HazMat Awareness Flashcards

1
Q

WMD stands for _____, and it is created when a _____.

A

Weapons of Mass Destruction

hazardous material is used to cause deadly harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the impacts of hazard targets?

A

Provide instability to the government

Cause massive shutdowns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are biological hazards?

A

Man-made or intentionally shared diseases

(ebola, AIDs, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the correct way to respond to known HazMat situations.

A

Slow down and to fully assess the situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three HazMat zones?

A

Cold - Support Zone

Warm - Contamination Reduction Zone

Hot - Exclusionary Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The offensive objective is to _____ the chemical.

A

go into

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The defensive objective is to _____ the chemical.

A

stay away from

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AHJ stands for _____? Which officer is usually in charge?

A

Authority Having Jurisdiction

Fire Chief, but can transfer command if needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the five HazMat training levels?

A

Awareness (defensive)

Operations (defensive)

Technician (offensive)

Specialist (offensive/defensive)

Incident Command (defensive/offensive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the responsibilities of an awareness level responder?

A

notify and identify

remain in cold zone

provide support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Operations level responders are primarily responsible for _____ and they operate in the _____ zone(s).

A

decontamination

warm and cold zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Technician level responders work primarily in the _____ zone(s).

A

hot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Specialist level responders are _____, and they may work in _____ zone(s). Their primary goal is to _____.

A

offensive and defensive

all

assess specific chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

NFPA stands for _____. They are a _____ agency. Their function is to _____.

A

National Fire Protection Association

private

create highly respective consensus standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

NFPA 470

A

Defines WMDs and can provide information to guide actions at an incident involving WMDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hazardous materials _____.

A

pose unreasonable risk to human health, safety, or the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_____ is an acronym that is used to describe WMDs. It stands for _____.

A

C: Chemical

B: Biological

R: Radioactive

N: Nuclear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The substance that remains when the material is no longer pure.

A

hazardous waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hazardous waste left over from a manufacturing process is especially dangerous because

A

it can contain a mixture of impure chemicals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mandates that are issued and enforced by governmental bodies are _____.

A

regulations

(OSHA, EPA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Standards may be _____.

A

voluntary or mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mandatory standards _____.

A

carry the weight of the law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_____ makes and enforces regulations regarding responder safety.

A

OSHA

government agency

part of the department of labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Decontamination is setup in the

A

cold zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cold zone becomes the warm zone when

A

stepped into from the hot zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The ______ becomes the warm zone after decontamination gear starts getting removed.

A

extended hot zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

NFPA 470

A

sets standards for all other responders

recognizes presence of hazardous materials/WMD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

NFPA 472

A

sets standards for fire responders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

NFPA 473

A

sets standards for medical responders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

HazWOpER

A

Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hazardous materials and _____ are referred to simultaneously in text.

A

WMDs

weapons of mass destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

_____ is an acronym that is used to describe weapons of mass destruction.

A

CBRN

chemical
biological
radioactive
nuclear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The OSHA regulation containing hazardous materials response competencies is commonly referred to as

A

HAZWOPER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Awareness level personnel differ from other responders as they

A

can only function in support roles at a hazardous material incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A responder is in the _____ when simply trying to limit the effects of a hazardous material release.

A

Defensive Mode of Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

____ is where you can get info on hazardous material within the community.

A

LEPC

Local Emergency Planning Committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The response to an incident starts with _____.

A

initial training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

On the state level, the public would be informed by the _____.

A

State Emergency Response Commission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When preplanning for a major hazardous materials incident, responders should aim to increase _____ so that the actual response will run more smoothly.

A

interoperability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Compared to structural firefighting, HazMat incident must be more _____.

A

deliberate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Milk can be considered a hazardous material if _____.

A

large quantities leak into a stream or creek.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

One example of a target hazard might be _____.

A

local hospitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

At the scene of a dirty bomb explosion that released radioactive material, you must be mindful of _____.

A

preserving evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The number of chemical substances registered for use in commerce in the United States is currently around _____.

A

182 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

More than _____ of hazardous material is transported each year in the United States.

A

4 billion pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Emergency responses to situations involving hazardous materials should be developed using a response process based on _____.

A

risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The extent of damage from a weapon of mass destruction depends, in part, on the _____.

A

concentration of chemicals inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The _____ produces the largest databases on chemical information.

A

Chemical Abstracts Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When arriving at the scene with spilled hazardous liquids, you should approach from a _____.

A

safe direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When coming upon a hazardous materials scene from a distance, one of the first chemicals you may detect without equipment is _____.

A

ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In situational awareness, seeing, in contrast to looking, _____.

A

must lead to a thoughtful conclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

If you detect a strong smell of ammonia, but you need to move closer to complete the assessment you should obtain a _____.

A

SCBA

self-contained breathing apparatus

53
Q

A barrel-like storage vessel is a _____.

A

drum container

54
Q

A gasoline pipeline is an example of a _____.

A

container

55
Q

If a liquid is leaking from a closed head drum, it is probably coming from the _____.

A

bung

56
Q

Everyone must have access to the _____.

A

safety data sheets

57
Q

A safety data sheet can be a key response tool, but it is not _____.

A

definitive

58
Q

NFPA 704 is a _____ shape.

A

diamond

59
Q

What colors are used to represent the NFPA 704 chemical properties and characteristics.

A

red

yellow

white

blue

60
Q

The _____ scale is used to identify NFPA 704 hazard levels.

A

0 - 4

61
Q

Military category identities for detonation and fire hazards

A

Division 1 - Octagon

Division 2 - X

Division 3 - Upside-down Triangle

Division 4 - Diamond

62
Q

Military color identities for chemical hazards are

A

red

yellow

white

63
Q

The four types of shipping papers are _____.

A

waybills

consist or train list

dangerous cargo manifest

air bills

64
Q

The DOT marking system is used to identify hazardous materials that are _____.

A

transported

65
Q

DOT Chemical Families

A

DOT Class 1 - Explosives

DOT Class 2 - Gases

DOT Class 3 - Flammable Liquids

DOT Class 4 - Flammable Solids

DOT Class 5 - Oxidizing Substances and Organic Peroxides

DOT Class 6 - Toxic Substances and infectious Substances

DOT Class 7 - Radioactive Materials

DOT Class 8 - Corrosive Substances

DOT Class 9 - Miscellaneous Hazardous Materials, Products, Substances, or Organisms
*Poison
*Poisonous
*Toxic

66
Q

The placard must be visible with _____.

A

binoculars

67
Q

Certain extremely hazardous chemicals always require _____.

A

labels or placards

68
Q

The ERG has a _____ year revision cycle.

A

4

69
Q

ERG has four color coded sections, _____.

A

yellow

blue

orange

green

70
Q

Chemical substances can enter the human body in four ways, _____.

A

inhalation

absorption

ingestion

injection

71
Q

Lungs provide direct point of access to the bloodstream via _____.

A

inhalation

72
Q

Gasoline falling on a worker’s skin may enter the body by _____.

A

absorption

73
Q

How much damage is done to the body of a person who encounters a hazardous chemical depends, in part, on the person’s _____.

A

genetics

74
Q

After exposure to harmful substances, _____ should occur prior to treatment.

A

decontamination

75
Q

After exposure and decontamination, care should be provided in the _____ zone.

A

cold

76
Q

States of matter include _____.

A

solid, liquid, and gas/vapor

77
Q

Types of stress changes are _____.

A

thermal

chemical

mechanical

78
Q

B.L.E.V.E.

A

boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion

79
Q

The lowest temperature at which sustained combustion of the vapor will occur.

A

fire point

80
Q

Relationship between temperature and vapor production or lowest temperature it can burn.

A

ignition temperature

81
Q

Flammable Ranges

A

LEL - lower explosive limit

UEL - upper explosive limit

Flash Fire

82
Q

The temperature at which a liquid will continually give off vapors in sustained amounts.

A

boiling point

83
Q

The ability of a substance to dissolve in water.

A

water solubility

84
Q

A measure of the presence of dissolved hydrogen ions.

A

PH

85
Q

Acid PH levels are _____ 7.

A

less than

86
Q

Base PH levels are _____ 7.

A

greater than

87
Q

Neutral PH levels are _____ 7.

A

equal to

88
Q

Transmission of energy from sources such as the sun, soil, airplanes, and x-rays.

A

radiation

89
Q

Transfer of hazardous materials or components.

A

contamination

90
Q

Stopping exposure and spread of hazardous materials and components.

A

containment

91
Q

Transfer by direct contact to persons, objects, and environment.

A

secondary contamination

92
Q

Chronic (long-term) Health Effects

A

adverse and gradual health effects

93
Q

Acute (short-term) Health Effects

A

Observable health problems such as eye irritation, coughing, dizziness, and skin burns that can appear long after exposure.

94
Q

Poisonous substances produced from metabolic processes.

A

toxins

95
Q

Substances causing adverse health effects.

A

poison

96
Q

A measure of the degree to which something is toxic or poisonous.

A

toxicity

97
Q

_____ are most often transported on roadways.

A

hazardous materials

98
Q

_____ carry 30,000 gallons of product.

A

tank cars

99
Q

24-hour information call center operated by American Chemistry Council

A

Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)

100
Q

Provides services similar to CHEMTREC for Canadian responders

A

Canadian Transport Emergency Centre (CANUTEC)

101
Q

A federal agency under the direction of the U.S. Coast Guard

A

National Response Center (NRC)

102
Q

Crime Scene Steps

A

preserve evidence

consult law enforcement prior to overhaul

watch for potential terrorists among injured

103
Q

Overt Indicators of Chemical Agents

(What PPE items would typically indicate the presence of chemical agents?)

A

chemical-type gloves

chemical suits

respirators

items that do not fit the setting

104
Q

_____ are more toxic than organophosphates.

A

nerve agents

105
Q

SLUDGEM

A

S: Salivation (drooling)
L: Lacrimation (tearing)
U: Urination
D: Defecation
G: Gastric upset (upset stomach, vomiting)
E: Emesis (vomiting)
M: Miosis (pinpoint pupils)

106
Q

Five Types of Radiological Packaging

A

Excepted

Industrial

Type A

Type B

Type C

107
Q

An explosive or incendiary device designed to harm responders or others.

A

secondary devices

108
Q

Decontamination Setup

A

Step 1: Emergency Decontamination (operations level responder)

Step 2: Technical Decontamination (ambulatory)

Step 3: Medical Decontamination (non-ambulatory)

109
Q

Carbon monoxide is harmful at _____ parts per million.

A

25

110
Q

NRG Fact

Green highlight with letter P

A

chemical can polymerize or go boom

111
Q

TIH

A

Toxic Inhalation Hazard

112
Q

NRG Fact

UNID or Cast Number

A

4 digits

yellow pages

numerical order

113
Q

NRG Fact

Blue Pages

A

alphabetical order

114
Q

NRG Fact

Orange Pages

A

guide numbers

information about the chemicals

115
Q

Technology/meters can return _____ when detecting gases.

A

false positives

116
Q

Vapor density equals _____.

A

weight of air

117
Q

Vapor density greater than 1 _____.

A

sinks

118
Q

Vapor density less than 1 _____.

A

rises

119
Q

Container failure is usually the result of _____.

A

human error

120
Q

Mechanical failure equals _____.

A

damaged cylinder

121
Q

Sometimes the best course of action is to let the chemical _____.

A

burn

122
Q

Gas Characteristics

A

flammable

low ignition temperature

123
Q

Diesel Characteristics

A

combustible

high ignition temperature

124
Q

Close flammable range equals more _____ product.

A

unstable

125
Q

Wide flammable range equals more _____ product.

A

stable

126
Q

Headspace is also called _____ space.

A

vapor

127
Q

Add a _____ to an _____to change the PH levels.

A

base

acid

128
Q

Three Types of Radiation

A

Alpha - least harmful - can be shielded by clothing

Beta - made of lead

Gamma - most harmful