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Flashcards in Fundamentals Test Deck (113):
1

Term Valgus refers to

Turned outward

2

Posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by
1. Trauma or other pathology
2. Greater than 90-degree flexion
3. Less than 90-degree flexion

1 and 3 only

3

The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in the following projection

D) lateral Oblique elbow

4

The female bony pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s)
1. The male greater/false pelvis is deep
2. The male acetabulum faces more laterally
3. The female coccyx is more vertical

B) 1 and 2 only

5

Which of the following techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach?
A) Place the patient in a 35- to 40- degree RAO position
B) Place the patient in a lateral position
C) Angle the CR 35 to 45 degree cephalad
D) Angle the CR 35 to 45 degree caudad

C) Angle the CR 35 to 45 degree cephalad

6

All of the following statements regarding respiration structures are true EXCEPT
A) the left lung has two fissures'
B) the inferior portion of a lung is its apex
C) each lung is enclosed in pleural membrane
D) the main stem bronchi enter the lung hilum

A) the left lung has two fissures

7

All the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true EXCEPT
A) the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR
B) the petrous pyramids fill the orbits
C) the MSP is parallel to the IR
D)the CR is perpendicular to the IR and exits at the nasion

C) MSP is parallel to the IR

8

Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the
A) left atrium
B) right atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right ventricle

D) right ventricle

9

Flattening of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?
A) pneumothorax
B) pleural effusion
C) emphysema
D) pneumonia

C) Emphysema

10

Structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) include the following
1. Cecum
2. Vermiform appendix
3. SIgmoid

1 and 2 only

11

During an upper gi examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely
A) AP erect
B) PA
C) RAO
D) LPO

D) LPO

12

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
1. Talotibial
2. Talocalcaneal
3. Talofibular

B) 1 and 3 only

13

The upper surface of the foot may be described as the
1. plantar surface
2. anterior surface
3. dorsum

2 and 3 only

14

The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the
A) Mucosa
B) Muscularis
C) Submucosa
D) Serosa

D) Serosa

15

Term used to describe movement include
1. Plantar flexion
2. Valgus
3. Oblique

1 and 2 only

16

In the Ap axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?
A) Occipital bone
B) Frontal bone
C) Facial bone
D) Basal formina

A) Occipital bone

17

The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right accetabulum will demonstrate the
1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum
2. right iliac wing
3. right anterior iliopubic column

1 and 2 only

18

A frontal view of the sternum best accomplished in which of the following positions?
A) AP
B) PA
C) RAO
D) LAO

C) RAO

19

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?
A) Spondylitis
B) Spondylolysis
C) Spondylolisthesis
D) Spondylosis

C) Spondylolisthesis

20

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
1. Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa
2. Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia
3. Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint

1 and 2 only

21

How should a chest examine to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries?
A) Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position.
B) Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained.
C) Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position.
D) Perform the examination AP supine at 44 in SID.

C) Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position.

22

All the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true EXCEPT
A) metformin is used to help lower blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetic patients
B) patients on metformin who have intravenous (IV) iodinated contrast agent administration are at risk for renal failure
C) metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies
D) metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after IV iodinated contrast studies

C) metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies

23

Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?
A) Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees
B) Use a support sponge for the phalanges
C) Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR
D) Use ulnar flexion

A) Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees

24

Sternoclavicular articulations are likely to be demonstrated in all of the following EXCEPT
A) weight-bearing
B) RAO
C) LAO
D) PA

A) weight-bearing

25

The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as
A) angulation
B) apposition
C) luxation
D) sprain

B) apposition

26

Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?
A) Left lateral decubitus position
B) Right lateral decubitus position
C) Ventral decubitus position
D) Dorsal decubitus position

D) Dorsal decubitus position

27

Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?
A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up
B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down
C) AP Trendelenburg
D) AP Supine

A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up

28

Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?
A) Esophagus
B) Trachea
C) Cardiac apex
D) Superimposed scapular borders

C) Cardiac apex

29

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?
A) 5 degrees caudad
B) 10 degrees caudad
C) 5 degrees cephalad
D) 0 degrees (perpendicular)

D) 0 degrees (perpendicular)

30

An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?
A) Intravenous urogram
B) Retrograde pyelogram
C) Myelogram
D) Cystogram

C) Myelogram

31

Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?
A) AP or PA through the foramen magnum
B) AP oblique with right and left head rotation
C) Horizontal beam lateral
D) AP axial

A) AP or PA through the foramen magnu,

32

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones EXCEPT
A) the temporal bones
B) the occipital bone
C) the ethmoid bone
D) the sphenoid bone

B) occipital bone

33

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
1. a fracture
2. a foreign body
3. soft tissue

2 and 3 only

34

With what frequency must radiographic equipment be checked for linearity and reproducibility?
A) Annually
B) Biannually
C) Semianually
D) Quarterly

A) Annually

35

Which of the following occurs during Bremsstrahlung (Brems) radiation production?
A) An electron makes a transition from an outer to an inner electron shell
B) An electron approaching a positive nuclear charge changes direction and loses energy
C) A high-energy photon ejects an outer-shell electron
D) A low-energy photon ejects an inner-shell electron

B) An electron approaching a positive nuclear charge changes direction and loses energy.

36

Typical examples of digital imaging include
1. MRI
2. CT
3. CR

1, 2, and 3

37

Component parts of a CT gantry include
1. high-voltage generator
2. multidetector array
3. x-ray tube

1, 2, and 3

38

Design characteristics of x-ray tube targets that determine heat caoacity include
1. the rotation of the anode
2. the diameter of the anode
3. the size of the focal spot

1, 2, and 3

39

If exposure factors of 85 kv, 400 mA, and 12 ms yield an output exposure of 150 mR, what is the milliroentgens per milliampere-seconds (mR/mAs)
A) 0.32
B) 3.1
C) 17.6
D) 31

D) 31

40

If a high-voltage transformer has 100 primary turns and 50,000 secondary turns and is supplied by 220 V and 100 A, what are the secondary voltage and current?
A) 200 A and 110 V
B) 200 mA and 110 kV
C) 20 A and 100 V
D) 20 mA and 100 kV

B) 200 mA and 110 kV

41

When using the smaller field in a dual-field image intensifier
1. the image is magnified
2. the image is brighter
3. a larger anatomic area is viewed

1 only

42

Light-sensitive AEC devices are known as
A) phototimers
B) ionization chambers
C) sensors
D) backup timers

A) phototimers

43

The electron cloud within the x-ray tube is the product of a process called
A) electrolysis
B) thermionic emission
C) rectification
D) induction

B) thermionic emission

44

Which of the following will improve the spatial resolution of image- intensified images?
1. A very thin coating of cesium iodide on the input phosphor
2. A smaller- diameter input screen
3. Increased total brightness gain

1 and 2 only

45

Which of the following is (are) characteristics of the x-ray tube?
1. The target material should have a high atomic number and a high melting point
2. The useful beam emerges from the port window
3. The cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages

1, 2, and 3

46

A parallel- plate ionization chamber receives a particular charge as x-ray photons travel through it. This is the operating principle of which of the following devices?
A) AEC
B) Image intensifier
C) Video recorder
D) Photospot camera

A) AEC

47

Which of the following will serve to increase the effective energy of the x-ray beam?
1. Increase in added filtration
2. Increase in kilovoltage
3. Increase in milliamperage

1 and 2 only

48

Which of the following combinations would pose the least hazard to a particular single phase anode?
A) 1.2 mm focal spot, 92 kV, 1.5 mAs
B) 0.6 mm focal spot, 80 k, 3 mAs
C)1.2 mm focal spot, 70 k, 6 mAs
D) 0.6 mm focal spot, 60 kV, 12 mAs

A) 1.2 mm focal spot, 92 kV, 1.5 mAs

49

Which of the following systems functions to compensate for charging patient/part thicknesses during flouroscopic procedures?
A) Automatic brightness control
B) Minification gain
C) Automatic resolution control
D) Flux gain

A) Automatic brightness control

50

Delivery of large exposures to a cold anode or the use of exposures exceeding tube limitation can result in
1. Increased tube output
2. cracking of the anode
3. rotor- bearing damage

2 and 3 only

51

If the primary coil of a high-voltage transformer is supplies by 220 kV and has 400 turns and the secondary coils has 100,000 turns, what is the voltage induced in the secondary coil?
A) 80 kV
B) 55 kV
C) 80 V
D) 55 V

B) 55 kV

52

Whats is the relationship between kV and HVL?
A) As kV increases, the HVL increases
B) As kV decreases, the HVL increases
C) If the kV is doubled, the HVL doubles
D) If the kV is doubled, the HVL is squared

A) As kV increases, the HVL increases

53

As window level increases
A) contrast scale increases
B) contrast scale decreases
C) brightness increases
D) brightness decreases

C) brightness decreases

54

Circuit devices that permit electrons to flow in only one direction are
A) solid-state diodes
B)resistors
C) transformers
D) aitotransformers

A) solid-state diodes

55

Patient does during fluoroscopy is affected by the
1. distance between the patient and the input phosphor
2. amount of magnification
3. tissue density

1 and 2 only

56

The AEC backup timer functions to
1. protect the patient from overexposure
2. protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat
3. increase of decrease programmed receptor exposure

1 and 2 only

57

Which of the following devices converts mechanical energy to electrical energy?
A) Motor
B) Generator
C) Stator
D) Rotor

B) Generator

58

The essential function of a phototimer is to
A) provide a brighter fluoroscopic image
B automatically restrict the field size
C) terminate the x-ray exposure once the IR is correctly exposed
D) automatically increase or decrease incoming line voltage

C) terminate the x-ray exposure once the IR is correctly exposed

59

A slit camera is used to measure
1. focal-spot size
2. spatial resolution
3. intensifying screen resolution

1 and 2 only

60

In which of the following examinations would an IP front with very low absorption properties be especially important?
A) Abdominal radiography
B) Extremity radiography
C) Angiography
D) Mammography

D) Mammography

61

Which of the following causes pitting, or many small surface melts, of the anode's focal track?
A) Vaporized tungsten on the glass envelope
B) Loss of anode rotation
C) A larger amount of heat to a cold anode
D) Repeated, frequent overloading

D) Repeated, frequent overloading

62

The advantages of collimators over aperture diaphragms and flare cones include
1. the variety of field sizes available
2. more efficient beam efficient
3. better cleanup of scattered radiation

1 and 2 only

63

The type of x-ray tube designed to turn on and off rapidly, providing multiple short, precise exposures, is
A) high speed
B) grid- controlled
C) diode
D) electrode

B) grid-controlled

64

Characteristics of the metallic element tungsten include
1. ready dissipation of heat
2. high melting point
3. high atomic number

1, 2, and 3

65

The voltage ripple associated with a three-phase, 12-pulse rectified generator is about
A) 4%
B) 13%
C) 32%
D) 100%

A) 4%

66

The device that receives the remnant beam, converts it into light, and then increases the brightness of that light is the
A) charge-coupled device (CCD)
B) spot image device
C) image intensifier
D) television monitor

C) image intensifier

67

A high-speed electron is decelerated as is attracted to a tungsten atom nucleus. This results in
A) Bremsstrahlung radiation
B) characteristic radiation
C) Compton scatter
D) a photoelectric effect

A) Bremsstrahlung radiation

68

All the following are components of the image intensifier EXCEPT
A) the photocathode
B) the focusing lenses
C) the TV monitor
D) the accelerating anode

C) the TV monitor

69

Components of digital imaging include
1. computer manipulation of the image
2. formation of an electronic image on the radiation detector
3. formation of an x-ray image directly on the IR

1 and 2 only

70

Which of the following is used in digital fluoroscopy, replacing the image intensifier's television camera tube?
A) Solid-state diode
B) Charge-coupled device
C) Photostimulable phosphor
D) Vidicon

B) Charge-coupled device

71

The condition that results from a persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is

A) an atrial septal defect
B) a ventricular septal defect
C) a patent ductus arteriosus
D) coarctation of the aorta

C) a patent ductus arteriosus

72

Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?
A) Tangential
B) AP axial
C) Transthoracic lateral
D) PA oblique scapular Y

D) PA oblique scapular Y

73

Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the
A) root
B) hilus
C) carina
D) epiglottis

B) hilus

74

Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax?
1. RAO
2. LAO
3. RPO

2 and 3 only

75

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?
A) Lateral oblique foot
B) Medial oblique foot
C) Lateral foot
D) Weight-bearing foot

A) Lateral oblique foot

76

The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the
A) T2-3 interspace fifth thoracic vertebra
B) T9-10 interspace
C) T5
D) costal margin

C) T5

77

Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Atelectasis
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Hypoxia

C) Pulmonary embolism

78

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in
A) the recumbent position
B) the erect position
C) the anatomic position
D) the Fowler position

A) the recumbent position

79

The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/shaft is
A) red marrow
B) yellow marrow
C) endosteum
D) cancellous tissue

B) yellow marrow

80

All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur EXCEPT
A) popliteal surface
B) Intercondylar fossa
C) Intertrochanteric line
D) linea aspera

C) Intertrochanteric line

81

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?
A) Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees
B) Lateral oblique 15 to 20 degrees
C) Medial oblique 45 degrees
D) Lateral oblique 45 degrees

A) Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees

82

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to
1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR
2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR
3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the iR

1 and 2 only

83

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1. Scapular Y projection
2. Inferosuperior axial
3. Transthoracic lateral

1, 2, and 3

84

Which of the following is (are) proximal to the tibial plateau
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Tibial condyles
3. Tibial tuberosity

1 only

85

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include
1. epicondyles parallel to the IR
2. lesser tubercle in profile
3. superimposed epicondyles

2 and 3 only

86

Which of the following are mediastinal structures?
1. Heart
2. Trachea
3. Esophagus

1, 2, and 3

87

With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?
A) 5 to 15 degrees caudad
B) 5 to 15 degrees cephalad
C) 15 to 30 degrees cephalad
D) 15 to 30 degrees caudad

D) 15 to 30 degrees caudad

88

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
A) Avulsion fracture
B) Torus fracture
C) Comminuted fracture
D) Compound fracture

A) Avulsion fracture

89

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help from the elbow joint?
A) Semilunar/trochlear notch
B) Radial head
C) Capitulum
D) Trochlea

D) Trochlea

90

Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
A) eversion
B) inversion
C) abduction
D) adduction

D) adduction

91

During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the
A) subdural space
B) subarachnoid space
C) epidural space
D) epidermal space

B) subarachnoid soace

92

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the
A) diploe
B) lambda
C) bregma
D) pterion

C) bregma

93

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the
1. atlantoaxial joint
2. radioulnar joint
3. temporomandibular joint

1 and 2 only

94

The lumbar vertebral lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?
A) Eye
B) Nose
C) Body
D) Ear

C) Body

95

An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as
A) blowout
B) Le Fort
C) contracture
D) contrecoup

D) contrecoup

96

In which of the following positions can the seasamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
A) Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes
B) Tangential metatarsals/toes
C) 30-degree medial oblique foot
D) 30-degree lateral oblique foot

B) Tangential metatarsals/toes

97

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?
A) Ewing sarcoma
B) Osgood-Schlatter disease
C) Gout
D) Exostosis

B) Osgood-Schlatter disease

98

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed
1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula
2. following inversion or eversion injuries
3. to demonstrate a ligament tear

2 and 3 only

99

Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?
1. Manubrium
2. Clavicles
3. 24 ribs

1 and 3 only

100

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
A) right main steam bronchus
B) left main stem bronchus
C) esiohagus
D) proximal stomach

A) right main stem bronchus

101

With patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
A) Radial head
B) Ulnar head
C) Coronoid process
D) Olecranon process

C) Coronoid procees

102

The type (s) of articulations lacking a joint cavity include
1. Fibrous
2. Cartilaginous
3. Synovial

1 and 2 only

103

The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in the following projection(s)
1. Lateral cervical spine
2. Lateral thoracic spine
3. Lateral lumbar spine

2 and 3 only

104

What structure is located midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis?
A) Dome of the acetabulum
B) Femoral neck
C) Greater trochanter
D) Iliac crest

A) Dome of the acetabulum

105

Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of
1. uterine tubal patency
2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity
3. Uterine position

1, 2, and 3

106

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)
A) AP projection
B) 30-degree oblique
C) 45-degree oblique
D) AP axial projection

B) 30-degree oblique

107

The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to
A) permit diaphragm to move to its lowest position
B) avoid superimposition on its apices
C) assist in maintaining an upright position
D) keep the MSP parallel

B) avoid superimposition on it apices

108

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the
A) diaphysis
B) epiphysis
C) metaphysis
D) apophysis

B) epiphysis

109

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
A) AP projection
B) lateral projection
C) medial oblique projection
D) lateral oblique projection

A) AP projection

110

The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the 'Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?
A) Eye
B) Nose
C) Body
D) Neck

B) Nose

111

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
A) AP
B) 90-degrees mediolateral
C) 45-degree internal rotation
D) 45-degree external rotation

C) 45-degree internal rotation

112

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
A) Foramen magnum
B) Trachea
C) Pharynx
D) C4

D) C4

113

During double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?
A) AP or PA erect
B) Right lateral decubitus
C) Left lateral decubitus
D) Ventral decubitus

B) Right lateral decubitus