Immunosuppr Rx Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

Immunosuppressants

A

Cyclosporine Tacrolimus (FK-506) Sirolimus (rapamycin) Azathioprine Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cyclosporine

A
  1. Post-transplant immunosuppression; select autoimmune disorders 2. Binds to cyclophilins. Complex blocks differentiation and activation of Tcells–> inhibiting calcineurin–> preventing production of IL-2 and its receptor 3. Nephrotoxicity, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia, tremor, gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism 4. Think old man with diabetes who wants to look good for his date so he put in dentures and got hair plugs: old (renal failure, HTN, cholesterol), diabetes (hyperglycemia), dentures (gum hyperplasia), hair plugs (hirsutism, and he is taking the drug because of his hair transplant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tacrolimus (FK-506)

A
  1. Post- organ transplant immunosuppression; POTENT 2. Binds to FK protein->inhibiting calcineurin->preventing IL-2 3. Nephrotoxicity, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia, tremor 4. Think old with diabetes who is nervous because he is super sick: old (renal failure, HTN, cholesterol), diabetes (hyperglycemia), nervous (tremor), super sick (strong immunosuppressant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sirolimus (rapamycin)

A
  1. Immunosuppression post-KIDNEY transplant (Give with cyclosporine); used with drug-eluting stents 2. Inhibits mTOR. Decreased cell proliferation in response to IL-2 3. Hyperlipidemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia 4. SIROlimus= SERIOUS complications: immunosuppression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Azathioprine

A
  1. Immunosuppression post-KIDNEY transplant; autoimmune disorders (including glomerulonephritis and hemolytic anemia) 2. Antimetabolite. Blocks 6-mercaptopurine synth-> decreased synthesis of nucleic acids. Toxic to proliferating lymphocytes. 3. Bone marrow suppression. 4. Active metabolite (mercaptopurine) is metabolized by xanthine oxidase so more toxic when given with allopurinol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3)

A
  1. Immunosuppression post-KIDNEY transplant 2. Monoclonal antibody to CD3 on T-cells. Blocks interaction with CD3 responsible for T-cell signal transduction 3. Cytokine release syndrome, hypersensitivity reaction 4. Antibodies= hypersensitivity, hypersensitivity= cytokine release -nab= monocolonal antibody therapy (usually)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recombinant Cytokines

A

Aldesleukin (interleukin-2) Epoetin alfa (erythropoietin) Filgrastim (CSF-G) Sargramostim (CSF-GM) Alpha-Interferon Beta-Interferon Gamma-Interferon Oprelvekin (interleukin-11) Thrombopoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Aldesleukin

A
  1. Renal cell carcinoma Metastatic Melanoma 2. Cytokine: Interleukin-2 MOA: increases helper, cytotoxic, and regulatory T cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Epoetin alfa

A
  1. Anemias (esp in renal failure) 2. Cytokine: Erythropoietin MOA: Stimulates Erythrocyte replication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Filgrastim

A
  1. Recovery of bone marrow 2. GM-CSF (Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sargramostim (CSF-GM)

A
  1. Recovery of bone marrow 2. GM-CSF (Granulocyte-Macrophage Colony Stimulating Factor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Alpha-Interferon

A
  1. Hepatitis B and C Kaposi’s Sarcoma Leukemia Malignant Melanoma 2. Inhibit viral protein synthesis and activates NK cells to kill virally infected cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Beta-Interferon

A

Multiple Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Gamma-Interferon

A
  1. Chronic Granulomatous disease 2. Activates macrophages and Th1 cells Suppresses Th2 cells. 4. (G)amma = (G)ranulomatous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Oprelvekin

A
  1. Thrombocytopenia 2. IL-11
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Thrombopoietin

A

Thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Theraputic Antibodies

A

Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3 Digoxin Immune Fab Infliximab Adalimumab Abciximab Trastuzumab (Herceptin) Rituximab Omalizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3)

A
  1. Immunosuppression post-KIDNEY transplant 2. Monoclonal antibody to CD3 on T-cells. Blocks interaction with CD3 responsible for T-cell signal transduction 3. Cytokine release syndrome, hypersensitivity reaction 4. Antibodies= hypersensitivity, hypersensitivity= cytokine release -nab= monocolonal antibody therapy (usually)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Digoxin Immune Fab

A

Target: Digoxin Use: Antidote for Digoxin toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Infliximab

A

Target: TNF-alpha Use: Crohn’s Disease, Rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis

23
Q

Adalimumab

A

Target: TNF-alpha Use: Crohn’s Disease, Rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis

24
Q

Abciximab

A

Target: Glycoprotien IIb/IIIa Use: Prevent cardiac ischemia in unstable angina and patients treated with percutaneous coronary intervention MOA: Prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the platelet-GIIb/IIIa-fibrinogen bonds

25
Q

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

A

Target: HER2 Use: HER2 overexpressing breast cancer

26
Q

Rituximab

A

Target: CD20 Use: B-cell non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

27
Omalizumab
Target: IgE Use: Additional treatment for severe asthma
30
-azole
Antifungal Ex: Ketoconazole
31
-cillin
Penicillin Ex: Methicillin
32
-cycline
Antibiotic, protein synthesis inhibitor Ex: Tetracycline
33
-navir
Antibiotic, protease inhibitor Ex: Saqyubavir
35
-triptan
5-HT 1B/1D agonists (for migranes) Ex: Sumatriptan
36
-ane
Inhalational general anesthetic Ex: Halothane
37
-caine
Local anesthetic Ex: Lidocaine
38
-operidol
Butyrophenone (neuroleptic) Ex: Haloperidol
39
-azine
Phenothiazine (neuroleptic, antiemetic) Ex: Chlorpromazine, compazine
40
-barbital
Barbituate Ex: Phenobarbital
41
-zolam
Benzodiazepine Ex: Alprazolam
42
-azepam
Benzodiazepine Ex: Diazepam
43
-etine
SSRI Ex: Fluoxetine
44
-ipramine
TCA Ex: Imipramine
45
-triptyline
TCA Ex: Amitriptyline
47
-olol
B-antagonist Ex: Propranolol
48
-terol
B2-agonist Ex: Albuterol
49
-zosin
Alpha1-antagonist Ex: Prazosin
51
-oxin
Cardiac glycoside (inotropic agent) Ex: Digoxin
52
-pril
ACE inhibitor Ex: Captopril
53
-afil
Erectile Dysfunction Ex: Sildenafil
55
-tropin
Pituitary hormone Ex: Somatotropin
56
-tidine
H2 antagonist Ex: Cimetidine