Good-to-Know Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Max crosswind component for takeoffs below 500 RVR

A

10kts

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2
Q

narrow runway takeoff: how should takeoff power be applied

A

static run-up to 40% N1 before releasing brakes and setting takeoff thrust

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3
Q

Below ______RVR, HGS is required

A

Below 1800 RVR, HGS is required

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4
Q

Below _______RVR is AIII mode required

A

Below 1200 RVR AIII mode is required

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5
Q

Autopilot is required when RNP is less than ________

A

.3 RNP or less, Autopilot is required

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6
Q

CAT I, CAT II, CATIII requires use of Autopilot when visibility is ___________

A

3/4 SM or 4000 RVR

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7
Q

HGS RVR required for takeoff?

A

500 RVR

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8
Q

Conditions that require use of the PWB Brake Cooling Module?

A

RTO
MQTW exceeded
Non-normal landing condition

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9
Q

TOGA AFDS commands when engaged for takeoff

A

10deg nose down until 60kts
15deg nose up at 60kts
15deg nose up at lift off until sufficient climb rate then MCP speed + 20Kts

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10
Q

Normal batter voltage

A

22-30V

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11
Q

What flap positions will slats extend to full extend

A

(700): beyond 5
(800 / MAX): beyond 25

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12
Q

What speed does VNAV command at engine acceleration height

A

MCP speed + 20 ( V2+20)
Flap placard -5kts
230 with LE devices extended
250 flaps retracted
Target speed
Waypoint speed

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13
Q

Breakaway thrust settings

A

35 congested ramp
40 non-congested ramp
45 open taxiway

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14
Q

Landing gear speed limits

A

270 extend
235 retract
320 extended

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15
Q

How activate standby hydraulic pump

A

-FFM (automatically)
-Loss of A or B and flaps extended and (airborne or wheel speed>60kts) and FLT CONT switch (A or B) on
-FLT CONT Switch on
-Alternate Flaps Master Arm Switch

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16
Q

Standard Weather visibility used for takeoff minimums

A

5000 RVR or 1SM

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17
Q

Takeoff Alternate Required when?

A

Visibility is below non HGS CAT 1 minimums

18
Q

HGS Takeoff required when RVR is less than?

19
Q

HGS AIII mode required when RVR is less than?

A

1600 RVR

CATIII, CATII SA, CATII 1000RVR

20
Q

CAT III HGS Minimums?

21
Q

Black items on QRC

A

(7) Emergency Descent
Smoke Fire Fumes
Engine Overheat
Engine Fire Severe Damage Separation
Engine Limit Surge or Stall
Loss of thrust both engines
Automatic Unlock

22
Q

Red Items on QRC

A

(5) Cabin Altitude Warning / Rapid Depressurization
APU Fire
Aborted Engine Start

Runaway Stabilizer
Airspeed Unreliable

23
Q

PWS(radar based): when does it start to scan?

A

Thrust levers set for takeoff and 12seconds later RADAR begins scanning

24
Q

PWS (radar based) warnings begin at below what altitude?

25
PWS (radar based) alerts available below what altitude?
1200 RA
26
PWS (radar based) ALERTS inhibited during takeoff from _____kts to ______RA
80kts to 400RA
27
PWS (radar based) WARNINGS inhibited during takeoff from _____kts to _____RA
100kts to 50 RA
28
EGPWS WINDSHEAR warnings available inflight below?
1500 RA
29
EGPWS scans for WINDSHEAR at ______ to _______
Rotation to 1500RA
30
HGS AIII required on which approaches?
CAT II Reduced Vis SA , CAT II 1000RVR, CAT III
31
CA must fly approach when RVR is below?
Below 1800RVR
32
MEL acronym to remember when on the phone with Dispatch and Maintenance
M - MEL number S - Special Procedure # A - Authorization
33
HGS required for landing when RVR is less than
1800 RVR
34
Are COMPLEX SPECIAL EFP procedures required
YES under VMC and IMC
35
When is alternate required?
1-2-3 +/- 1hr 2000 feet 3mi visibility
36
When is second alternate required?
600-2mi When Wx is below 600feet and or 2mi visibility
37
Which type of precipitation should the FLT switches be positioned to CONT
Severe
38
Which type of turbulence tells us to move the FLT switches to FLT?
Severe
39
In Severe precipitation, the FLT switches should be moved to what position?
CONT
40
In severe turbulence, the FLT switches should be moved to which position?
FLT
41
Windshear warnings are inhibited between what speed and altitude?
100kts to 50feet
42
Windshear cautions are inhibited between what airspeeds and altitude?
80kts to 400 feet