Immune System Flashcards Preview

Pathophysiology II > Immune System > Flashcards

Flashcards in Immune System Deck (115):
1

What are the two types of immunity?

Innate and Adaptive

2

What are the components of the innate immune system?

Chemical
Skin
Mucus membranes

3

What are the two types of adaptive immunity?

Humoral and Cell mediated

4

How is adaptive immunity obtained?

Naturally and Artificially

5

How does the innate immune system function?

Recognizes a common pathogen and requires no prior exposure

6

What are the non cellular elements of the innate immune system?

Physical barriers, competent factors, acute phase and contact activation pathway proteins

7

What are the cellular components of the innate immune system?

Neutrophils, Macrophages, Monocytes and Natural killer cells

8

Where are the cells of the innate immune system located?

In all body tissues

9

How do the cells of the innate immune system treat foreign cells?

They identify microbes via recognition signals from surface patterns of molecules indigenous to microorganisms

10

How are invaders destroyed by the innate immune system?

By release of toxic molecules or phagocytosis

11

What are the two pathways that activate the complement protein cascade?

Pathogen dependent (classical)
Pathogen independent (alternative)

12

How does the complement cascade help clear microorganisms?

Coats the agents with protein that facilitates phagocytosis

13

What results from defects in the classical pathway?

Predisposes to autoimmune inflammatory disorders

14

What results from deficiencies in C3 (common pathway)?

Usually fatal in utero

15

What results from deficiencies in terminal complement C5-C8?

Associated with recurrent infections

16

What is the primary organ of complement protein synthesis?

The liver

17

What is inflammation?

The means by which body defense cells and defense chemicals lave the blood and enter the tissue around the injures or infected site

18

What systems are involved in the inflammatory process?

Vascular, inhume and coagulation

19

What is adaptive immunity?

Immunity acquired by lymphocyte activation and subsequent delayed response

20

How does the adaptive immune system display specificity?

Cells and antibodies are generated targeted to unique proteins found on an invading microbe

21

How does the memory of adaptive immunity function?

Upon re-exposure, dormant cells are generated and mount a quick defense against invading organisms

22

What are T-helper cells?

CD4 cells that carry T-cell receptors that respond to a single antigen

23

What is the function of the CD4 helper molecules that are secreted when an antigen is recognized?

Further enhance macrophage function and activate CD8 (cellular immunity) and B-lymphocyte (humoral immunity)

24

What is the function CD8 lymphocytes?

Cytotoxic cells, seek out and destroy infected body cells with microbe specific to its T-cell receptor

25

What is the function of B-lymphocytes

When activated by an antigen specific to the b-cell receptor and molecules from the T-helper cells secrete antibodies

26

What are the four cell types of T-cells?

Interferon
Interleukins
Pro-inflammatory
Regulatory helper cells

27

What is the function of Pro inflammatory cells?

Chronic inflammation and autoimmune disease

28

What is the function of regulatory helper cells?

Promote tolerance, autoimmune, allergic and inflammatory responses

29

How are foreign invaders recognized by T and B cells?

Antigen presenting cells

30

What is the importance of antigen presenting cells?

They are the link between the innate and adaptive immune system

31

How do invaders hide from the immune system?

They have evolved proteins that interfere with the antigen presentation by major histocompatibility complex?

32

What is the often the cause of neutropenia?

Drug related, marrow usually recovers once the drug is withdrawn

33

What is the first step of the infection process?

Migration of granulocytes out of the circulation and into the bacterial invasion

34

What is neutrophilia?

Occurs when the neutrophil count increases 2-fold within hours of onset of a severe infection

35

At what WBC count is a deep seated infection considered?

10,000-30,000mm

36

What is granulocytosis?

When the WBC count exceeds 50,000

37

What is granulocytosis often associated with?

Indicated non infectious malignant process

38

In what conditions does monocytosis usually occur?

Lupus, RA and Sarcoidosis

39

What is angioedema?

Swelling that occurs under the skin instead of on the surface

40

What are the two mediators of angioedema?

Mast cell release and Bradykinin

41

What surgical procedures are triggers of angioedema?

Dental surgery or any surgery requiring ETT

42

What pathology is associated with defects of antibody production?

X-linked agammaglobinemia
Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
Cold autoimmune diseases

43

What pathology is associated with defects in t-lymphocytes?

DiGeorge syndrome and Combined immune system defects

44

What is the cause of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?

A RNA virus that transcribes DNA and becomes incorporated into the host genome where it replicates freely
Infects T helper lymphocytes and destroys them

45

What is the result acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?

The host is more susceptible to opportunistic infections and malignancies

46

What is the most common mode of transmission of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?

Sexual intercourse 60-70%

47

What are additional modes of transmission of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?

Mother to child
Blood products and organ donation
Contaminated needles

48

How is AIDS classified?

According to its associated clinical symptoms

49

What kind of side effects are associated with AIDS drug treatment?

Cancer, allergic and autoimmune disorders

50

How many types of immune mediated allergic reactions are there?

Four I, II, III, IV

51

What is a type I mediated allergic response?

IgE mediated

52

What is a type II mediated allergic response?

Cytotoxic reaction mediated by IgG and IgM and complement

53

What is a type III mediated allergic response?

Reactions produce tissue damage via immune complex formation and deposition

54

What is a type IV mediated allergic response?

Reactions are marked by T-lymphocyte mediated delayed hypersensitivity

55

What is the difference between anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions?

Identical clinical picture seen as a result of the degranulation of mast cells and basophils BUT, anaphylactoid reaction are NOT mediated through IgE

56

What is an example of a type II cytotoxic reaction?

The immune system response to antigen A and B found on RBC surfaces

57

What is a transfusion reaction?

When A or B antigens are not present and anti A and anti agglutinogens develop in the plasma

58

What reaction occurs in the body from a transfusion reaction?

Clumping and hemolysis occurs to form small clots which plug small blood vessels especially in the kidney

59

What cell pathology is seen as a result of a transfusion reaction?

Hemolytic anmeia
Thrombocytopenia
Neutropenia

60

What causes deposits to form in a type III mediated hypersensitivity reaction?

Large complexes are cleared from the circulation by macrophages but macrophages have difficulty disposing of small immune complexes

61

Where are the deposits typically left in a type III mediated hypersensitivity reaction?

Blood vessels. joints and glomeruli and react with the complement

62

Once activates, what is the role of the complement in a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Complement mediates the induction of granule release from mast cells and recruitment of inflammatory cells into the tissue

63

What are examples of type III hypersensitivity reactions?

Lupus and Glomerulonephritis

64

What is the presentation of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

Cutaneous symptoms are most common and may be severe as Steven Johnson syndrome

65

What is DRESS and what hypersensitivity reaction is it associated with?

Type IV
Drug rash with sodiniophilia and system symptoms in another sever form

66

What are risk factors for anaphylaxis during anesthesia?

Asthma
Longer duration of anesthesia
Female (especially for NMBA and hypnotics)
Multiple past surgeries
Presence of allergic condition

67

What can be given to a patient prior to drug administration if a previous suspected reaction had been reported?

H1 and H2 blockers 16-24hrs before
Optimize volume status
Hydrocortisone 1g is patient is exposed to an agent with high allergic risk

68

What is may be the first sign on anaphylaxis in an anesthetized patient?

CV collapse

69

How might the provider confirm an anaphylactic reaction has occurred?

Elevated plasma trypase (stored in mast cells released with immune reaction) within 1-2hrs of the event

70

How long does it take histamine to return to normal after an anaphylactic reaction?

30-60m

71

What is an idiosyncratic reaction?

An undesirable pharmacologic response to a drug independent of the dose

72

What is drug intolerance?

Undesirable pharmacologic effect at low doses

73

What is a localized reaction?

Histamine release along a vein after giving a drug

74

What should be done if a localized reaction occurs?

Stop the drug administration

75

What class of drugs are responsible for 60% of drug induced allergic reactions?

Muscle relaxants

76

What type of muscle relaxants are the most likely to cause an anaphylactoid reaction?

Benzyl isoquinolimum compounds (atracurium and cisatracurium)

77

What drugs can be given to attenuate an anaphylactoid reaction?

Antihistamines and glucocorticoids

78

What drug has a cross reaction with neostigmine?

Morphine, both contain ammonium ions

79

How often do hypnotic agents cause anaphylaxis?

5%

80

In what instance would you avoid propofol from fear of an allergic reaction?

The patient has a history of an egg or soy allergy

81

What type of local anesthetics are people allergic to?

Ester type LA are more commonly allergic

82

What should be done if a patient claims they are allergic to a LA?

They should be skin tested

83

What opioids cause histamine release from mast cells and basophils?

Morphine, codeine and meperidine

84

What type of reaction do people usually have to contrast dye?

Most are non-immune related and are managed with pretreatment

85

What effect does protamine have on the immune system?

Stimulates mast cells to release histamine and activates the complement pathway leading to thromboxane production

86

What types of effects does thromboxane production have on the body?

Bronchoconstriction, pulmonary arter HTN and systemic HoTN

87

What type of patients are most likely to have a reaction from protamine?

Allergic to sea food
Post vasectomy
Diabetics on protamine containing insulin

88

What is the second most common cause of anaphylaxis in the preoperative period?

Antibiotics 10-15%

89

What is the most common antibiotic allergy?

PCN

90

What class of antibiotics is said to have a cross reaction if allergic to PCN?

Cephalosporins 0.05%

91

What is the second most common antibiotic allergy?

Sulfonamide drugs

92

What is the leading cause of transfusion related lung injury?

TRALI

93

What is a transfusion related lung injury?

Antibodies in the plasma of the donor blood react with the neutrophils on the pulmonary vascular endothelium

94

When is the onset and signs of a TRALI?

Within 6hrs of transfusion and presents with hypoxia and pulmonary edema

95

What type of hypersensitivity reactions are associated with latex allergy?

Type IV cell mediated delayed onset, usually contact dermatitis
Type I IgE mediated and most severe

96

Who is at risk for latex allergy?

Healthcare workers (ICU and PACU), multiple surgeries, allergy to bananas, avocado, tropical fruit and nuts, contact dermatitis, asthma, rhinitis

97

What is the onset difference between drug and latex allergies?

Reactions to drugs usually occur within 10min where latex can take up to 30min

98

What is the route of entry for latex allergy?

Mucus membranes and inhalation

99

What does the ASA suggest for surgical timing in patients with a latex allergy?

They should be the first case in the morning when the levels of latex airborne allergens are the smallest

100

What is thought to trigger autoimmune disorders?

Infection or environmental antigens: streptococcus, e-coli, staph aureus and certain drugs

101

What is the treatment for autoimmune disorders?

Immunosupprants

102

What are three categories to consider when caring for a patient with an autoimmune disease?

Vulnerable organs specific to disease
Risk of accelerated atherosclerosis and associated CV compromise
The consequence of therapy used to treat disorder

103

What is immunosenescence experience by the elderly?

The changes in the innate and adaptive immune response associated with increased age

104

What effects does age have on the immune system?

Increased susceptibility to infection
Malignancy
Autoimmunity
Decreased response to vaccines
Impaired wound healing

105

How do opioids affect the immune system?

Suppress NK, lymphocyte, neutrophil and macrophage functions

106

How does morphine affect the immune system?

Impairs antibody formation

107

How does ketamine, volatiles and thiopental affect the immune system?

Reduce NK cell activity and or number

108

How does nitrous oxide impair immune function?

Impair DNA and has been observed to depress hematopoietic and mononuclear cell synthesis and neutrophil chemotaxis

109

How does propofol impact the immune system?

Unclear but thought to inhibit neutrophil, monocyte and macrophage activity

110

What effect do non opioid analgesics have on the immune system?

Less effect than opioids, Tramadol may actually promote NK activity
COX 2 may actually possess anti tumor and anti angiogenic properties

111

What effect does regional anesthesia have on the immune system?

Reduces requirements for immunosuppressive drugs
May be associated with decreased cancer recurrence

112

What effects do lidocaine and ropivicane have on the immune system?

May suppress growth of tumor cells

113

What is the recommendation for surgery in patients with infectious disease?

No surgery except emergency or essential the nan acute infection because renal insufficiency can be caused by antimicrobial drugs

114

What is the leading cause of post op morbidity in patients with an acute infectious disease?

Sepsis, due to decreased SVR

115

What intervention has been known to radically reduce the rate of nosocomial infections?

Hand washing