Haematology Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

cause of haemolytic anaemia that can be triggered by broad beans, henna, illness and drugs

A

G6PD

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2
Q

what causes bite and blister cells on blood film

A

G6PD

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3
Q

haemosiderin urine (very dark) suggests intra or extravascular cause of haemolytic anaemia

A

intravascular

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4
Q

Reed sternberg cells in what

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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5
Q

Which lymphoma is mostly curable, which is lower grade but not normally curable

A

Hodgkins mostly curable
NH med survival 10y but not normally curable in advanced stages

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6
Q

Which type of lymphoma presents with a solitary enlarged lymph node

A

hodgkins

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7
Q

Which type of lymphoma presents with alcohol induced pain

A

hodgkins

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8
Q

which lymphoma is more common

A

non hodgkin

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9
Q

What type of lymphoma presents with painless, slowly progressive peripheral lymphadenoapthy

A

Low grade non hodgkins

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10
Q

What blood test helps prognosticate in hodgkins lymphoma

A

ESR

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11
Q

What type of lymphoma presents with rapidly growing bulky lymphadenoma

A

high grade non hodgkins

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12
Q

What type of lymphoma presents with abdominal mass

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

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13
Q

what happens to ferritin in pregnancy

A

falls in the last 2/3 irrespective of iron stores

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14
Q

when to recheck fbc after rx oral iron

A

2-4 weeks

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15
Q

Action if IDA not responded to oral iron

A

refer to haem

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16
Q

How long to continue iron supplement and monitoring

A

3 months after normal FBC
Then bloods 3 monthly for a year

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17
Q

what is pernicious anaemia

A

autoimmune
affects gastric mucosa
leads to B12 deficiency

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18
Q

severe b12/folate defic can lead to

A

pancytopenia
SACDC

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19
Q

If you don’t know the B12 AND folate status, giving folate in isolation can do what?

A

worsen b12 deficiency

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20
Q

pernicious anaemia rx

A

B12 monthly for life

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21
Q

what is coombs test for

A

autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

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22
Q

acute medical treatment of ABO incompatibility

A

hydrocort IV
chlorphenamine IV

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23
Q

when after transfusion can you test FBC

A

6-12h

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24
Q

In which transfusion reactions do you stop the transfusion

A

TRALI
Anaphylaxis
Haemolytic (ABO) reaction

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25
What is post transfusion purpura
plt destruction 5-12 days later- potentially fatal
26
Myeloma is a malignancy of which cells in the BM
plasma
27
Features of myeloma
CRAB hypercalcaemia Renal failure Anaemia Bone (lytic lesions)
28
what antibodies are produced in myeloma
paraproteins- light chains IgA and IgG
29
skull XR finding myeloma
rain drop skull
30
1st line imaging in suspected myeloma
whole body MRI for bone lesions
31
Treatment of myeloma
symptomatic Chemo and RT of bone where neoplastic plasma cells are Stem cell transplant
32
abdominal and neuropsych sx in 20-40 yo female
acute intermittent porphyria
33
acute intermittent porphyria genetics
autosomal dominant
34
Urine turns deep red on standing
acute intermittent porphyria
35
most common type of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
b cell
36
most common childhood malignancy
ALL
37
G6pd inheritance
x linked
38
drugs that precipitate g6pd
anti-malarials: primaquine ciprofloxacin sulph- group drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, sulfonylureas
39
Amyloid AA is due to
chronic long term inflammatory conditions eg crohns
40
Amyloid AL type is due to
myeloma, NH lymphoma, waldenstrom
41
Amyloid ATTR type is due to what
genetic, autosomal dominant
42
How is amyloid diagnosed
biopsy (traditionally rectal)
43
Do you give oral iron in beta thalassaemia
only if ferritin low
44
CLL is more likely in which patient group
HIV/AIDS
45
Philadelphia chromosome linked with what
CML
46
CML rx
tyrosine kinase inhibs (imatinib)
47
Haemophilia A clotting factor
VIII
48
Haemophilia B clotting factor
IX
49
Haemophilia C clotting factor
XI
50
coag findings in haemophilia
prolonged APTT normal PT
51
Hereditary spherocytosis rx
folate supplements splenectomy if severe
52
ITP rx
pred occasionally IV Igs 2nd line splenectomy
53
TTP enzyme
ADAMST13
54
coag screen in TTP
usually normal as opposed to DIC which presents similarly
55
TTP rx
plasma exchange
56
myelodysplastic syndrome can progress to what
AML
57
What presents with massive splenomegaly
myelofibrosis chronic myeloid leukaemia Malaria
58
what can myelofibrosis progress to
AML
59
Sickle cell prophylaxis of acute events
hydroxyurea
60
commonest inherited coag disorder
von willebrand
61
von willebrand fbc and coag might show
quite normal
62
VW treatment
desmopressin prophylactic TXA prior to surgery
63
Waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia is related to what molecule
IgM paraprotein
64
2 features of Waldenstroms
reynauds hyperviscosity features eg visual loss
65
heinz bodies are seen in
G6PD
66
Rouleaux formation
myeloma
67
Howell-Jolly bodies
hyposplenic or asplenic disorders such as post splenectomy or megalobastic anaemia
68
Schistocytes
metallic heart valves or haemolytic anaemia.
69
Raised haemoglobin, plethoric appearance, aquagenic pruritus, splenomegaly, hypertension →
polycythaemia vera
70
Polycythaemia vera mutation
JAK2 mutation
71
Heparin prolongs
APTT
72
warfarin prolongs
PT
73
increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation on blood film
CML
74
What are the few cells that have lymphoid lineage
NK cells Lymphocytes Plasma cells
75
sickle cell inheritance
autosomal recessive
76
first line in polycythaemia vera
venesection
77
History of DVT and painful, heavy calves pruritus swelling varicose veins venous ulceration
Post thrombotic syndrome
78
Most common inherited thrombophilia
Factor V leiden
79
microcytosis disproportionate to the anaemia suggets
beta thalassaemia trait
80
what happens to transferrin saturation in IDA
low
81
what type of transfusion has highest risk of bacterial contamination compared to other types of blood products
platelet
82
Length of treatment in VTE
provoked (e.g. recent surgery): 3 months unprovoked: 6 month
83
Treatment of choice for cancer patients with VTE
DOAC
84
DOAC reversal agents
Rivaroxaban and apixaban- Andexanet Dabigatran - Idarucizumab Edoxaban - nil
85