Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary I Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary I Deck (36):
1

Which of the following radiographic signs relates to a pneumoperitoneum?

a. Poppy seed calcifications
b. Football sign
c. Bird-beak appearance
d. Double track sign

b. Football sign

2

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the renal disease characterized by the presence of grossly elongated, dilated collecting ducts throughout the renal parenchyma which resemble a cluster of straws when seen on end?

a. ureteral strictures are a common associated complication
b. the surface of the kidney remains smooth
c. the disease develops secondarily to a pyelonephritic infection
d. associated changes may include cystic involvement of the liver

d. associated changes may include cystic involvement of the liver

3

A supine KUB of a patient with gastric ulcer perforation demonstrates visualization of both the intraluminal and peritoneal surfaces of the bowel wall. Which of the following signs describes this appearance?

a. Football sign
b. Kirklin sign
c. String sign
d. Rigler's sign

d. Rigler's sign

4

Reflux of colon contents through the ileocecal is abnormal. During a lower GI study, it is normal to see contrast material in the ileum. What is the frequency of retro flow of contrast into the ileum duringa lower GI study.

a. 10%
b. 40%
c. 70%
d. 90%

d. 90%

5

A thin, sharply demarcated lucent line with parallel straight margins at the base of an ulcer crater is called?

a. ulcer collar
b. Carmen's line
c. Hampton line
d. Cresent sign

c. Hampton line

6

Following renal trauma, which imaging techniques offers physiologic information on renal function?

a. doppler ultrasound
b. retrograde pylogram
c. radionuclide urogram
d. abdominal CT

c. radionuclide urogram

7

Bowel obstruction during the immediate post-natal period, termed meconium ileus, is related to which of the following disorders?

a. Systemic lupus erythematosis
b. Inspissated milk syndrome
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Hirsprong's disease

c. Cystic fibrosis

8

The most common portion of the colon to be affected by adenocarcinoma is?

a. rectosigmond region
b. descending colon
c. transverse colon
d. ascending colon

a. rectosigmond region

9

What is the common benign ureteral tumor?

a. fibroepithelial polyp
b. leioyoma
c. papilloma
d. hemangioma

c. papilloma

10

Zenker's divercilulum can be found where?

a. Superior-posterior esophagus
b. Superior-anterior esophagus
c. Mesenteric side of ileum
d. Anti-mesenteric side of ileum

a. Superior-posterior esophagus

11

Which of the following special imaging techniques is best utilized for the diagnosis of a cavernous hemangioma of the liver?

a. Spiral computed tomography with the administration of intravenous contrast and images taken in a hepatic arterial phase and a portal venous phase.

b. Catheterized administration of contrast into the SMA with computed tomography.

c. Magnetic resonance imaging of the liver utilizing T1 and T2 weighted images.

d. Radionuclide imaging of the liver.

a. Spiral computed tomography with the administration of intravenous contrast and images taken in a hepatic arterial phase and a portal venous phase.

12

Regarding pneumatosis intestinalis, which is false?

a. may be caused by bowel necrosis, ulceration or increased membrane permeability
b. findings include air bubbles in bowel wall on CT
c. it is not considered benign, even when asymptomatic
d. can be related to pulmonary origin

c. it is not considered benign, even when asymptomatic

13

Which of the following is not a cause of adynamic ileus?

a. Surgical manipulation
b. Electrolyte imbalance
c. Renal stones
d. Crohn's disease

d. Crohn's disease

14

A large, atonic bladder with little or no trabeculation, producing either incontinence or retention or urine is suggestive of...

a. Bladder diverticulum
b. Vesicoureteral reflux
c. Neurogenic bladder
d. Megacystica syndrome

c. Neurogenic bladder

15

Some consider crossed renal ectopia a variant of the horseshoe kidney. The ectopic kidney lies above the pelvis but on the wrong side. What frequency of the ectopic kidney being fused with the normal kidney?

a. never
b. 30%
c. 60%
d. 90%

d. 90%

16

It is thought that upper urinary tract calculi originate as ________ deep in the lining of the collecting ducts in the renal papillae which may detach and pass into the renal collecting system.

a. areas of nodular heterotopia
b. areas of acute focal pyelonephritis
c. Brucellosis infectious foci
d. Randall's plaques

d. Randall's plaques

17

A "cloverleaf deformity" is associated with:

a. tuberculosis
b. Crohn's disease
c. Zollinger-Ellison disease
d. duodenal ulcer disease

d. duodenal ulcer disease

18

Which of the following is associated with the drooping lily appearance?

a. ureteral duplication
b. bifid renal pelvis
c. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
d. retrocaval ureter

a. ureteral duplication

19

What is common location for gastric diverticulum to occur?

a. body
b. fundus
c. cardia
d. antrum

b. fundus

20

Complete loss the mucosal folds in the small intestine, seen in advanced sprue, is called what?

a. String sign
b. Mexican hat sign
c. Steppladder appearance
d. Moulage sign

d. Moulage sign

21

What is the most cause of large bowel obstrution?

a. Fecal impaction
b. Ischemia
c. Primary malignancies of the colon
d. Metastatic disease

c. Primary malignancies of the colon

22

Single or multiple deep ulcers of the esophagus associated with sinus tracts and fistula formation within the wall of the esophagus and extending to the mediastinum are common are characteristic of:

a. tuberculous esophagitis
b. herpes esophagitis
c. cytomegalovirus esophagitis
d. candida esophagitis

a. tuberculous esophagitis

23

Which characteristic listed below is not associated with ulcerative colitis?

a. starts distally and moves proximally through the colon
b. rarely involves the terminal ileum
c. eccentric disease
d. risk of toxic megacolon

c. eccentric disease

24

Dilated veins in the subepithelial connective tissue of the esophagus are most commonly a result of:

a. obstruction of the portal or splenic veins by carcinoma of the panceras
b. pancreatitis
c. slow-flow states (e.g. polycythemia)
d. portal hypertension

d. portal hypertension

25

Calcification of a fetus without involvement of the membranes is called....

a. Still birth rocky syndrome
b. Lithopedion
c. Dish baby syndrome
d. Ankylosing fetal syndrome

b. Lithopedion

26

Which of the following types of diverticuli arise in a relatively weak area on the left anterolateral wall of the esophagus between the inferior border of the aortic arch and the upper external margin of the left main bronchus and are only demonstrated on a right anterior oblique projection?

a. pulsion diverticuli
b. traction diverticuli
c. epiphrenic diverticuli
d. lateral diverticuli

a. pulsion diverticuli

27

Retrocardiac calcification in a retrocardiac esophageal mass is diagnostic of:

a. rhabdomyoma
b. adenomatous polyp
c. leiomyoma
d. squamous papilloma

c. leiomyoma

28

Dsyphagia in a person older than 40 years of age must be assumed to be ______ until proven otherwise?

a. Prebyesophagus
b. Esophageal webs
c. Carcinoma
d. Infectious/inflammatory esophagitis

c. Carcinoma

29

Rupture of berry aneurysms of the arteries at the base of the brain is associated with which renal cystic disease?

a. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
b. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
c. medually sponge kidney
d. multicystic dysplastic kidney

b. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

30

A kidney that crosses the midline is known as a(n):

a. ectopic kidney
b. subdiaphragmatic kidney
c. pelvic kidney
d. kidney malrotation

a. ectopic kidney

31

All of the following are causes of nephrocalcinosis except...

a. renal tubular acidosis
b. sarcoidosis
c. hypothyroidism
d. Wilson's disease

c. hypothyroidism

32

Patients with massive localized rugal thickening along with hypoproteinemia and intestinal edema will often demonstrate which lab findings?

a. positive carcinoembryonic antigen and anemia
b. increased alkaline phosphatase and anemia
c. eosinophilia and anemia
d. positive blood cultures

c. eosinophilia and anemia

33

The "double bubble" sign relates to which of the following?

a. Duodenal atresia
b. Pneumoperitoneum
c. Sigmoid volvulus
d. Pyloric stenosis

a. Duodenal atresia

34

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Crohn disease of the colon?

a. pseudodiverticula formation
b. fistula formation
c. rectal sparing
d. collar button ulcers

d. collar button ulcers

35

Which of the following is associated with bilateral engagement of the kidneys?

a. medullary sponge kidney
b. multicystic dyplastic kidney
c. autosomal recessive polycystic disease
d. none of the above

c. autosomal recessive polycystic disease

36

What is the most common solid mesenteric mass?

a. lymphoma
b. metastases
c. GIST
d. mesenteric desmoid

a. lymphoma