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Flashcards in Indoc Review Deck (96):
1

Flight visibility is the average forward horizontal distance from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight that:

Unlighted objects maybe seen during the day and lighted objects at night.

2

V1 means:

Take-off decision speed

3

V2 means:

Take-off safety speed

4

Who is responsible for determining if the aircraft is an airworthy condition?

The Pilot-in-Command

5

Maximum airspeed underneath a lateral limit of class B airspace?

200 KIAS

6

What is required prior to entering any class C airspace?

Establish two-way radio communications with the controlling ATC facility

7

Under IFR in controlled airspace, the right altitude for a flight on a magnetic course of 187° is:

Altitude assigned by ATC

8

When must a VOR check be performed?

Every 30 days for the FAA, every day for TSA

9

May a flight crew depart at a weight that would require a higher than normal fuel burn in order to land at their destination at or below the aircraft maximum certificated landing weight?

No, they must depart at a lighter weight

10

Alternate airport for the airport of take off is required:

If weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums

11

What is the maximum distance a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport for two-engine turbine powered aircraft?

One hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative

12

If you were being radar vectored in IFR conditions and lose radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?

Fly direct to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance

13

What are the minimum certificates and rating requirements for the second-in-command of a multi-engine aircraft operating IFR?

Commercial pilot, airplane category, multi-engine class rating, and instrument rating

14

ACARS weight and balance information is kept by AeroData for how long?

Three months

15

An instrument approach procedure to an airport may not be initiated unless the latest weather report issued by an authorized weather reporting facility indicates that weather conditions:

Are at or above the authorized landing minima for that procedure

16

Before each flight, who is directly responsible for determining the airworthiness status of a mechanical irregularity previously entered into the aircraft maintenance log?

Pilot-in-Command of the next flight

17

A pilot based in STL has a 0553 showtime in BDL to fly to legs (BDL to PIT and PIT to STL). The pilot is scheduled to arrive in STL at 0921 with a duty off time of 0936. Prior to duty off, scheduling adds an ORD to his schedule. What time must the pilot's FDP end?

1453 STL time (9 hours)

18

An ORD based pilot has a short call reserve availability period that starts at 0400. The pilot is assigned to airport reserve with a showtime of 0600. While on airport reserve the pilot is assigned a MLI turn that departs at 1300. What time must the pilot's FDP end?

1900 ORD time (13 hours)

19

What is not a restriction for a 1000 hour in-type F/O?

The Captain shall make all takeoffs and landings if windshear is reported

20

Which procedure should be followed by a Trans States Airlines Captain who is circling to land in a Category C airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

Use the approach minima appropriate for a category D, or 1000/3, whichever is higher

21

Once on line, according to the organizational chart, crew members report directly to:

Chief Pilot

22

Which two individuals are jointly responsible for the dispatch of an aircraft?

Captain and Dispatcher

23

Where may lower than standard take-off minimum guidelines be found?

Trans States Airlines Operating Specifications
(Ops Specs)

24

If an airport is served by two separate navigation aids to different and suitable runways. One of the approaches has approach minimums of 200 feet and 3/4 mile. The other approach requires 400 feet and 1/2 mile. Using the two approach method, what would this airport's alternate minimums be if both approaches and runways were available to the pilot?

600 1-1/4 miles
( * add 200 + 1/2 to each of the higher individual minimum values)

25

Which of the following statements concerning time between maintenance deferral and repair (MEL items) is false?

Category D items can remain deferred indefinitely

26

A pilot may not act as crewmember of a Trans States Airlines aircraft if he/she has consumed an alcoholic beverage within the past:

12 hours

27

An average passenger weight on May 1st is:

184 pounds

28

The fuel listed under the burn amount of a dispatch release is:

Take-off to landing

29

Minimum fuel will be declared by the Captain to ATC when:

He must burn into his 45 minute reserve to continue the flight

30

If a crewmember's medical is due during the month of May, when must he provided a copy of it to the Pilot Records Administrator?

May 25

31

All Captains are considered high-minimums for approaches unless they have?

100 hours in type after IOE

32

If a First Officer has less than 100 hours in type of aircraft being flown in carrier operations, what is the maximum crosswind component he may land with?

15 knots

33

A STL based pilot has a showtime in IAD of 0430 local time. How many hours of flight time will he be legal to fly before receiving rest?

8

34

An IAD based pilot has a show time in ORD of 0430 local time, How many hours of light will he be legal to fly before receiving rest?

9

35

To be able to use the lower than standard take-off minimums when visibility is below landing minimums, you must have a:

Take-off alternate within 1-hour, single-engine cruise speed, in still air

36

The pilot in command shall park the aircraft into the wind whenever the wind speed is in excess of?

20 knots

37

Sterile cockpit procedures must be observed until in level cruise flight or above what altitude?

10,000 feet

38

What does SPECI mean?

The observation is a "SPECIAL" rather than an hourly report

39

When flying near thunderstorms, you should avoid severe cells by:

20 miles

40

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of the frontal system?

Change in wind direction

41

When using radar to avoid severe thunderstorms, if the radar image has a concave look to it, and is not painting ground on the other side of the cell, this means:

The radar is displaying a severe cell that should be avoided by at least 20 miles

42

Frost may be adhering to the fuselage for takeoff, as long as the wings, tail and flight control surfaces are free of contamination: (T / F)

False

43

A characteristic of stable air is:

Stratiform clouds and fog

44

A steady state thunderstorm is _________ than an air mass thunderstorm:

Stronger

45

Where is hail commonly encountered?

Underneath the anvil of a large cumulonimbus

46

In which of the following locations would a severe CAT be most likely in the United States?

On the north side of a strong jet stream in winter

47

Which of the following would be a symptom of spatial disorientation?

A belief that the aircraft is banked when the attitude indicator (AI) shows wings level

48

Non-directional beacons are:

Subject to weather disturbances

49

Glide-slope signals are:

All of the above

50

What is the purpose of the VDP (Visual Descent Point):

To provide a point from which normal descent from the MDA maybe commenced, if visual references are established

51

While approaching the terminal area, ATC clears you for the ILS approach. What altitude does this authorize you to fly?

You are to maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes; you may then descend to those altitudes

52

If a pilot has accepted a visual approach clearance from ATC based upon having another aircraft in sight, what must he do if he loses sight of that aircraft?

Advise ATC immediately

53

An aircraft is "cleared for the approach” and is established on a published route segment of an instrument approach in a radar environment. How should altitude changes be made?

Descend to comply with published altitudes on the instrument approach procedure chart

54

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for an instrument approach, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight

55

How does a pilot know when radar service is terminated during a visual approach?

Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact tower

56

What does the RVR value depicted on instrument approach procedure charts represent?

The horizontal distance a pilot can see high-intensity runway lights

57

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights (REIL) is to provide:

Rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility

58

A series of red lights only in the runway centerline lighting indicates that:

1000 feet of runway remaining

59

Which flight condition of a large jet airplane creates the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?

Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up

60

Which of the following factors causes a delay in obtaining lift in a turbojet aircraft during a go-around in the flare when compared to a propeller driven aircraft?

All of the above

61

1700 - False

1700 - False

62

1701 - 12 months

1701 - 12 months

63

1703 - Both 1 and 3

1703 - Both 1 and 3

64

1705 - True

1705 - True

65

1708 - both 2 and 3

1708 - both 2 and 3

66

1709 - fireworks

1709 - fireworks

67

1710 - Varnish

1710 - Varnish

68

1712 - battery acid

1712 - battery acid

69

What are the approach minimums to shoot the ILS 23R at KIND if you are flying the approach at a Category B airspeed?

24 or 1/2 mile

70

What is the MDA for an approach when the glideslope is out of service?

1180 feet

71

What is the touchdown zone elevation for runway 23R at KIND?

783 feet

72

What is the CMI radial you track inbound while shooting this approach?

The 232° radial

73

Which runways have RVR installed at KMSN?

18 and 36

74

What are the minimums to depart runway 21 at KMSN?

1/4 mile

75

How wide is runway 18/36?

150 feet

76

Are there any restrictions to the use of the Capital transition on this arrival?

No restrictions ( * this question was NOT on my test, my test had a question regarding the name of a transition point .. MAZOOL? or something like that?)

77

If inbound to KSTL on the VLAS arrival and planning to land on runway 30R at what point should you expect to be radar vectored from?

TOY VOR

78

At what point is there a course change when tracking from VLA inbound toward STL?

At PETTI

79

What is the appropriate departure control frequency if departing on the TURBO4.THOMP transition?

128.1 ( * this question was NOT on my test, there WAS a question regarding a radio freq, but not this one)

80

What CSX radial does the TURBO4.GENTS transition use?

143° radial

81

1704 - 5.5

1704 - 5.5

82

1716 - Load Report Form

1716 - Load Report Form

83

1003 - designed Maneuvering Speed

1003 - designed Maneuvering Speed

84

If the holder of a pilot certificate moves from their permanent mailing address, they must notify the FAA within?

30 days

85

When may a pilot operate in a prohibited area?

With permission from the controlling agency

86

If the weather forecast requires the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the airplane must carry enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, then to the alternate airport, then:

Fly thereafter for a minimum of 45 minutes

87

What is the maximum number of hours that a pilot may fly as a crewmember in 121 air carrier service?

100 hours in any 672 consecutive hours (28 days) and 1000 hours in any 365 consecutive days.

88

Within every 168 consecutive hours (7 days) a crew member must have at least one rest period of at least how many consecutive hours?

30 hours

89

For which of the following TAF's may exemption 3585 be used when departing towards a destination airport utilizing 200 and 1/2 minimums?

1SM BR VV002 TEMPO 1/4SM FG VV001

90

What is the shortest runway that a F/O may make a landing upon?

4500’

91

While fueling an aircraft, the GPU:

Must not be connected, disconnected, turned ON or OFF during the fueling operation

92

A high-density-altitude airport will affect aircraft performance by:

Increasing take-off distance

93

The characteristic of unstable air is:

All of the above

94

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?

REIL

95

ATC radar vectoring relieves pilots from the responsibility for seeing and avoiding other traffic: (T / F)

False

96

16 May 2018. If you downloaded or updated this deck after 12 May, I unintentionally deleted a few of the cards. I will add those cards back to the deck shortly.

Apologies ...