Immunosuppressant and Immunomodulatory Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the timing and cause of hyperacute rejection.

How could you avoid hyperacute rejection?

A

Occurs within minutes of transplant
Caused by preformed reactive antibodies

Avoid it by crossmatching the blood types and tissues before transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the timing and cause of acute rejection

A

6-12 months post transplant

T cell mediated rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the timing and cause of chronic rejection

A

Months-years after transplant

Due to fibrosis damaging the graft blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In general, what is the medical approach to immunosuppression in transplant patients?

A

Triple therapy regimen.
Target 3 different aspects of the immune system to prevent rejection. This also allows you to lower the dose of each regimen, thus decreasing risk of adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two glucocorticoids used in immunosuppressive therapy?
Which is a pro-drug and which is an active drug?

A

Prednisone (prodrug)

Prednisolone (active drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Glucocorticoids

MOA

A

They are steroid hormones that bind intracellular receptors, causing inactivation of proinflammatory and regulatory genes

Decrease number of circulating leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When are high doses of IV steroids (Prednisone/Prednisolone) used?

A

Acute rejection episodes

Graft vs Host Disease in bone marrow transplant

Treatment of Cytokine Release Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Glucocorticoids

Adverse Effects associated with chronic treatment

A
Increased risk of infection
Hyperglycemia
HTN
Hyperlipidemia
Obesity
High risk of exacerbating preexisting diabetes or developing diabetes
Osteopenia
Cataracts
Growth retardation in kids
Poor wound healing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Glucocorticoids

How are they typically administered to prevent adverse effects? Describe how cessation of glucocorticoid therapy occurs.

A

Slow taper over the first month

You should NOT rapidly withdraw from Glucocorticoid therapy due to risk of having an acute adrenal crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Azathioprine

MOA

A

Prodrug of 6-mercaptopurine.

Then gets converted to 6-TIMP, which inhibits de-novo synthesis of purines.

TIMP also gets metabolized to inhibit Rac1, leading to inhibition of T cell activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Azathioprine

Indications

A
Prophylaxis prevention of graft rejection
Autoimmune diseases (RA, Crohn's, MS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Azathioprine

Adverse Effects

A
GI effects (nausea, diarrhea, vomiting)
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia
Increased infection risk
Increased malignancy risk
Hepatotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Azathioprine

Drug Reactions

A

Reacts with Allopurinol and Febuxostat (Xanthine oxidase inhibitors used in the treatment of gout)
- Causes elevated 6-mercaptopurine levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
Mycophenolate Mofetil (MMF)
MOA
A

Prodrug of mycophenolic acid (MMF gets converted to mycophenolic acid via a reaction by a plasma esterase)

Mycophenolic acid inhibits Inosine Monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH) Type II, the rate limiting enzyme in de novo synthesis of purines

Selectively inhibits lymphocyte proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Mycophenolate Mofetil (MMF)
Adverse Effects
A
Diarrhea, nausea, vomiting
Leukopenia
Anemia
Embryo/fetal toxicity - congenital abnormalities
Increased infection risk
Increased malignancy risk

Can cause appearance of PML (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy) - inflammatory response in brain caused by reactivation of JC virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
Mycophenolate Mofetil (MMF)
Contraindications
A

Do NOT give MMF to a man or woman of child bearing age who wishes to have children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the calcineurin inhibitors?

A

Cyclosporine

Tacrolimus

18
Q

Calcineurin Inhibitors

Indications

A

Prevent solid organ rejection
Prevent GvH disease
Several autoimmune disorders (Psoriasis, RA, SKE, Inflammatory bowel)

19
Q

Cyclosporine

MOA

A

Cyclosporine binds cyclophilin, which is a peptidylprolyl isomerase, inhibiting the enzyme’s activity.

This complex inhibits Calcineurin, thus inhibiting T cell activation.

20
Q

What is the normal function of Calcineurin?

A

Signaling enzyme that activates upon an increase in intracellular Ca2+.
Dephosphorylates inactive NFAT and activates it, activating expression of IL-2 for T cell survival

21
Q

Tacrolimus

MOA

A

Tacrolimus binds to FKBP (FK506 binding protein), a peptidylprolyl isomerase, inhibiting the enzyme’s activity.

This complex inhibits Calcineurin, thus inhibiting T cell activation.

22
Q

Calcineurin Inhibitors

Metabolism

A

Both Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus are extensively metabolized by CYP3A4

23
Q

Calcineurin Inhibitors

Adverse Effects

A

Nephrotoxicity

HTN

24
Q

What are the mTOR inhibitors?

A

Sirolimus

Everolimus

25
Q

Sirolimus and Everolimus

MOA

A

Both bind FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits the mTAR kinase complex.

Inhibits IL-2 mediated signals in T cells, thereby inhibiting T cell proliferation

26
Q

Sirolimus and Everolimus

Indications

A

Prophylactic prevention of graft rejection
Prevent GvH disease
Inhibit restenosis in coronary stents

27
Q

Sirolimus and Everolimus

Contraindiciations

A

Pregnancy

Liver and lung transplants

28
Q

What is induction therapy?

A

Using anti-lymphocytic antibodies to acutely inhibit T cell responses in the recipient at the time of transplant

Use either lymphocyte depleting antibodies or functional inhibition antibodies

29
Q

What is the difference between Lymphocyte Depleting Abs vs. Functional Inhibition Abs in Induction therapy?

A

Lymphocyte depleting Abs
Getting rid of lymphocytes that would attack the graft entirely

Functional Inhibition Abs
Inhibit the lymphocytes, but do not kill them

30
Q

Rabbit Anti-thymocyte Globulins

MOA

A

Actively depletes lymphocytes from blood and lymphoid organs

31
Q

Rabbit Anti-thymocyte Globulins

Adverse Effects

A

Cytokine release syndrome (Ab activates T cell and induces cytokines)

Leukopenia and increased infections

32
Q

Alemtuzumab

MOA

A

Anti-CD52 (attacks T, B cells, macrophages, NK cells, granulocytes)

Triggers Ab-mediated lysis of lymphocytes

33
Q

Alemtuzumab

Adverse Effects

A

Cytokine release syndrome

34
Q

Basiliximab

MOA

A

Antagonist of the IL-2 receptor, inhibiting T cell proliferation

Functional inhibitor, does not kill the lymphocytes

35
Q

When approaching immunosuppressive therapy after organ transplant, how do you design the patient’s therapy during the first post-transplant week? Beyond that?

A

Induction therapy is given intra-operatively and during the first week

Maintenance therapy begins after that, including a Glucocorticoid + Cyclosporine/Tacrolimus + Anti-proliferative drug

36
Q
Intravenous Immunoglobulin (IVIG)
MOA
A

Purified human Ig from pooled human plasma

Prophylactically provides passive immunity to individuals with underlying immunodeficiencies

37
Q

Hyperimmune Ig

MOA

A

Similar to IVIG, but it’s purified from individuals with high titers against a specific antigen or organism

38
Q

Rho(D) Immune Globulins

MOA

A

Antibodies specific for Rh(D) antigen on RBCs

Used to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn in Rh– women

39
Q

What are the immune checkpoint inhibitors used?

A

Ipilimumab

Pembrolizumab/Nivolumab

40
Q

Ipilimumab

MOA

A

Monoclonal Ab specific for CTLA4 protein on activated T cells

Leads to enhanced T cell activation by preventing CTLA4 from binding CD80/86 and delivering a negative signal

41
Q

Pembrolizumab and Nivolumab

MOA

A

Used in metastatic melanoma and non-small cell lung cancer

Abs specific for PD1 protein on T cells, blocking the PD1/PD1-L interaction that tumor cells use to evade the immune system