Human Cells Flashcards

0
Q

What is a somatic cell?

A

A somatic cell is any cell of a living organism other than a reproductive cell.

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1
Q

Name the 4 DNA organic bases

A

Adenine
Thymine
Guanine
Cytosine

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2
Q

How many nucleotide strands are present in one molecule of
A) DNA
B) RNA

A

DNA - 2 nucleotide strands

RNA - 1 nucleotide strand

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3
Q

Name the sugar present in a nucleotide of RNA and DNA.

A

RNA - Ribose

DNA - Deoxyribose

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4
Q

Name the complementary base partner with adenine in RNA and DNA.

A

RNA - Uracil

DNA - Adenine

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5
Q

Name the three types of Point Mutation.

A

Insertion
Deletion
Substitution

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6
Q

What is the purpose of cooling the DNA sample?

A

To allow the primer to bind to it’s target.

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7
Q

Describe the function of a Genetic Probe?

A

A genetic probe is used to detect the presence of a specific sequence of nucleotide bases in a sample of DNA.

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8
Q

What is Phosphorylation?

A

This is an enzyme controlled process by which a phosphate group is added to a molecule.

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9
Q

What brings about the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate?

A

Glycolysis

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10
Q

What has an energy investment and energy pay off phase?

A

Glycolysis

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11
Q

What results in the production of NADH?

A

Critic Acid Cycle & Glycolysis

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12
Q

What results in the production of ATP?

A

Glycolysis
Critic Acid Cycle
Electron Transport Chain

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13
Q

Name 3 substrates used for respiration.

A

Carbohydrates
Fats
Proteins

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14
Q

Where is an electron transport chain found attached to in a cell?

A

The inner membrane of mitochondria

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15
Q

What is pyruvate broken down into during aerobic respiration?

A

Carbon Dioxide and an Acetyl group.

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16
Q

What does the Acetyl group combine with? And to form what?

A

Combines with coenzyme A.

It forms Acetyl coenzyme A

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17
Q

The Golgi apparatus is involved in the packaging of?

A

Enzymes

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18
Q

When does glycolysis occur and where?

A

It occurs during Aerobic respiration

In the cytoplasm

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19
Q

How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of

  • pyruvate
  • glucose
  • citrate?
A

Pyruvate - 3 carbon atoms
Glucose - 6
Citrate - 6

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20
Q

Where does the electron transport chain occur?

A

Inner membrane of mitochondria

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21
Q

Where does the citric acid cycle occur?

A

Mitochondria matrix

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22
Q

Which type of gene mutation occurs when a codon for an amino acid is replaced by a stop codon?

A

Nonsense

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23
Q

Which type of mutation causes Cri-du-chat syndrome?

A

Deletion

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24
Q

Name three molecules needed for the synthesis of mRNA?

A

Nucleotides
Polymerase
Enzymes

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25
Q

Name stage 1 of synthesis of a protein? And where it occurs?

A
  • Transcription

- Occurs in the nucleus

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26
Q

Name stage 3 of synthesis of a protein and where it occurs.

A

Translation

Ribosomes

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27
Q

Name the enzyme which catalyses stage 1 of synthesis of a protein.

A

RNA polymerase

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28
Q

Why is a primary mRNA molecule so much more shorter than chromosomal DNA?

A

Only one gene is transcribed

29
Q

Name the 3 forms of RNA that are involved in protein synthesis.

A

rRNA (ribosomal)
tRNA (transfer)
mRNA (messenger)

30
Q

What are non coding genes called?

A

Introns

31
Q

What is a stem cell?

A

Stem cells are unspecialised cells which can differentiate into specialised cells through repeated mitosis - only the genes characteristic for that cell are expressed.

32
Q

What are the appropriate enzymes needed for DNA replication?

A

Ligase & DNA polymerase

33
Q

What are the DNA replication requirements?

A
DNA (to act as a template)
primers
A supply of ATP
4 types of DNA nucleotides 
Appropriate enzymes
34
Q

What are four substances that must be present in the nucleus for DNA replication to occur?

A

4 types of nucleotides
Energy supply
Appropriate enzymes

35
Q

Name the enzyme which catalyses the third stage of protein synthesis

A

Phosphofructokinase

36
Q

What are ribosomes formed from?

A

Proteins & rRNA

37
Q

What are NAD & FAD?

A

They are carrier coenzymes which carry the high energy electrons to the electron transport chain

38
Q

What is oxygens role in the electron transport chain?

A

It is the final hydrogen acceptor in the electron transport chain and combines with hydrogen to produce water

39
Q

What does creatine phosphate do during strenuous activity?

A

It can break down, releasing phosphate and allowing the production of ATP from ADP and Pi

40
Q

What is a primer?

A

A primer is a single stranded piece of DNA, complementary to a target sequence at the end of a DNA strand to be replicated.

41
Q

Why does the DNA need to be heated during PCR?

A

To allow the hydrogen bonds to be broken

42
Q

What is the structure of a genetic probe?

A

A probe is a short, single stranded fragment of DNA

43
Q

Why is two different primers needed?

A

It ensures each cell has the identical genetic information

44
Q

What is a practical use of DNA?

A

Forensic use

45
Q

Name two ways in which recreational drugs can affect a synapse

A
  • They block neurotransmitter release

- they inhibit neurotransmitter uptake

46
Q

What is gene expression controlled by?

A

Transcription and translation

47
Q

Does DNA polymerase require a primer to be present?

A

Yes

48
Q

Name the numbers of DNA molecules present in the first, second, third and fourth cycle

A

First - 2
Second - 4
Third - 8
Fourth - 16

49
Q

What is anabolic?

A

Build up

50
Q

What is catabolic?

A

Break down

51
Q

What is a missense point mutation?

A

Following substitution, the protein formed functions in a different way

52
Q

What is the function of high energy electrons in the electron transport chain?

A

To pump H2 Iona against a concentration gradient

53
Q

Name three types of muscle?

A

Skeletal, smooth and cardiac

54
Q

Somatic cell chromosome number and nuclear division?

A

46
Diploid
Mitosis

55
Q

Name the germline cell chromosome number and nuclear division?

A

23 chromosomes
Mitosis
Diploid
This can also undergo a second division of meiosis to form haploid and each received a single set of 23 chromosomes

56
Q

What is the dangers of a mutation occurring in a germline cell?

A

It can pass onto off spring

57
Q

What do cancer cells not respond to?

A

Regulatory signals

58
Q

What do histones do?

A

Allow the molecules of DNA to become tightly coiled and packaged into a DNA compact

59
Q

What is post-translational modification?

A

Cutting and combining polypeptide chains

60
Q

What is point mutation?

A

There is a change in one nucleotide.

Resulting in one or more of the amino acids or codons being altered.

61
Q

What is a genetic disorder?

A

A variation in genomic DNA sequence

62
Q

What does personalised medicine allow?

A

The parents genome can be matched with the most suitable drug and the correct dosage can be given, increasing drug efficacy and reducing side effects

63
Q

What is an operon and what are they affected by?

A

A unit made up of linked genes which regulates other genes responsible for protein synthesis. They are affected by repressors.

64
Q

What is lactose made up of?

A

Glucose and galactose

65
Q

What can PCR do?

A

Enable experts to estimate the risk of disease onset and confirm a diagnosis

66
Q

What is, ‘enzyme induced fit’?

A

This is where an enzyme can change shape slightly so that it fits more tightly around the substrate molecule - increasing the chances of a reaction taking place.

67
Q

Name three chromosome mutations

A

Deletion
Duplication
Translocation

68
Q

What is translocation?

A

When part of a chromosome breaks off and binds to another chromosome

69
Q

Name four gene mutations

A

Substitution
Insertion
Deletion
Splice site mutation