Infectious Diseases Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis
Pathophysiology?
Acute infection (skin, pulmonary, GI)?
Diagnosis?
Treatment?

A

human parasitic nematode worm found in soil and infects via the skin
Skin -> larva currens. Pulmonary -> Loeffler’s syndrome (transient pulmonary infiltrates, cough). GI -> Abdominal pain, diarrhea, or constipation
Stool microscopy (Larvae)
Ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What medication is indicated in non-falciparum malaria to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

A

Primaquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gastroenteritis in student who is eating rewarmed rice causative agent?

A

Bacillus Cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If CD4 count is less than? life long prophylaxis is needed against toxoplasmosis?

A

<200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Toxoplasmosis
Causative agent?
Diagnosis?
Tx?

A

Toxoplasma gondii
Serology
Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiazine + folinic acid Immunocompromised)
If fit and well - no Tx required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mechanism of integrase inhibitors (‘Gravirs’)

A

blocks the enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mechanism of HIV drugs maraviroc and enfuvirtide?

A

Bind to coreceptors necessary for HIV entrance into CD4+ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MOI of Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) (e.g. nevirapine, efavirenz)

A

Block HIV reverse transcriptase thereby preventing the HIV virion from replicating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MOI Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) (e.g. zidovudine (AZT), abacavir, emtricitabine, lamivudine, and tenofovir)

A

Inhibit reverse transcription by being incorporated into the growing viral DNA strand and preventing further addition of nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MOI antiretroviral inhibitors HIV drug class (indinavir, nelfinavir, and ritonavir)

A

Binding to the catalytic site of the HIV protease, thereby preventing the cleavage of viral polyprotein precursors into mature, functional proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Teenager swam in lake in asia. suffered self resolving itchy rash on legs. now has dysuria and frank haematuria. Eosinophilia on bloods.
Diagnosis?
Tx?

A

schistosoma haematobium (schistosomiasis/bilharzia)
praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hyposplenism or post splenectomy when should patient receive doses?
-pneumococcal, Haemophilus type B and meningococcus type C
- influenza vaccine
-Meningitis ACWY + Further hepatitis B

A

-14 days post splenectomy
-Every winter/autumn
-2 months post splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

normal vaginal pH (above 4.5), the presence of clue cells on microscopy and/or a positive whiff tes

A

Bacterial vaginosis - overgrowth of predominately Gardnerella vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Disseminated gonococcal infection triad

A

tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Features
vaginal discharge: offensive, yellow/green, frothy
vulvovaginitis
strawberry cervix
pH > 4.5
in men is usually asymptomatic but may cause urethritis

Investigation
microscopy of a wet mount shows motile trophozoites

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment of immunocompromised patients with cryptosporidiosis

A

Nitazoxanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

deep, painful genital ulcer and is often associated with inguinal lymphadenopathy in sexually active man

A

Chancroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

High fevers, pharyngitis, dyspnoea, cough, and a grey pseudomembrane covering the tonsils are typical signs and symptoms of

A

Diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

flu like illness → brief remission→ followed by jaundice and haematemesis in returned fever from tropics?

17
Q

Cryptosporidium can be diagnosed by modified Ziehl-Neelsen staining of stool to reveal

18
Q

Bloody Diarrhoea (Campylobacter) tx?

19
Q

Bloody diarrhoea (Amoebiasis ) Tx?

A

Metro + diloxanide furoate

20
Q

Bloody diarrhoea (Salmonella ) Tx?

A

Ciprofloxacilin

21
Q

Bloody diarrhoea (Shigella ) Tx?

A

ciprofloxacin

22
Bloody diarrhoea E.Haemorrhagic E coli Tx?
Supportive
23
staphylococci + streptococci (including enterococci) Gram Positive or gram negative cocci?
Gram positive Cocci
24
Infection with Schistosoma haematobium is most strongly associated with what cancer?
Squamous cell bladder cancer
24
ChlamydiaTx 1st line? 2nd Line?
1)Doxycycline 2) Azithromycin
25
Gonorrhoea Tx 1st line? 2nd line?
1) IM Ceftriaxone 2) Ciprofloxacilin
26
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) -Causative agent? -Primary stage? -Secondary stage? -First line treatment?
-Chlamydia trachomatis -Painless genital ulcer which heals -Painful lymphadenopathy -Doxycycline
27
Chancroid -Causative bacterium? -Ulcer? -Lymphadenopathy? -Appearance on gram stain? -Culture media? -Tx?
-Haemophilus ducreyi -Painful, ragged edges -Painful -'School of fish' -Chocolate agar -Azithromycin
28
Syphilis -Organism? -Primary? -Secondary? -Latent? -Tx?
-Treponema pallidum -Painless indurated genital ulcer + painless lymphadenopathy -Generalised maculopapular rash -Asymptomatic serologically positive -Benzathine penicillin
29
MOA of aciclovir?
Inhibition of viral DNA Polymerase
30
Bacterium responsible for Cat Scratch Disease?
Bartonella henselae
31
Bacterium responsible for whooping cough?
Bordetella pertussis
32
MOA of tetanus toxin?
blocks the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine resulting in continuous motor neuron activity
33
What organism can present with culture negative endocarditis?
Coxiella burnetii
34
MOA: inhibit the enzyme squalene epoxidase, which results in inhibition of ergosterol synthesis required for several fungal cells progresses -Leads to cellular death and deranged lfts with abdominal pain
Terbinafine
35
What would the glucose CSF content be in mumps induced encephalitis?
Low
35
Fever and the presence of a eschar in a patient returning from South East Asia is strongly suggestive of ? and treated with ?
scrub typhus (caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi) Doxycycline
36
Why does malaria caused by P. knowlesi lead to the highest parasite count?
shortest erythrocytic replication cycle
37
MOA Macrolides
inhibit the 50S subunit of ribosomes, inhibiting translocation
38
Post Exposure HIV prophylaxis PEP regime?
Three drug antiretroviral regime for one month
39
A butcher, with no travel Hx, presents with acute diarrhoea illness and mesenteric adenitis confirmed on CT. What is the causative agent?
Yersinia enterocolitica infection
40