Infant Health Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

______ _____ _______

a) Promotes health and positive development outcomes
b) Proactive screening
c) Promotion strategies, specific screening and anticipatory guidance

A

Child Health Supervision

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2
Q

Proactive screening in children is known as?

A

Well Child Check (WCC)

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3
Q

The newborn period is ____ months

A

1 to 2 months

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4
Q

The newborn period is ____months

A

1 to 12 months

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5
Q

The physical focus should look at

a) Gross motor or (________)
b) Fine motor (_____>______) development

A

a) cephalocaudal

b) proximal > distal

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6
Q

Focus on cognitive with infant health focuses on?

A

Sensorimotor

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7
Q

Focus on Psychosocial known as?

A

Developing test

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8
Q

According to Bright Futures guidelines, the schedule for an infant from age two weeks to one year is at two weeks followed by 2, ___, 6, 9, and 12 months.

A

2

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9
Q

If discharged from the hospital prior to ___ hours, the first visit should be within three to five days.

A

48 hours

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10
Q

Stage Appropriate Screening:
1) _______ data
2) Objective data
a) physical examination
3) Streening
a) TB screening not universally done; based on risk
b) Development screening [ Denver Developmental
Screening Test, second education (Denver II) or
the equivalent for children < or equal 6 years of age
4) Laboratory
a) Bilirubin if indicated
b) Hematocrit

A

1) Subjective data

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11
Q

Hematocrit between __, 9, and 12 months, unless otherwise indicated

A

6

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12
Q

Head circumference in Infant Is collected until what age?

A

Up to two years

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13
Q

Physical examination: Necessary elements include what?

1) Length
2) Weight
3) Head circumference
4) Serial measurements recorded with standardized charting
5) dental development
6) ____ _____
7) head size, shape, and fontanels
8) head control by 4 months
9) no lag when pulled to sitting
10) assess for neck masses
11) close inspection of the head for evidence of syndromes previously presented
12) skin variations
13) assess for periorbital edema
14) flattened or flaring nose
15) nasal discharge
16) mouth/ throat exam
17) voice
18) chest/ lung exam

A

6) vital signs

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14
Q

Head circumference is up to how many years?

A

2 years

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15
Q

Head control by ____ months?

A

4 months

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16
Q

No lag when pulled to sitting at ___ months; lag may be the first sign of palsy

A

6 months

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17
Q

Mouth/throat exam: History may indicate abnormalities

a) too little/ too much _____
b) sleeping with a bottle
c) unusual tooth eruption sequence
d) fissures at lip corners: vitamin deficiency
e) asymmetrically enlarged tonsils

A

fluoride

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18
Q

Fissures at lip corners from vitamin defficiency AKA?

A

Cheilosis

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19
Q

Asymmetric enlargement tonsils may suggest what?

A

Tonsillar lymphoma

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20
Q

Shrill, high pitch voice in the infant may indicate?

A

increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

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21
Q

Chest/lung exam in an infant:

a) diaphragmatic breathers
b) Pectus carinatum (pigeon chest)
c) Pectus excavatum
d) gynecomastia/ galactorrhea up to ___ months of age

A

3 months

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22
Q

Pectus carinatum also called?

A

pigeon chest

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23
Q

This is a sunken chest; the most common congenital deformity of the anterior wall of the chest

A

Pectus excavatum

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24
Q

Abdomen in an infant is:

a) prominent
b) liver edges palpable ____ cm below right costal margin
c) diastasis recti

A

b) 1 to 2 cm

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25
Separation of the rectus abdominis muscle
Diastasis recti
26
Unable to fully retract the foreskin in an infant?
Phimosis
27
Testes fully developed by ___ months of age?
3 months
28
Developmental hip dysplasia: 1) Barlow's and ______ sign 2) Alli's sign 3) Galeazzi Sign 4) Skinfold thickness asymmetry
1) Ortolani's
29
Unequal leg length
Alli's sign
30
Unequal knee height
Galeazzi sign
31
________ nodes require aggressive investigation
Supraclavicular
32
Standards test for an infant's development are? a) ______ II b) Bayley Behavioral Assessment Scale (BSID-II) c) Newborn Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) d) Bayley Infant Neurodevelopment Screener (BINS) e) Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ)
Denver
33
Survival reflexes are a) _______ b) temperature control c) feeding
a) breathing
34
Visual acuity assessed with: a) _____ reflex b) pupil constriction indicated newborn vision
a) blink
35
Sensorimotor development a) adaptation of reflexes to environment b) simple problem-solving without _____ and error
trial
36
``` Psychosocial development Differentiation of temperament a) _____ b) slow to warm c) difficult/ cyclic ```
easy
37
Development of fears in infants to strangers is?
by 6 months
38
Developmental of separation fear is by?
8 months
39
Attachment: Affective bond that develops over the ___ year and will differentiate into other emotions later.
first
40
Two types of attachment in infants are?
secure and insecure
41
The infant has an insecure attachment that will show what? a) avoidance b) ________ c) Disorganization
b) anxiety
42
Cleaning schedule ( first dental visit by ___ years of age)
1 year
43
Supplements for infant related to nutritions are: 1) Iron 2) ______ 3) Flouride
2) vitamin D
44
Sleep for infants 2 months to 1 year is how many hours per night?
8 to 12 hours per night
45
How many naps per day for infant?
2 to three
46
Avoid ___ with the infant
sleeping
47
After night feeds end, ____ ___ picks up the baby during the night?
do not
48
Developmental delay is seen when? a) Apparent visual delay b) Does not raise head when lying on the stomach by ___ months c) does not try to pick up a toy by 6 months d) no reaction to noise/ voice e) does not laugh f) does not seek interpersonal contact g) does not sit up
b) 3 months
49
The rectal temperature in an infant is ____?
> or equal to 100.4 or 38 degrees celcius
50
In the very young infant, the temperature can be ____ with infection as they are unable to thermoregulate.
subnormal
51
Fever in early infancy (the first ___ months of Life)
2 months
52
Temperature higher than ____ suggest a serious bacterial infection
101.8 (38.9)
53
___% of fevers occur in infants less than 4 weeks of age
40%
54
____ % of fever is viral
40%
55
Bacterial infections, common organisms a) First month: Group ____ _______ (GBS) and gram-negative enteric organisms b) Second month: S. Pneuomoniae and H. Influenza
Group B Streptococcus (GBS)
56
______ infants appear alert and active, smile, and feed well
Mildly ill
57
_______ infants may be fussy or irritable but continue to feed, are consolable and may smile; these infants may have otitis media.
Moderate ill
58
________ infants [ temperature of 104 (40) or higher] appear listless, cannot be consoled, feed poorly, or not at all; hospital admission is recommended
Severely ill
59
When a local site of infection cannot be found, consider the diagnosis of ______
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
60
Most commonly used drug is: a) Acetaminophen b) ____________
Ibuprophen
61
Acetaminophen: First line of therapy, ____ mg/kg every 4 to 6 hours
10- 15
62
Ibuprofen (approved after 6 months of age); ___ mg/kg every 6 hours
10 mg/kg