HFD Training Bulletins Flashcards

1
Q

According to Training Bulletin #286: Post Incident Decontamination Procedures; which procedure is not part of Step 1 in the process?

A) Use a 45 mm hose with a wide fog pattern

B) The crew member with the least amount of remaining air should be deconned first

C) Begin at the helmet, facepiece, and regulator and then front to back from the collar downward

D) Carefully remove PPE and place into a clear plastic bag

A

D) Carefully remove PPE and place into a clear plastic bag

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2
Q

According to Training Bulletin #286: Post Incident Decontamination Procedures; which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) During Step 1 – use a 45 mm hose with a straight stream and reduced flow to remove large debris

B) During Step 2 – Perform a final rinse to flush any loosened debris from the PPE

C) During Step 3 – Remove hands from jacket wristlets, clean hands with
decontamination wipes and don nitrile gloves

D) Step 6 – Remove bunker jacket, bunker pants and boots

A

A) During Step 1 – use a 45 mm hose with a straight stream and reduced flow to remove large debris

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3
Q

According to Training Bulletin #286: Post Incident Decontamination Procedures; what is the proper procedure when you are closing up the clear plastic bag?

A) Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write station on tag, twist the bag closed, attach tag and seal with a zip tie, transport gear in a side compartment not in the cab

B) Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write name on tag, twist the bag closed, attach name tag and seal with a zip tie, transport gear in a side compartment not in the cab

C) Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write name on tag, twist the bag closed, attach name tag and seal by hand tying the bag, transport gear in a side compartment not in the cab

D) Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write name on tag, twist the bag closed, attach name tag and seal with a zip tie, transport gear in the cab

A

B) Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write name on tag, twist the bag closed, attach name tag and seal with a zip tie, transport gear in a side compartment not in the cab

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4
Q

According to Training Bulletin 308 – Hurst Jaws of Life™ Edraulic Inspections; which of the following is correct about ‘Cutter Inspections’?

A) A visual inspection shall be performed during every shift

B) When cleaning the cutter blades, use steel wool or fine grit sandpaper to remove debris or rust

C) Never store the tool under pressure

D) Both A and C are correct

A

D) Both A and C are correct

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5
Q

According to Training Bulletin 308 – Hurst Jaws of Life™ Edraulic Inspections; which of the following is correct about ‘Cutter Inspections’?

A) A visual inspection shall be performed weekly

B) When storing the tool, close the cutter blades with the tips slightly overlapping

C) When cleaning the cutter blades, use steel wool or fine grit sandpaper to remove debris or rust

D) Both A and C are correct

A

B) When storing the tool, close the cutter blades with the tips slightly overlapping

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6
Q

According to Training Bulletin 308 – Hurst Jaws of Life™ Edraulic Inspections; which of the following is true regarding Hurst Jaws of Life™ Edraulic tools?

A) When using the devices in potentially explosive environments, the tool is intrinsically safe, and may be used

B) Ram inspections shall be visually inspected weekly

C) When storing the spreader tool, close the spreaders completely and place back onto the apparatus

D) The responsibility for explosion prevention or for ruling out work with an Edraulic device lies with the operator of the device or with the person responsible at the place of use

A

D) The responsibility for explosion prevention or for ruling out work with an Edraulic device lies with the operator of the device or with the person responsible at the place of use

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7
Q

According to Training Bulletin 309 – Hurst Jaws of Life™ – Edraulic Inspections; which
of the following is not an inspection procedure for a cutter after use?

A) When storing the tool, close the cutter blades with the tips slightly overlapping

B) Wipe the pistons off with a clean micro fibre towel prior to retracting them

C) Never store the tool under pressure

D) Open the cutter blades completely, and remove any debris that may have fallen
into the piston and wiper seal area prior to closing the blades

A

B) Wipe the pistons off with a clean micro fibre towel prior to retracting them

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8
Q

According to Training Bulletin 309 – Drug Alert: Xylazine, what statement regarding Xylazine is incorrect?

A) Xylazine patients are seemingly unresponsive to NARCAN® or naloxone interventions

B) Xylazine is a non-narcotic analgesic drug that is used in veterinary medicine

C) Side effects of Xylazine include elevated respirations, tachycardia and
hypertension

D) Street names include: Tranq or Zombie

A

C) Side effects of Xylazine include elevated respirations, tachycardia and
hypertension

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9
Q

According to Training Bulletin 309 – Drug Alert: Xylazine, True/False: Fentanyl test strips can detect xylazine.

A) True

B) False

A

B) False

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10
Q

According to Training Bulletin 309 – Drug Alert: Xylazine, what statement regarding
Xylazine is incorrect?

A) Street names include: Tranq or Zombie

B) Side effects of Xylazine include tiredness or faintness, respiratory depression,
bradycardia, hypotension, hyperglycemia and miosis

C) Xylazine causes central nervous system depressant effects such as sedation,
muscle relaxation, analgesia and anesthesia

D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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11
Q

According to Training Bulletin 311 - Transitional Attacks – Offensive Strategies from the Exterior; which of the following statements about a Blitz Attack is incorrect?

A) The fire will be at an advanced stage, requiring large amounts of water to overcome the heat release rate (HRR), and such quantities of water can only be delivered by large appliances and hoselines

B) When considering the blitz attack, keep in mind the reach and amount of water needed to be effective

C) Typically, a fog pattern should be utilized rather than a straight stream

D) The blitz attack involves using either the deck gun mounted on top of the engine, a 2 ½-inch handline or a ground monitor specifically designed for a blitz type of setup and delivery

A

C) Typically, a fog pattern should be utilized rather than a straight stream

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12
Q

According to Training Bulletin 311 - Transitional Attacks – Offensive Strategies from the
Exterior; which of the following statements about a Quick Hit is incorrect?

A) It will cool the room, limit fire growth, and increases victim survivability in the
structure

B) A quick hit should use a fog pattern, pointed at a flat angle through the window

C) A quick hit is a tactic to help facilitate an aggressive interior attack

D) A quick hit is an application of water from an exterior hose line (not a master
stream device) as a straight stream to the ceiling above a fire

A

B) A quick hit should use a fog pattern, pointed at a flat angle through the window

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13
Q

According to Training Bulletin 014 – Positive Pressure Ventilation; you are ventilating
using a garage door, which tactic should you use?

A) Open the door part way and use the v-attack approach at 45° angles

B) Open the door part way and use two fans to seal the doorway with cones of air

C) Open the door fully and use the saddle stack method

D) Open the door fully and use two fans to seal the doorway with cones of air

A

B) Open the door part way and use two fans to seal the doorway with cones of air

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14
Q

According to Training Bulletin 135 - Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Confirmation Form;
which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Each valid DNR will be imprinted with a unique seven-digit serial number in the
upper right corner

B) DNR Confirmation Forms have a specified expiry date, Company Officer shall
ensure that the date has not expired

C) A PDF file of a valid DNR saved to a phone or mobile device is to be accepted

D) The DNR Confirmation Form, when completed and signed by a medical doctor
(M.D.), Registered Nurse (R.N.), Registered Nurse in the Extended Class [R.N.
(EC)], or Registered Practical Nurse (R.P.N.) will confirm that the existing plan of
treatment documented in the patient’s health care record does not include CPR

A

B) DNR Confirmation Forms have a specified expiry date, Company Officer shall
ensure that the date has not expired

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15
Q

According to Training Bulletin 135 - Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Confirmation Form;
when would firefighters not accept a Form as valid?

A) When the DNR Confirmation Form has expired

B) When presented with a photocopied DNR Confirmation Form

C) When presented with a PDF file of a valid DNR Confirmation Form on a phone or
mobile device

D) When the DNR Confirmation Form is incomplete

A

D) When the DNR Confirmation Form is incomplete

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16
Q

T/F: According to Training Bulletin 135 - Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Confirmation Form;
if any family member revokes a DNR Confirmation Form, firefighters must initiate CPR.

A) True

B) False

A

B) False

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17
Q

T/F: According to Training Bulletin 135 - Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Confirmation Form;
if there is confusion about who the SDM (substitute decision maker) is, and one/or more
people present at the time is demanding that CPR be initiated on the patient, CPR shall
be performed.

A) True

B) False

A

A) True

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18
Q

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building
Collapse located on HFDnet, steel I beams will elongate when heated and can push out
a load-bearing walls. A 50-foot (15.2m) beam may elongate by as much as ___
inches/mm when heated to about 1,000 degrees F (538 degrees C):

A) 2 inches (50.8 mm)

B) 4 inches (102 mm)

C) 8 inches (203.2 mm)

D) 11 inches (279.4 mm)

A

B) 4 inches (102 mm)

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19
Q

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building
Collapse located on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a safety precaution for
imminent building collapse:

A) Immediately evacuate personnel within the building

B) Set up a collapse zone around the building perimeter

C) Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone

D) Use only unmanned master streams if fire streams are necessary within the
collapse zone

A

C) Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone

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20
Q

The HFDNET Training Index document “Thermal Imaging Camera – General Use and
Operation 2017 identifies two modes of operation. Which of the following statements
correctly identifies the two modes of operation:

A) High Sense Mode (High temperature, lower image quality) and Low Sense
Mode (Low temperatures, higher image quality)

B) High Sense Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures) and Low Sense
Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures)

C) High Sense Mode (High image quality, high temperatures) and Low Sense
Mode (Low image quality, low temperatures)

D) High Sense Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures) and Low Sense
Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures)

A

B) High Sense Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures) and Low Sense
Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures)

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21
Q

According to Training Bulletin # 270 Blitzfire Portable Ground Monitor, procedures to
reduce the risk of unlimited movement do not include:

A) Always keep the hose directly behind the monitor for approximately 10 feet

B) Always loop the hose in front of the monitor

C) Always tie off the monitor

D) Keep personnel out of the potential path of a moving/sliding monitor

A

B) Always loop the hose in front of the monitor

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22
Q

Which of the following construction features is not associated with Center Core
Construction according to HFDNET - High Rise Construction:

A) The core of this building contains the necessary pipes and ducts for all
building services

B) Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in
the event of a fire.

C) Water, electrical wires, cables, fuel lines etc. along with air supply and
exhaust/return ducts are all located within the core

D) All means of vertical travel are located within the core as well

A

B) Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in
the event of a fire.

23
Q

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, what are the minimum
dimensions that should be used for the Landing Zone?

A) 200ft x 200ft

B) 500ft x 500ft

C) 150ft x 150ft

D) 1000ft x 1000ft

A

C) 150ft x 150ft

24
Q

According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, which of the following is NOT a symptom
of anaphylaxis.

A) Swelling of the throat, lips, tongue, or the area around the eyes

B) Increased blood pressure

C) Difficulty breathing or swallowing

D) Increased heart rate

A

B) Increased blood pressure

25
Q

According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, what is the correct Medical Directive for
the Hamilton Fire Department?

A) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive two doses of epinephrine
5-15 minutes apart

B) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive four doses of
epinephrine 3-5 minutes apart

C) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive two doses of epinephrine
3-5 minutes apart

D) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive four doses of
epinephrine 5-15 minutes apart

A

A) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive two doses of epinephrine
5-15 minutes apart

26
Q

According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, there are recommendations that should be
followed for the safe storage of Epinephrine, which of the following is one of these
recommendations?

A) Regularly check the viewing window on your EpiPen Auto-Injector and
replace it if the solution is brown, discoloured or cloudy

B) EpiPen should be stored in refrigerator to maintain potency

C) EpiPen should be stored in warm environments to maintain potency

D) Keep EpiPen in your pocket to ensure quick access when needed

A

A) Regularly check the viewing window on your EpiPen Auto-Injector and
replace it if the solution is brown, discoloured or cloudy

27
Q

According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, if you encounter a patient
who you suspect has overdosed on opioids, and who is Vital Signs Absent, what is your
course of action?

A) Administer one dose of Narcan then initiate CPR

B) Defibrillate, initiate CPR, administer Narcan

C) Initiate CPR and administer Narcan concurrent with compressions

D) CPR for 3 minutes, analyse, administer Narcan

A

C) Initiate CPR and administer Narcan concurrent with compressions

28
Q

According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, the following are true about
Narcan with the exception of:

A) It reverses respiratory depression by knocking the opioids off the receptors
and restoring breathing

B) It’s fast acting (usually within 5 minutes) and the protective effect lasts for 30
to 90 minutes.

C) Narcan is also effective for non-opioid overdoses (e.g., cocaine, ecstasy,
GHB or alcohol).

D) Narcan binds to opioid receptors more tightly than opioids

A

C) Narcan is also effective for non-opioid overdoses (e.g., cocaine, ecstasy,
GHB or alcohol).

29
Q

According to Training Bulletin #143, Penetrating Chest Injuries, the correct treatment for
an open chest wound is:

A) An occlusive dressing, adding others as dressing becomes saturated

B) An occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides only

C) A non-occlusive dressing, replacing as dressing becomes saturated

D) Pressure dressing

A

C) A non-occlusive dressing, replacing as dressing becomes saturated

30
Q

According to Training Bulletin #143, Penetrating Chest Injuries, what life-threatening
condition can poor treatment for open chest wounds lead to?

A) Stroke

B) Embolism

C) Tension Pneumothorax

D) Flail Chest

A

C) Tension Pneumothorax

31
Q

According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department
SAED Protocol, Newborns are defined as being less than 24 hours old. What is the
correct compression to ventilation ratio for newborns?

A) 15 compressions to 2 ventilations

B) 30 compressions to 1 ventilation

C) 3 compressions to 1 ventilation

D) 30 compressions to 1 ventilation

A

C) 3 compressions to 1 ventilation

32
Q

According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department
SAED Protocol, if you have a newborn patient (less than 24 hours old), whose heart
rate is below 60 beats per minute, what is your course of action?

A) Attempt defibrillation

B) Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 3:1

C) Assist with breathing at a rate of 18 breaths per minute

D) Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 15:2

A

B) Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 3:1

33
Q

According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. Each will carry a
compliment of ______ temporary facepieces.

A) 10

B) 12

C) 5

D) 8

A

C) 5

34
Q

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, which of the following is not
found in the 3 Golden Rules for Operating an Elevator in Firefighter Emergency
Operations (FEO)?

A) Turn the switches ON (Phase I and Phase II)

B) Never leave the elevator car without the key (HOLD)

C) Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator.

D) If all goes wrong turn the Phase II switch OFF.

A

C) Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator.

35
Q

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, who is the Authority Having
Jurisdiction with regards to elevators in Ontario?

A) CSA (Canadian Standards Association)

B) MOL (Ministry of Labor)

C) TC (Transport Canada)

D) TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act)

A

D) TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act)

36
Q

According to, Training Bulletin 38, Aerial Ladder Load Limits and Interpreting Load
Charts, which of these are typically found on an Aerial Ladder Load Limit Chart?

A) Ladder Angle

B) Permissible Loads on each individual section, based on the Ladder’s angle of
elevation

C) Permissible Loads on each individual section, based on whether the aerial water
tower is flowing water or not. (Wet or Dry)

D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

37
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Fire Streams 08: At 212 degrees F/100 Degrees
C, water expands approximately how many times its’ original volume as it changes to
steam?

A) 500

B) 875

C) 950

D) 1700

A

D) 1700

38
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what
is the nozzle pressure / flow rate for the Akron Assault 45mm nozzle?

A) 700 kpa / 360 LPM

B) 350 kpa / 570 LPM

C) 700 kpa / 750 LPM

D) 350 kpa / 950 LPM

A

B) 350 kpa / 570 LPM

39
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what
is the friction loss for 15M of the 45mm hose? / 65mm hose?

A) 45mm – 120 kpa / 65mm – 45 kpa

B) 45mm – 170 kpa / 65mm – 60 kpa

C) 45mm – 240 kpa / 65mm – 90 kpa

D) 45mm – 100 kpa/ 65mm – 50 kpa

A

A) 45mm – 120 kpa / 65mm – 45 kpa

40
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the minimum residual pressure that should be maintained on the intake gauge when being supplied by a pressurized source?

A) 50 kpa

B) 70 kpa

C) 140 kpa

D) 200 kpa

A

C) 140 kpa

41
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what
is the pressure required at the eductor for the purpose of creating Foam.

A) 1000 kpa

B) 875 kpa

C) 1050 kpa

D) 1400 kpa

A

D) 1400 kpa

42
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what
engine RPM should you be at for the purpose of Priming the Pump?

A) 1400

B) 590

C) 800

D) 1000

A

D) 1000

43
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what
appliance should be installed at the mouth of the Fire Location’s laneway, through which
water will be supplied to the 100mm hose, feeding the attack or relay pump?

A) Clappered Siamese Manifold

B) 100 mm Adapter

C) 150 mm Hard Suction

D) Drafting Elbow

A

A) Clappered Siamese Manifold

44
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, at what
pressure should the drafting pump initially set the discharge pressure to the attack/fire
or relay pump?

A) 1000 kpa

B) 1400 kpa

C) 500 kpa

D) 750 kpa

A

C) 500 kpa

45
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, how many
portable water tanks will be set up in front of the Drafting Pump?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

A

C) 3

46
Q

According to Training Bulletin #259 – Hypothermia Packaging – Patient Wrap, which of the following is NOT a component of the patient wrap a.k.a. the “Thermal Burrito”?

A) Insulated sleeping bag

B) Plastic tarpaulin

C) Thermal Exposure Suit

D) Thermal reflective blanket

A

C) Thermal Exposure Suit

47
Q

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire
growth in a “Vent Controlled” fire?

A) Volume, Velocity, Density, Colour

B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay

C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay

D) Laminar, Pressurized, Turbulent, Wispy

A

B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay

48
Q

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire
growth in a “fuel controlled” fire?

A) Volume, Velocity, Density, Colour

B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay

C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay

D) Laminar, Pressurized, Turbulent, Wispy

A

C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay

49
Q

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, which of these factors do
NOT influence the smoke?

A) Building size & compartments

B) Weather

C) Firefighting actions

D) Time of day

A

D) Time of day

50
Q

According to Training Bulletin #257 – CMC Throwline Bag Set, how long are the rope in
the rescue throw bags HFD uses for ice water/shore-based water rescue?

A) 300 feet

B) 75 feet

C) 150 feet

D) 25 feet

A

B) 75 feet

51
Q

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family
Dwelling Fires, the article states that SFD (Single Family Dwelling) fires accounted for
________ % of residential fires in 1994?

A) 60 %

B) 70 %

C) 73 %

D) 69 %

A

B) 70 %

52
Q

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family
Dwelling Fires, which of the following is NOT considered a factor which can contribute
to an attic fire?

A) Defective wiring

B) Defective chimneys

C) Interior fire exposure

D) Platform construction

A

D) Platform construction

53
Q

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family
Dwelling Fires, window size, shape and location suggest room use. A small, narrow
window between two larger windows usually indicates a __________ room?

A) Bedroom

B) Living room

C) Bathroom

D) Kitchen

A

C) Bathroom

54
Q

According to Memo 2018-AP-157 Workplace Safety & Insurance Board
(WSIB)Injury/Exposure Reporting Checklist, the Workplace Safety and Insurance Board (WSIB) Claims – Reporting an Injury, information sheet for, HFD Career Staff, explains the process and checklist for submitting such claims. Part of the checklist states;

A) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line
Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 48 hours of the
occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed
and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging
out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records.

B) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line
Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 24 hours of the
occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed
and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging
out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records.

C) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line
Incident Report” and submit within 24 hours of the occurrence. This report is to
be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the N
Drive in Department Common under WSIB. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records.

D) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line
Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 24 hours of the
occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed
and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging
out, a copy should be printed and provided L288 Health and Safety
representative for their records.

A

B) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line
Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 24 hours of the
occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed
and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging
out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records.