HIV & AIDS Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnostic tests used for HIV

A
ELISA
Western Blot
HIV VIral Load
CBC
CD4 count
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ELISA is ___% effective when performed at least _______ weeks after exposure to virus

A

99&

13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This tx measures the amount of actively replicating HIV

A

HIV viral load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a viral load >5,000-10,000 = need to _______

A

treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the GOAL of antiretroviral therapy is_____________

A

<50 (undetectable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most widely used test to monitor for progress of the disease and to guide therapy

A

CD4 count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Requirements determined by the CDC for AIDS

A

1) presence of Opportunistic infections

2) CD4 count below 200/mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

GOAL of pharmacologic therapy

A
  • suppress HIV infection

- Prophylaxis/treatment for opportunistic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How to measure effectiveness of pharmacologic therapy

A
  • viral load

- CD4 cell counts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HAART

A

Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

–combines three or four drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_________ may be given to prevent infection once a patients’ CD4 count declines

A

antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

With effective pharmacologic therapy you would expect to see an (increase/decrease) in the CD4 count….and a (increase/decrease) in the viral load.

A
  • increase

- decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Reasons for non-compliance with HAART Therapy

A

1) complicated, expensive
2) specific schedule
3) major adverse reactions
4) less than perfect adherence —->resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
what class of drug is the antiretroviral treatment, Zidovudine? 
(ie, AZT, Azidothymidine)
A

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NRTI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Zidovudine often is given to clients with a CD4 cell count less than ________________

A

500/mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_____________ may be used prophylactically following a documented Parenteral exposure to HIV

A

Zidovudine

17
Q

Nursing considerations for Zidovudine

A

1) swallow capsule whole-DO NOT CRUSH
2) Assess for adverse effects-Nausea & headache
3) assess CBC with differential and creatinine phosphokinase

18
Q

Patient education r/t Zidovudine

A

1) DOES NOT CURE HIV-
slows the progression
2) Take 30 minutes before meals (or) 60 minutes after meals.
3) continue lab studies to monitor for toxicity
4) IF pt develops severe anemia/neutropenia

19
Q

How does the class of drugs “Protease Inhibitors” work…???

A

They make the virus non-infectious

20
Q

Downside for “Protease Inhibitors”

A

Disadvantage is viral resistance occurs quickly

21
Q

S/E of Protease Inhibitors

A
  • Metabolic derangements
    a) elevated cholesterol
    b) elevated triglycerides
    c) Insulin Resistance
    d) Diabetes Mellitus
    e) Changes in body fat composition
22
Q

_______ is given in combination with HAART for Kaposi Sarcoma

A

Interferons

23
Q

All clients affected with HIV should be given the following vaccines:

A

1) Pneumococcal
2) Influenza
3) Hepatitis B
4) Haemophilus Influenza

24
Q

HIV patients with a positive PPD and a negative CXR are given __________

A

isoniazid

25
Q

HIV patients affected by Pneumonia (PCP) are usually given__________

A

Bactrim (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole)

26
Q

Patient may be asymptomatic for ______ years after being infected

A

8-10years

27
Q

Clinical Manifestations of AIDS

A
  • Fever
  • Fatigue
  • Night Sweats
  • Weight loss (Cachexia-wasting)
  • Diarrhea
  • Rash/dry skin
  • Candidiasis/oral ulcers
  • AIDS dementia complex
  • CD4 count <200/mm
28
Q

(4) Opportunistic Infections

A

1) PCP Pneumonia _(MOST COMMON)
2) Toxoplasmosis
3) Tuberculosis
4) Candidiasis-oral thrush

29
Q

S/S of Kaposi Sarcoma

A

purple lesions on skin or in GI tract, lungs and lymphatic system

30
Q

(True / False)

Peripheral neuropathy is a clinical manifestation of HIV

A

True

31
Q

NURSING INTERVENTIONS FOR PT AT RISK FOR INFECTION

A

1) hand washing
2) Avoid people with infections
3) Annual skin test for TB
4) Check WBC, culture wounds, urine, blood, sputum
5) Monitor for fever, cough, oral lesions, UTI symptoms

32
Q

NURSING INTERVENTIONS FOR PT AT RISK FOR NUTRITIONAL PROBLEMS

A

1) Monitor electrolytes
2) Assess oral ulcers and pain
3) Meds for candidiasis/diarrhea
4) Weight -I/O
5) increase protein/calories
6) soft foods in small portions
7) Assist with eating
8) Supplements

33
Q

NURSING INTERVENTIONS FOR PATIENT WITH DIARRHEA

A

1) ANTIDIARRHEAL MED
2) SMALL MEALS
3) MAINTAIN FLUID INTAKE OF AT LEAST 3L/DAY

34
Q

NURSING INTERVENTIONS FOR PATIENT WITH AIRWAY CLEARANCE PROBLEMS

A

1) Assess resp rate, rhythm, pattern, cough, sputum
2) cough and deep breath Q2 hours
3) Semi-fowlers position
4) Supplemental O2