days
84
Explain the 3 levels of structure in a peripheral nerve
1 Single axon ( often wrapped in myelin) wrapped in endoneurium.
2 Bundle of axons form a fascicle, surrounded by perineurium.
3 Bundle of fascicles form a peripheral nerve. Nerve surrounded by epineurium.
85
What type of bacteria is this?
Staphylococci
86
What are the functions of histamine in inflammation?
1 Vasodilation
2 Endothelial contraction --\> increased permeability of microcirculation
87
Define partial agonist
A drug that fails to produce maximal effects even when all receptors are bound by the drug
88
What is involution?
A decrease in cell number due to reduced functional demand
89
CD8+ T cells are also known as what type of T cell?
Cytotoxic T cells
90
What are the 8 cardinal features of pain?
Site
Quality
Severity
Time course
Context
Relieving factors
Aggravating factors
Associated features
91
What colour does eosin stain?
Pink/orange
92
What are the 2 main functions of the bacterial cell wall?
1) Prevents osmotic lysis
2) Gives bacteria its shape
93
What is the structure of collagen?
Formed by a triple helix of polypeptides called alpha chains
94
What type of tissue is this?
Cardiac muscle
95
Which germ layer is muscle derived from?
Mesoderm
96
What is the gold standard for identifying a virus?
VIral cultivation
97
What type of tissue is this?
Smooth muscle
98
Give 2 examples of dense regular connective tissue
Tendons and ligaments
99
Define metastatic calcification
Abnormal calcium deposits due to hypercalcaemia.
100
Define potency
Potency is the amount of drug required to produce 50% of the maximal response the drug is capable of inducing
101
Define PAMPs
Molecular patterns found on micro-organisms, but not humans, that are recognised as non-self by cells of the innate immune system
102
What are simple columnar epithelia specialised for?
secretion and absorption
103
Define the viral envelope
Lipid membrane surrounding either the capsid or nucleocapsid that is formed by the host cells' membrane (not present in all viruses)
Contains virus-encoded glycoproteins
104
Between which 2 layers is the basement membrane found?
Epithelium and underlying connective tissue
105
Describe the 4 steps in the mechanism of cell wall damage activating inflammation
1 Cell membrane damage activates phospholipase A2
2 Membrane lipids --\> arachadonic acid
3 AA --\> PG
4 PG --\> leukotrienes
106
What are the 3 main components of the bacterial peptidoglycan cell wall?
N-acetyl-glucosamine, N-acetyl-muramic acid and a short peptide chain
107
What shape is a bacillus bacteria?
Rod
108
Which structures do posterior rami innervate?
Erector spinae
Overlying skin of the back
Facet joints
109
What are the three essential features of a receptor?
1 A biological macromolecule or complex ...
2 That binds to another molecule ....
3 and affects activity within a cell
110
Define cellulitis
An infection of the deep layers of the skin and subcutaneous tissues by bacteria
111
Pink on an H and E slide indicates what kind of compound?
Cationic and eosinophilic
112
Describe 3 steps in fibrinoid necrosis
1 Deposited immune cells in blood vessels
2 Fibrin leakage
3 Necrosis
113
What colour will an acidophilic structure bind?
Pink/orange
114
Define abscess
A localised collection of pus and necrotic tissue surrounded by inflamed tissues
115
What type of blood cell is this?
Megakaryocyte
116
What type of tissue is this?
Skeletal muscle
117
Describe the mechanism of exudate formation
1 Vasodilation
2 Increased hydrostative pressure in capillary
3 Increased permeability of capillary wall due to contaction or retraction of endothelial cells
4 Escape of protein- and cell-rich fluid into interstitial comparment
5 Decrease in colloidal osmotic pressure
118
What type of WBC is this?
Neutrophil
119
Define efficacy of a drug
* Efficacy is the probability of a drug activating a receptor once bound
* Aka the degree to which a drug is able to produce maximal effects
120
Define pharmacokinetics
What the body does to the drug
121
What does Increased eosinophils indicate?
allergy and parasitic infections
122
In immunology, what does PRR stand for?
Pattern recognition receptor
123
What are the 7 causes of celll injury?
Hypoxia
Chemicals and drugs
Micro-organisms
Metabolic
Immune
Nutritional
Genetic
124
What are the 3 types of fibre in connective tissue?
Collagen
Elastin
(trick q there's only 2 \>:) )
125
Name these structures
A Vertebral body
B Lamina
C Spinous process
D Transverse process
E Pedicle
126
What type of cell is this?
Describe 3 features that support your answer
Skeletal muscle
Striated
Multi nucleate
Peripheral nuclei
127
What are the 2 primary lymphoid organs?
Bone marrow and thymus
128
What is the function of myofibroblasts?
pull together damaged connective tissue to promote wound healing.
129
Name 2 locations where simple columnar, ciliated epithelial cells are found
Bronchioles
Fallopian tube
130
Blue on an H and E slide indicates what kind of compound?
Acidic or anionic
131
What is the function of reticulin?
It creates a supportive network for delicate organs such as the liver
132
Name 7 locations where simple columnar, non-ciliated epithelial cells are found
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Gall bladder
Bile ducts
Endocervix
Endometrium
133
List the 3 secondary lymphoid organs
Spleen
Lymph nodes
Mucosal associated lymphatic tissue
134
Define eedema.
Excessive fluid in interstitial compartment or body cavities
135
What do naked viruses lack?
An envelope
136
What are the 4 main functions of the basement membrane?
1) controls epithelial growth
2) selectively permeable barrier to nutrients
3) structural support
4) links epithelium to underlying tissue
137
List the 4 main function of connective tissue
Structural support
Metabolic support
Immune defence
Tissue repair
138
Which germ layer(s) is/are neurones derived from?
Ectoderm
139
What type of cell is this?
Neutrophil
140
What type of WBC is this?
Neutrophil
141
What is the function of collagen type VII
Links basement membrane to underlying connective tissue
142
What are 3 functions of the bacterial capsule?
increases virulence
protects against phagocytosis
prevents dehydration..
143
Define pharmacodynamics
What the drug does to the body
144
What shape is the nucleus of a monocyte?
Kidney /bean shaped or eccentric oval
145
What type of collagen is basement membrane predominantly made of?
Type IV collagen
146
What type of WBC is this?
Eosinophil
147
What does DAMPs stand for?
Damage associated molecular patterns
148
What is the funciton of epithelial cilia?
Rhythmic beating for movement of eg mucus out of respiratory tract or ovum along fallopian tube
149
How long after entering tissue until neutrophils die?
Within hours
150
Which vitamin is required for collagen synthesis?
Vitamin C
151
What type of bacteria is this?
Streptococci
152
List 3 places where type 1 collagen is found
Bone, tendons and ligaments
153
What is the size of a bacterium?
1-2 um
154
List 7 examples of permanent resident cells in connective tissue
Fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, osteoblasts, chondrocytes, adipocytes
155
What type of WBC is this?
Basophil
156
What are stromal cells?
Supportive cells in an organ
157
What is the average lifespan of a platelet cell?
8-10 days
158
Define atrophy
A reduction in tissue or organ size due to decrease in cell size and number and thus decreased metabolic activity
159
A decrease in cell number due to reduced functional demand is termed what?
Involution
160
In inflammation, which 3 substances causes an increase in inter-endotheilal gaps?
Histamine, bradykinin and leukotrines
161
Define hyperplasia
Increase in cell number resulting in increased organ size/mass
162
List 5 ways in which necrosis and apoptosis differ
**Necrosis Apoptosis**
**Reversibility** Yes, if early No
**Inflammation** Yes Minimal
**Area** Large Small # cells
**Cell swelling** Yes No
**Cell membrane** Disrupted Intact
163
What does eosin bind to?
Cationic tissue (ie positively charged)
164
In the peptidoglycan wall of the bacterium, how are the peptide chains connected?
Pentapeptide bridges
165
What is the key feature of each of the 3 muscle types on light microscopy of a longitudinal section?
1 Skeletal = single nucleus at periphery of cell
2 Cardiac = central nuclei in branching fibres
3 Smooth = central elongated nuclei
166
What type of WBC is this?
Monocyte
167
A basophilic tissue will have an affinity for which dye?
Haematoxylin
168
What is an immature RBC called?
Reticulocyte
169
What colour will a basophilic structure stain?
Blue
170
Where is type II collagen found?
cartilage
171
Describe laminar blood flow and the relative positions of WBCs, platelets and RBCs
Larger components of blood are in centre of lumen, thus WBC \> RBC \> platelets from centre to periphery.
172
Which WBC has a multil-lobed nucleus?
Neutrophils
173
What does PAMPS stand for?
Pathogen associated molecular patterns
174
Describe 3 steps in the pathophysiology of stasis in inflammation
1 Plasma fluid leaves vascular circulation, slowing blood flow
2 RBCs conglomerate
3 Laminar flow is altered and WBCs are marginated
175
What groups did Woese divide all living things into?
Eukarya, archaea and bacteria.
176
At what vertebral level does the spinal cord stop?
L1/L2
177
List the 5 commonest patterns of necrosis
Coagulative
Liquefecation
Casseous
Fat necrosis
Fibrinoid
178
Define hypertrophy
Increase in cell size, organ size and functional activity
179
What are the 3 types of granulocytes?
Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils
180
Where is histamine derived from?
Mast cells in pre-formed granules
181
In which two locations are simple cuboidal epithelia found?
Thyroid follicles and renal tubules
182
What type of WBC is this?
Monocyte
183
What is the function of desmosomes/adherens junctions between epithelial cells?
Strong mechanical attachments between cells, linking their cytoskeletons
184
Which is the largest WBC?
Monocyte
185
What type of WBC is this?
Basophil
186
What type of bacteria is this?
Diplobacillus
187
What are the 3 main groups of plasma proteins?
Globulins, albumin and coagulants
188
Name the 6 types of atypical connective tissue
Bone.
Cartilage.
Blood.
Adipose.
Haematopoietic.
Lymphatic
189
Where is bradykinin derived from?
Plasma proteins
190
A Articular facet for head of rib
B Superior/inferior articular facet
C Articular facet for tubercle of rib
191
What are stratified squamous epithelia specialised for?
protection from abrasion
192
Erector spinae muscles:
How would you identify them by palpation?
What movements do they support?
Between spinous process and ribs
Extension/flexion of the back
193
What is the function of communicating/nexus/gap junctions between epithelial cells?
Allows passage of small molecules for communication
194
Coagulative necrosis is typical of which damage to what type of organs?
Typical of infarction of solid organs (but not brain).
195
What type of WBC is this?
Eosinophil
196
What type of bacteria is this?
Streptobacilli
197
Define capsid
The protective protein coat shell around the viral genome and forming the core of the virus particle
198
Define affinity and how it is measured
* Affinity is the probability or strength of a drug binding to its receptors
* Measured with equilibrium dissociation constant
KA = drug concentration required for 50% occupancy of receptors
199
What shape is the nucleus of a fibroblast?
Elongated
200
What type of WBC is this?
Neutrophil
201
What is the function of tight/occluding junctions between epithelial cells?
To seal the intercellular space to prevent passage of substances between cells
202
Which is the most abundant WBC?
Neutrophil
203
What type of tissue is this?
Smooth muscle
204
What type of tissue is this?
Smooth muscle
205
What does SARS stand for?
Severe acture respiratory syndrome
206
What shape is a coccus bacteria?
Spherical
207
How many pairs of chromosimes does a human have?
23 pairs
208
What is the ECM of connective tissue composed of?
Ground substance and fibres
209
How is haematocrit calculated?
volume RBC/volume blood
210
What does haematoxylin bind to?
Acidic or anionic structures
211
What is the simplest virus structure? What does it contain?
Non enveloped; contains nucleic acid and capsid
212
Which viruses tend to survive better: naked or enveloped viruses? Why?
Naked viruses tend to survive adverse environments better as envelopes are easily damaged by chemicals, extreme pH and temperature.
213
What are the three methods used by viruses to enter and uncoat their genome into the host cell?
1. Fusion of viral envelope with host membrane; nucleocapsid enters2. Endocytosis in vesicle; endosome aids in viral uncoating3. Injection of nucleic acid
214
What is a capsomere?
Clusters of capsid protein subunits (surrounding the viral genome)
215
What is the difference between serum and plasma?
Serum- what is left after the blood has clotted (no clotting factors)Plasma- still has clotting factors
216
What is a PAMP?
Pathogen-associated molecular pattern e.g. LPS on G- bacteria
217
Endospores are found in a few bacterial genera only, which includes....
Clostridium and Bacillus
218
What is the name of the most important hospital acquired pathogen? What condition does it cause?
Clostridium difficile--\> pseudomembranous colitis
219
Endospores are resistant to heat, desiccation, UV and many chemicals. How do you kill them?
Heat (steam) under pressure e.g. an autoclave.
220
What is the name given to intracellular sensors of PAMPs?
NOD-like receptors (nucleotide-binding oligomerisation domain) or NLRs.
221
What are the three common bacterial causes of meningitis?
Teens and young adults: Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae. Older adults: **Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)**, group B Streptococcus, Listeria monocytogenes.
222
What are the common culprits of TSS?
Staph. aureus and Strept. pyogenes
223
What cytokine stimulates Tfh cells? What cytokine do Tfh release? What is the net effect?
Mnemonic: F\*ckin' Hank (Tfh) got sick (IL-6) at a 21st (IL-21) 'cause that b\*tch (B-cells) made him drink too much (proliferation and differentiation).
Il-6 --\> Tfh --\> IL-21 --\> B-cell proliferation and differentiation
224
Name three mediators which cause vasodilation?
NO, histamine and prostacyclin
225
Name four mediators which cause increased vascular permeability?
Histamine, serotonin, bradykinin and leukotrienes
226
Name two mediators which cause pain
Bradykinin, prostaglandins
227
What 3 mediators cause endothelial activation?
IL-1, histamine, TNF
228
What 4 mediators cause fever?
IL-1, IL-6, TNF and prostaglandins (especially PGE2)
Mnemonic: A totally negligent father (TNF) sacrificed their only child (IL-1) to satan (IL-6) so he could watch that PG movie Shrek in peace (prostaglandins; PGE2)
229
What mediators cause weight loss?
TNF
230
What mediators cause chemotaxis?
Complement components, bacterial components, certain cytokines (especially chemokines) and leukotrienes.
231
What cytokines causes T cells to differentiate into T17 cells? What cytokines do they then produce? What is the net result
IL-6 TGF-B --\> T17 --\> IL-6 IL-17 --\> neutrophil recruiment
Totally hot 17 year old (Th17) wanted to throw a party. Satan (IL-6) convinces his Grandfather Barry (TGF-B) to let him throw a party. A bunch of 17-year old (IL-17) and Satan live it up (IL-6) until the cops show up (neutrophil recruitment)
232
What are the four basic tissue types?
Connective tissues, epithelial tissues, muscle and nervous tissue.
233
What is autolysis?
The process of tissues and cells breaking down following removal from the body. Occurs primarily through lysosome enzymatic activity (and bacterial colonisation?).
234
What is the most common fixative agent?
Formalin (formaldehyde gas in water)
235
What are the specialised connective tissues?
Blood, cartilage, bone and adipose.
236
What is the name of the pluripotent progenitor cell which all blood cells (as well as osteoclasts) are formed from?
haemopoietic stem cell (HSC)
237
What is a reticulocyte? What is it derived from?
Immature RBCs released into blood, which increases from 1% in times of haemorrhage or haemolysis. Derived from normoblasts in the marrow.
238
What are the 3 primary layers in the early embryo?
mesoderm, ectoderm and endoderm
239
Connective tissues develop from what embryonic layer? From what cells?
mesoderm; from multipotent mesenchymal stem cells
240
Epithelium develop from what embryonic layer?
All three; depends on location.
241
Muscle develops from what germ layer?
mesoderm
242
Neural tissue develops from what germ layer?
ectoderm
243
True or false: Epithelial cells are vascular.
False. Epithelial cells are avascular.
244
What is the name of the junction that links epithelial cells to the underlying basement membrane?
Hemidesmosome
245
What are the steps to preparing tissue for examination under the light microscope?
1. Formalin- prevents autolysis 2. -OH dehydration 3. Xylene added as it is miscible with --\> 4. Paraffin- makes the tissue specimen hard enough for sectioning 5. Re-hydration and staining with H&E
246
What is Marfan syndrome?
An inherited disease of fibrillin-1, which is an important glycoprotein in elastic (fibres). This disease is associated with arotic, skin and eye problems.
247
Describe the glandular morphology of sweat glands.
simple coiled tubular
248
Describe the glandular morphology of sebaceous glands.
simple branched acinar
249
What is Pharmacokinetics?
The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs (ADME)"What the body does to the drug"
250
What is the difference between COX1 and COX2 in terms of inducible vs non-inducible?
COX-1 is also called as constitutive enzyme because it is produced by a cell under all types of physiological conditions. The amount at which constitutive enzymes are produced remain constant without regard of substrate concentration and physiological demand. On the other hand COX-2 is an inducible enzyme as it is produced under certain specific conditions like inflammation and dependent upon the production of cytokines.
251
What is the difference between COX1 and COX2 in terms of location?
COX-1 is commonly found in the kidney, stomach and platelets whereas COX-2 is located in macrophages, leukocytes and fibroblasts.
252
What is the difference between COX1 and COX2 in terms of function?
COX-1 play important role in housekeeping such as it protects gastric mucosa, regulate gastric acid and maintain normal functions of the kidney by stimulating prostaglainds. COX-2 is involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins that causes pain and inflammation in the body.
253
What is the difference between COX1 and COX2 in terms of inhibition by a pharmacological agent?
Inhibition:There are different types of drugs that are used to inhibit COX-2 enzyme including Celecoxib. Non-steriodal anti-inflammatory drugs inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes.
254
What is pharmacodynamics?
"What a drug does to the body"; the branch of pharmacology concerned with the effects of drugs and the mechanism of their action.
255
What are the four different types of receptors?
1. Ligand-gated ion channel2. G-protein coupled receptors3. Kinase-linked receptors4. Nuclear receptors
256
Cytokines are the ligand for what type of receptors?
Kinase-linked receptors
257
What is the clinical name of the drug (Sudafed PE) that was used in the Cardiovascular research prac? What kind of drug is it?
Phenylephrine; alpha adrenergic agonist.
258
Describe a primary curve. What regions of the spine does it occur?
C-shaped curvature in the spine, normally seen in development (foetal cruve). The primary curvature is retained in the thoracic and sacro region of the spine.
259
Describe a secondary curve. What regions of the spine does it occur?
Lordotic curve; reverse of the C curve, which occurs in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spine.
